Related provisions for PERG 4.5.7A

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CONC 7.3.1GRP
(1) In relation to debt collecting and debt administration, the definition of customer refers to an individual from whom the payment of a debt is sought; this would include where a firm mistakenly treats an individual as the borrower under an agreement and mistakenly or wrongly pursues the individual for a debt.[Note: paragraph 1.12 of DCG](2) In relation to debt collecting and debt administration, the definitions of customer and borrower are given extended meanings to include,
MAR 5A.5.9RRP
A firm which permits direct electronic access to an OTF it operates must:(1) not permit members or participants of the OTF to provide such services unless they are:(a) MiFID investment firms3; or(b) CRD credit institutions; or(c) third country firms providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under article 46.1 of MiFIR; or(d) third country firms providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under article 47.3 of MiFIR;
CONC 8.10.1RRP
This section applies to: (1) a firm with respect to providing credit information services in relation to information relevant to the financial standing of an individual;(2) a firm with respect to the activities set out in article 36H(3)(e) to (h) of the Regulated Activities Order (Operating an electronic system in relation to lending) in relation to a borrower under a P2P agreement.
PERG 4.16.4GRP
If an unauthorised SPV arranges for an authorised person with permission to administer a regulated mortgage contract to administer its regulated mortgage contracts, it can avoid carrying on the regulated activities of:(1) administering a regulated mortgage contract, because of the exclusion in article 62 of the Regulated Activities Order (described in PERG 4.8.4 G);(2) arranging (bringing about) or making arrangements with a view to regulated mortgage contracts, because any arrangements
CONC 12.1.4RRP

Table: Disapplied or modified modules or provisions of the Handbook

Module

Disapplication or modification

Senior Management Arrangements, Systems and Control sourcebook (SYSC)

[FCA]

SYSC 6.1.4C R (requirement of debt management firm or credit repair firm to appoint a compliance officer) does not apply to a firm with an interim permission.

SYSC 6.3.8 R (responsibility for anti-money laundering systems and controls) does not apply to a firm with only an interim permission.

SYSC 6.3.9 R (requirement to appoint a money laundering reporting officer) does not apply to a firm with only an interim permission.

Fees manual (FEES)

[FCA]

The Fees manual does not apply in respect of the fee provided for in FEES 8.1.1R (1), except for the rules and guidance in FEES 2.3 and FEES 8.1.

3Threshold Conditions (COND)

Guidance applies with necessary modifications to reflect Chapter 4 of Part 8 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (see Note 1).

Note 1

A firm is treated as having an interim permission on and after 1 April 2014 to carry on credit-related regulated activity4 or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No.2) Order 2013 if it met the conditions set out in Chapter 4 of Part 8 of that Order. Section 55B(3) of the Act (satisfaction of threshold conditions) does not require the FCA or PRA to ensure that the firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, in relation to the credit-related regulated activities4 or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 for which it has an interim permission, the threshold conditions for which that regulator is responsible. The FCA or PRA can, however, exercise its power under section 55J of the Act (variation or cancellation on initiative of regulator) or under section 55L of the Act (in the case of the FCA) or section 55M of the Act (in the case of the PRA) (imposition of requirements by the regulator) in relation to a firm if, among other things, it appears to the FCA or PRA that the firm is failing, or is likely to fail, to satisfy the threshold conditions in relation to the credit-related regulated activities4 or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 for which it has an interim permission for which the regulator is responsible. The guidance4 in COND should be read accordingly.

4444

3Client Assets (CASS)

CASS does not apply with respect to credit-related regulated activity to a firm with7:

(1)

only an interim permission; or

(2) an interim permission that is treated as a variation of permission;

if the firm acts in accordance with the provisions of paragraphs 3.42 and 3.43 of the Debt management (and credit repair services) guidance (OFT366rev) previously issued by the Office of Fair Trading, as they were in effect immediately before 1 April 2014.

77577

3Supervision manual (SUP)

SUP 3 (Auditors), SUP 10A (FCA Approved persons), SUP 10C (FCA senior managers11 regime for approved persons in SMCR firms11) and SUP 12 (Appointed representatives) (see Note 2) do not apply:

(1) to a firm with only an interim permission; or

(2) with respect to a credit-related regulated activity or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 for which a firm has an interim permission that is treated as a variation of permission,7

except that SUP 3.10 and SUP 3.11 apply to a firm in relation to its designated investment business that comprises operating an electronic system in relation to lending.7

87

Note 2

A firm may not be a principal in relation to a regulated activity for which it has interim permission. A firm with interim permission may, however, be an appointed representative in relation to a regulated activity which it does not have interim permission to carry on (article 59 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013).

SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part 4A permission and to impose, vary or cancel requirements) applies:

(1) with necessary modifications to reflect Chapter 4 of Part 8 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (see Note 3);

(2) with the modifications to SUP 6.3.15D9 and SUP 6.4.5D9 set out in paragraph 1.2 of this Schedule.

Note 3

If a firm with interim permission applies to the appropriate regulator under section 55A of the Act for Part 4A permission to carry on a regulated activity or under section 55H or 55I of the Act to vary a Part 4A permission that the firm has otherwise than by virtue of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 by adding a regulated activity to those to which the permission relates, the application may be treated by the appropriate regulator as relating also to some or all of the regulated activities for which the firm has interim permission.

SUP 11 (Controllers and close links) does not apply to a firm with only an interim permission (see Note 4).

Note 4

A firm is not to be regarded as an authorised person for the purposes of Part 12 of the Act (control over authorised person) if it has only an interim permission (see article 59 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013).

For a firm with only an interim permission

(1) SUP 15.5.1 R, SUP 15.5.2 G, SUP 15.5.4 R, SUP 15.5.5 R are modified so that the words "reasonable advance", "and the date on which the firm intends to implement the change of name" and "and the date of the change" are omitted; and

(2) SUP 15.7.1 R, SUP 15.7.4 R and SUP 15.7.5A R are modified so that a notification of a change in name, address or telephone number must be made using the online Consumer Credit Interim Permissions system available on the FCA's website.

(3) If in a notification to the FCA the firm is required to enter its FRN number it must include it interim permission number.

SUP 16 (Reporting requirements) does not apply to a firm with only an interim permission except for SUP 16.14.10

7776

SUP 16.11 and SUP 16.12 apply to a firm, which was an authorised person immediately before 1 April 2014, with an interim permission that is treated as a variation of permission with respect to credit-related regulated activity or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 as if the changes to SUP 16.11 and SUP 16.12 effected by the Consumer Credit (Consequential and Supplementary Amendments) Instrument 2014 had not been made.10

6

3Disputes Resolution: Complaints sourcebook (DISP)

DISP 1.10 (Complaints reporting rules) and DISP 1.10A (Complaints data publication rules) do not apply to a person with only an interim permission.

DISP 1.10 (Complaints reporting rules) and DISP 1.10A (Complaints data publication rules) apply to a firm, which was an authorised person immediately before 1 April 2014, with an interim permission that is treated as a variation of permission with respect to credit-related regulated activity or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 as if the changes to DISP 1.10 and DISP 1.10A effected by the Consumer Credit (Consequential and Supplementary Amendments) Instrument 2014 had not been made.

3Consumer Credit sourcebook (CONC)

CONC 10 (Prudential requirements for debt management firms) does not apply:

(1) to a firm with only an interim permission; or

(2) with respect to credit-related regulated activity or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 for which a firm has an interim permission that is treated as a variation of permission.

3Perimeter Guidance manual (PERG)

For a firm only with an interim permission, PERG 5.11.13 G is modified so that following the words "which does not otherwise consist of carrying on regulated activities" is added "(other than a regulated activity carried on by a firm only with an interim permission listed in article 59A of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities)(Amendment)(No.2) Order 2013 (SI 2013/1881) which is to be disregarded for this purpose)".

Article 59A enables a firm with only an interim permission which would be able to benefit from article 72B of the Regulated Activities Order, but for carrying on the new consumer credit regulated activities to continue to do so.

CASS 5.1.1RRP
(1) CASS 5.1 to CASS 5.6 apply, subject to (2), (3) and CASS 5.1.3 R to CASS 5.1.6 R, to a firm that receives or holds money in the course of or in connection with its insurance distribution activity8.(2) CASS 5.1 to CASS 5.6 do not, subject to (3), apply:(a) to a firm to the extent that it acts in accordance with the client money chapter; or64(b) [deleted]8(c) to an insurance undertaking in respect of its permitted activities; or(d) to a managing agent when acting as such; or(e)
TC App 1.1.1RRP

1Activity

Products/Sectors

Is there an appropriate qualification4requirement?

4

Designated investment business carried on for a retail client

Providing basic advice

1.

Stakeholder products excluding a deposit-based stakeholder product

No

Advising or giving personal recommendations (as relevant)13

2.

Giving personal recommendations on securities13 which are not stakeholder pension schemes, personal pension schemes7 or broker funds

Yes

3.

Giving personal recommendations on derivatives13

Yes2

4.

Giving personal recommendations on retail investment products13 which are not broker funds

66

Yes2

5.

Giving personal recommendations on13Friendly Societylife policies where the employee is not reasonably expected to receive a remuneration of greater than £1000 a year in respect of such sales

No2

6.

Giving personal recommendations on13Friendly Society tax-exempt policies (other than Holloway sickness policies where the Holloway policy special application conditions are met)5

Yes2

7.

Giving personal recommendations on long-term care insurance contracts13

Yes2

8.

Giving personal recommendations on investments13 in the course of corporate finance business

Yes2

9.

Advising on syndicate participation at Lloyd's

Yes2

129A.

Advising on P2P agreements

Yes

Undertaking the activity in column 2

10.

Broker fund adviser

Yes

11.

Pension transfer specialist

Yes2

Giving personal recommendations13 and dealing

12.

Giving personal recommendations on and dealing in securities13 which are not stakeholder pension schemes, personal pension schemes7 or broker funds

Yes

13.

Giving personal recommendations on and dealing in derivatives13

Yes2

4Dealing

13A.8

Securities which are not stakeholder pension schemes, personal pension schemes7 or broker funds

No

413B.8

Derivatives

No

15MiFID business bidding

13C15

emissions auction products15

No15

8 14

Managing

14.

Investments

Yes

Overseeing on a day-to-day basis

15.

Operating a collective investment scheme or undertaking the activities of a trustee or depositary of a collective investment scheme

Yes

16.

Safeguarding and administering investments or holding client money

Yes2

17.

Administrative functions in relation to managing investments

Yes2

18.

Administrative functions in relation to effecting or carrying out contracts of insurance which are life policies

Yes2

19.

Administrative functions in relation to the operation of stakeholder pension schemes

Yes2

Mortgage Activity10 and reversion activity carried on for a customer

10

910Advising; arranging (bringing about) an execution-only sale, excluding variations to an existing home finance transaction except where the effect is to change all or part of the home finance transaction from one interest rate to another.

See Note 3, which for the avoidance of doubt forms part of this rule.

20

Regulated mortgage contracts for a non-business purpose

Yes

20A

Regulated mortgage contracts for a business purpose

No

21

Equity release transactions

Yes

9Designing scripted questions for execution-only sales

21A

Regulated mortgage contracts for a non-business purpose

Yes

21B

Regulated mortgage contracts for a business purpose

No

22

Equity release transactions

Yes

Overseeing execution-only sales on a day-to-day basis9

9

23.

Equity release transactions

Yes

11MCD credit agreement activities carried on for consumers

11manufacturing

23A

an MCD credit agreement

No

11entering into a regulated mortgage contract or entering into a regulated credit agreement as lender

23B

an MCD credit agreement

No

11arranging (bringing about) regulated mortgage contracts or acting as an MCD credit broker

23C

an MCD credit agreement

No

11advising on a regulated mortgage contract or advising on a regulated credit agreement for the acquisition of land

23D

an MCD credit agreement

No

11directly managing or supervising employees who carry on any of the MCD credit agreement activities 23A to 23D

23E

an MCD credit agreement

No

[Note: article 9(1) of the MCD]11

Non-investment insurance business carried on for a consumer

Giving personal recommendations13

24.

Giving personal recommendations on non-investment insurance contracts13

No

3Regulated sale and rent back activity carried on for a customer

Advising

25.

Regulated sale and rent back agreements

No

Overseeing an execution-only sale10 on a day-to-day basis

10

26.

Regulated sale and rent back agreements

No

Notes:

1.

In the Appendix the heading and types of business specified in the headings are to be read in conjunction with the paragraphs appearing beneath them.

2.

Thus, for example, paragraph 24,13 consistent with the heading above it, refers only to personal recommendations given in relation to13non-investment insurance contracts given to a consumer.10

33

122A.

In relation to activity number 9A, see TC 2.1.5HR and TC 2.1.6R(2). There is no qualification for this activity in the list of qualifications set out in TC Appendix 4E. However, the effect of TC 2.1.5HR is that an employeeadvising on P2P agreements must be qualified to the same standard as if that employee were providing investment advice to retail clients on retail investment products.

103.

For the purpose of product numbers 20, 20A and 21 the activity of arranging (bringing about) referred to in the activity column:

(a) includes activity which would be arranging (bringing about) but for the exclusion in article 28A of the Regulated Activities Order; and

(b) does not include activities which taken on their own would not fall within the definition of that activity. For these purposes no account should be taken of the fact that for an activity to be a regulated activity it must be carried on by way of business (see PERG 4.3).

4.

In this Appendix, paragraphs 23A, 23B, 23C, 23D and 23E relate to the implementation of article 9(1) of the MCD. The specified activities do not, in and of themselves, attract a qualification requirement. However, where those activities overlap with those specified under the heading "mortgage activity and reversion activity carried on for a customer", qualification requirements may apply.

CASS 10.1.1RRP
(1) Subject to (2) this chapter applies to a firm when it:(a) holds financial instruments, is safeguarding and administering investments, is acting as trustee or depositary of an AIF or is acting as trustee or depositary of a UCITS,2 in accordance with CASS 6;24(aa) is acting as a small AIFM and carries on excluded custody activities in accordance with CASS 6; and/or4(b) holds client money in accordance with CASS 7.(2) This chapter does not apply to a firm to which CASS 6 applies
PRIN 3.2.1ARRP
4PRIN applies with respect to the carrying on of:(1) regulated activities;(2) activities that constitute dealing in investments as principal, disregarding the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc); 6(3) ancillary activities in relation to designated investment business, home finance activity, credit-related regulated activity, insurance distribution activity7 and accepting deposits; and6(4) activities directly arising from insurance
PRIN 3.1.4GRP
[deleted]15
SYSC 19D.1.2RRP
Under Part 2 of SYSC 1 Annex 1 in relation to SYSC 4.1.1R (General requirements), and subject2 to the provisions on group risk systems and controls requirements in SYSC 12 (Group risk systems and controls requirements), the dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code:(1) applies in relation to regulated activities, activities that constitute dealing in investments as principal (disregarding the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc)),
PERG 8.17.16GRP
In the FCA's view, the information condition in PERG 8.17.12G (2)(b)(iii) requires the introducer to indicate to the borrower any other advantages accruing to him as a result of ongoing arrangements with N relating to the introduction of borrowers. This may include, for example, indirect benefits such as office space, travel expenses, subscription fees. This and other relevant information may, where appropriate, be provided on a standard form basis to the borrower. The FCA would
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32

31

31Part 1: Application, notification and vetting fees

31(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable (£)37

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (zza)52 of this table

26

(1) Unless (2),41 (3) or (4)41 applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

When both (A) and (B) apply, 50% of the tariff payable under (1):34

(2) 50% of the tariff payable under (1) is payable when either (a) or (b) apply:

(a) the application is one referred to in paragraph p; or

(b) the application is a limited permission case under .

(A) the application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6; and34

(B) the application is:34

(i) a straightforward case under paragraph 2(d) or 3(g) of FEES 3 Annex 1;

(ii) a moderately complex case under paragraph 2(e) or 3(h) of FEES 3 Annex 1; or

(iii) a limited permission case under paragraph 3(i) of FEES 3 Annex 1.

(3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the higher of: 77

(i) the fee otherwise payable in (1) or (2); and 77

(ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 77

(4) No fee is payable if the applicant satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(a).41

17734343434

On or before the application is made

(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30

As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(b) [deleted]56

4

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition under section 272 of the Act27 of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 227

27

On or before the application is made

(da) Applicants for the authorisation of an AIF as a LTIF58

36

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 2A36

On or before the date the application is made36

(e) The management company27 of a scheme making a notification under section 264 of the Act

2727

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 327

27

On or before the date the application is made28

28(ea)

(i) A non-UK AIFM56 (with a branch in the UK) notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 5956 of the AIFMD UK regulation

(ii) An AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation

FEES 3 Annex 2 R, part 4

On or before the date the notification is made

28(eb) An applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM which the FCA is required to maintain under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation

£750

On or before the date the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:62

(i) under section 287 of the Act; or62

(ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations6256

17751717

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made26

(ga) [deleted]52

26353535

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE75 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act

7575

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) [deleted]35

35
35 35

(j) [deleted]38

38

38

(k) [deleted]35

35
35 35

(l) [deleted]38

38

72

38

(m) [deleted]38

38

72

38

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

(o) [deleted]65

112229529752929556752929295557529295752929297529295

[deleted]65

5255512515555157557555256

[deleted]65

275292975292975229

(oa) [deleted]65

2937373737585637373737583737

[deleted]65

37

[deleted]65

37373737

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraphs 64(zza)52 or (zzh) 64 of this table

26

(1) Unless (2), (2A), (3), (3A), (3B), (3C), (3D) or 3(E)44 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 which apply to that application.

(2) Subject to (2A) below, if the firm's application includes an application for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37

that would be payable under (1) above or, if higher, 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37

that would be payable in relation to the new credit-related regulated activity30.37

(2A) If an applicant which already has a Part 4A permission to carry on a credit-related regulated activity exclusively applies for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, that is specified in Part 3 of FEES 3 Annex 1R37

in the straightforward category (or if it exclusively applies for a number of such permissions), the fee is £25030.37

(3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11

(3A) If the applicant had a limited permission prior to the application to vary its Part 4A permission, 100% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37

which apply to that application30.37

(3B) If the applicant has a limited permission and its application exclusively relates to another limited permission, the fee is 030

(3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee is the highest of the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR and the amount otherwise payable in (1), (2), (2A), (3), (3A) or (3B), or (4).77

(3D) No fee is payable if the applicant satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(a).41

(4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250 for firms which are not, or are not seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person, and 125 for firms which are, or are seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person,75 unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part 4A permission in which case no fee is payable.1

(3E) The fee is 12,500 if the firm applying:44

(i) is an MTF operator and the proposed new business of the firm is to be an OTF operator; or44

(ii) is an OTF operator and the proposed new business of the firm is to be an MTF operator.44

307741307777175753775377777371373030233737371137

On or before the date the application is made

30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”)

As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

2(q) [deleted]38

77137613767722227

38

38

333

2(r) [deleted]46

66 566

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 20,00059; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 12,500.59

747437377474377437

On or before any application is made for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.

37

6(t) [deleted]46

20

(u) [deleted]34

34
34 34

(v) [deleted]38

2222

38

38

[deleted]35

35
35 35

(x)[deleted]38

38

388

8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application.

Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.47

On or before the date the application is made.

47(ya) An applicant for registration as an account information service provider under regulation 17 of the Payment Services Regulations.

47FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (2)(i).

Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.

47On or before the date the application is made.

(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 16 47 of the Payment Services Regulations applies

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 13 47 of the Payment Services Regulations

FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 5 47 of the Payment Services Regulations.

(1) If50 prior to the variation the authorised payment institution is authorised to carry on any one or more of the payment services falling50 within paragraph (f), 47 (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and the authorised payment institution is applying to extend its authorisation to include any one or more of the payment services in (a) to (e)50, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

(2) Where the authorised payment institution50 already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (f);50

the fee payable is £47250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

50(3) Where the authorised payment institution already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (f) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or both of the services in (g) and (h) the fee payable is £750, irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(4)50 In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

4747474747

On or before the date the application is made.

(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 13 47 of the Payment Services Regulations

(1)The 47 fee is 50% of the tariff 47set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). 47

(2) 47 In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

4747

On or before the date the application is made.

(zd)

47
47

[deleted]47

(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12

12

Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .

30 days of the date of the invoice.9

(zf) [deleted]75

75
75 91675

16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

50(1) Subject to (2) below, the fee is 50% of the tariff for an electronic money institution authorisation application set out in FEES 3 Annex 10R.

50(2) Where the authorised electronic money institution applies to vary its permission so as to be able to provide one or both of the payment services in paragraphs (g) and (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations the fee payable is £750.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.

2,500

On or before the date the application is made.18

18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond.

(1) Unless (2) or (3)41 applies, 45,000.

(2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000.

(3) No fee is payable if the issuer satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(b).41

On or before the date the application is made.

18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D.

(1) Unless (2) applies 6,500.41

(2) No fee is payable if the issuer satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(c).41

On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.21

21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either:

(i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or

(ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1).

An amount equal to:

(1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or

(2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

75(zp) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2.

37

Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA37 pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act.

37

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

75(zq) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

37

Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

3737

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33

33(zr) [deleted]38

38

38

30(zs) Applicant for FCA permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) and/or money paid or property transferred under and agreement to be retained under 3128A(3)(b) of the Act

(1) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act and for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act, the fee is 31£3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.30

(2) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31

(3) If the application is for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31

Where there are a number of agreements of the same type, only one fee is payable in respect of those agreements. A number of agreements are of the same type when those agreements are entered into on the same terms and conditions.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 77

Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 77

(1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 77

(2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 77

On or before the application is made.77

(zu)40 Any person to which the Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee applies under FEES 3 Annex 10B.

39

Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 10B.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

43(zv) Any firm that meets the test in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1)R(1) (PPI campaign fees).

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1) R(2).

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

45(zw) An applicant for authorisation under regulation 7 of the DRS Regulations, or the operator of a trading venue seeking verification of their compliance with the DRS Regulations 6349 under regulation 8 of those regulations 63 or an applicant for variation of an authorisation under regulation 12 of the DRS Regulations.

63

Either (1), (2), or (3) applies as set out below:

(1) If the applicant is applying for permission to operate one data reporting service, 5,000.

(2) If the applicant is applying for permission to operate more than one data reporting services, 50% of the fee at (1) for each additional service plus the fee at (1).

(3) If the applicant is applying for variation of an authorisation, 50% of the fee at (1) for each additional service.

On the date the application is made.

46(zx) (1) Unless (2) applies any person applying to connect to the market data processor system to make transaction reports directly to the FCA under MiFIR.

(2) If a person has previously applied as stated in (zx)(1) above and has been connected then no further fee is payable for any further such applications.

1) 20,00063

On the date the application is made

46(zy) (1) Subject to (2) and (3) below, any person applying to connect to the market data processor system to provide markets data (other than transaction reports) under MAR 1056.

(2) If a person has previously applied as stated in (zy)(1) above and has been connected then no further fee is payable for any further such applications in relation to reporting the same data.

(3) If a person has previously applied as stated in (zy)(1) above and makes a further application in relation to the provision of different data then a separate fee is payable for such application.

49

10,0006356

On the date the application is made.

51(zz) an applicant for registration under regulation 14 of the Risk Transformation Regulations as a protected cell company.

500

On or before the date the application is made.

52(zza) An application for authorisation as a regulated benchmark administrator.

The highest of the applicable tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R.

Where an applicant intends to administer benchmarks falling into different complexity groupings, it will pay one fee only, for the highest category applied for. If, once authorised, a regulated benchmark administrator notifies the FCA of its intention to administer other/additional benchmarks no further application fee is payable (even if the other/additional benchmark falls into a higher complexity category).

On the date the application is made.

52(zzb) An application for recognition of an administrator in accordance with article 32 of the benchmarks regulation.

5,000

On the date the application is made.

52(zzc) An application for endorsement of a benchmark or family of benchmarks in accordance with article 33 of the benchmarks regulation.

1,500

On the date the application is made.

54(zzd) applications for claims management companies

(1) £1,200 for claims management companies with annual turnover of up to and including £1,000,000; and

(2) £10,000 for claims management companies with annual turnover of over £1,000,000.

Firms which already have Part 4A permissions and are applying to vary their permissions will

receive a 50% reduction in the relevant fee.

On the date the application is made.

55(zze) An application for authorisation as a third party verifier

(1) Unless (2) applies, 1,500.

(2) Firms which already have Part 4A permissions will not receive a 50% reduction in the authorisation fee.

On the date the application is made.

61(zzf) UK-based applicants for registration as a trade repository; a securitisation repository, or a third country applicant seeking recognition as a trade repository.

5,000

Applicants for registration as a trade repository who already hold registration as a securitisation repository, or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee.

Applicants for registration as a trade repository to carry on activity for the purposes of UK SFTR who already hold registration as a trade repository under EMIR or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee.

On the date the application is made.

61(zzg) UK-based applicants for registration as a credit rating agency or a third country applicant seeking certification as a credit rating agency.

The fee set out in FEES 3 Annex 13R.

On the date the application is made.

64(zzh) Permission for

(1) carrying on funeral plan distribution;

(2) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider; or

(3) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider and entering as provider into a funeral plan contract.

(1) The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R part 3A which apply to that application, subject to (2) and (3) below.

(2) Unless (3) below applies, where an applicant was carrying out any of the activities referred to in (zzh)(1)-(3) on 1 September 2021, and makes an application for permission for any of those activities after 1 November 2021, the application fees shall be:

(a) £3,500 for (zzh)(1) or zzh(2);

(b) £14,000 for (zzh)(3).

(3) If an applicant which already has any of the permissions referred to in (zzh) applies to vary its permission, the application fees shall be:

(a) £500 for (zzh)(1);

(b) £1,250 for (zzh)(2); and

(c) £5,000 for (zzh)(3).

On or before the application is made.

32Part 2: UKLA38 fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

(3) Due date

(a)

(i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R.

(ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2).

FEES 3 Annex 12R38

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

38(b) An applicant for approval as a sponsor.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date the application is made.

38(c) For the purposes of48 the listing rules:48

(i)48 an issuer requesting approval of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction; or48

48(ii) an issuer or person applying for eligibility for listing of its securities.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(d) Under the Prospectus Rules or the Prospectus Regulation60, an issuer or a person requesting approval or review of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(e) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a super transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(f) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a significant transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(g) A person who requests the FCA’s approval of a document that includes a mineral expert’s report and who is a fee payer under one or more of the categories (c), (d), (e), and (f) above must additionally pay a fee under this category.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(h) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date the application is made.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

REC 2.5.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraphs 3 – 3H4

Paragraph 3 – Systems and controls4

(1)

The [UK RIE] must ensure that the systems and controls, including procedures and arrangements,4 used in the performance of its functions and the functions of the trading venues it operates are adequate, effective4 and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business.

(2)

Sub-paragraph (1) applies in particular to systems and controls concerning -

(a)

the transmission of information;

(b)

the assessment, mitigation and management of risks to the performance of the [UK RIE'srelevant functions];

(c)

the effecting and monitoring of transactions on the [UK RIE];

(ca)

the technical operation of the [UK RIE], including contingency arrangements for disruption to its facilities;

(d)

the operation of the arrangements mentioned in paragraph 4(2)(d); and

(e)

(where relevant) the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of the [UK RIE's] facilities.

4(f)

the resilience of its trading systems;

4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the resilience of trading systems operated by trading venues that enable algorithmic trading]

4(g)

the ability to have sufficient capacity to deal with peak order and message volumes;

4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the adequacy of capacity of trading systems operated by trading venues that enable algorithmic trading]

4(h)

the ability to ensure orderly trading under conditions of severe market stress;

4(i)

the effectiveness of business continuity arrangements to ensure the continuity of the [UK RIE’s] services if there is any failure of its trading systems including the testing of the [UK RIE’s] systems and controls;

4(j)

the ability to reject orders that exceed predetermined volume or price thresholds or which are clearly erroneous;

4(k)

the ability to ensure algorithmic trading systems cannot create or contribute to disorderly trading conditions on trading venues operated by the [UK RIE];

4(l)

the ability to ensure disorderly trading conditions which arise from the use of algorithmic trading systems, including systems to limit the ratio of unexecuted orders to transactions that may be entered into the [UK RIE’s] trading system by a member or participant are capable of being managed;

[Note:MiFID RTS 9 contains requirements on the ratio of unexecuted orders to transactions to be taken into account by a trading venue that operates electronic continuous auction order book, quote-driven or hybrid trading systems]

4(m)

the ability to ensure the flow of orders is able to be slowed down if there is a risk of system capacity being reached;

4(n)

the ability to limit and enforce the minimum tick size which may be executed on its trading venues; and

4(o)

the requirement for members and participants to carry out appropriate testing of algorithms.

4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the appropriate testing of algorithms to ensure that trading systems, when they enable algorithmic trading, cannot create or contribute to disorderly trading conditions]

4(3)

For the purposes of sub-paragraph 2(c), the [UK RIE] must -

4(a)

establish and maintain effective arrangements and procedures including the necessary resource for the regular monitoring of the compliance by members or participants with its rules; and

4(b)

monitor orders sent including cancellations and the transactions undertaken by its members or participants under its systems in order to identify infringements of those rules, disorderly trading conditions or conduct that may indicate behavior that is prohibited under the market abuse regulation or system disruptions in relation to a financial instrument.

4(4)

For the purpose of sub-paragraph (2)(o) the [UK RIE] must provide environments to facilitate such testing.

4(5)

The [UK RIE] must be adequately equipped to manage the risks to which it is exposed, to implement appropriate arrangements and systems to identify all significant risks to its operation, and to put in place effective measures to mitigate those risks.

4Paragraph 3A – Market making arrangements

4(1)

The [UK RIE] must -

4(a)

have written agreements with all investment firms pursuing a market making strategy on trading venues operated by it (“market making agreements”);

4(b)

have schemes, appropriate to the nature and scale of a trading venue, to ensure that a sufficient number of investment firms enter into such agreements which require them to post firm quotes at competitive prices with the result of providing liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis;

4(c)

monitor and enforce compliance with the market making agreements;

4(d)

inform the FCA of the content of its market making agreements; and

4(e)

provide the FCA with any information it requests which is necessary for the FCA to satisfy itself that the market making agreements comply with paragraphs (c) and (d) of this sub-paragraph and sub-paragraph 2.

4(2)

A market making agreement must specify-

4(a)

the obligations of the investment firm in relation to the provision of liquidity;

4(b)

where applicable, any obligations arising from the participation in a scheme mentioned in sub-paragraph (1)(b);

4(c)

any incentives in terms of rebates or otherwise offered by the [UK RIE] to the investment firm in order for it to provide liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis; and

4(d)

where applicable, any other rights accruing to the investment firm as a result of participation in the scheme referred to in sub-paragraph (1)(b).

4(3)

For the purposes of this paragraph, an investment firm pursues a market making strategy if -

4(a)

the firm is a member or participant of one or more trading venues;

4(b)

the firm’s strategy, when dealing on own account, involves posting firm, simultaneous two-way quotes of comparable size at competitive prices relating to one or more financial instruments on a single trading venue, across different trading venues; and

4(c)

the result is providing liquidity on a regular and frequent basis to the overall market.

4Paragraph 3B – Halting trading

4(1)

The [UK RIE] must be able to -

4(a)

temporarily halt or constrain trading on any trading venue operated by it if there is a significant price movement in a financial instrument on such a trading venue or a related trading venue during a short period; and

4(b)

in exceptional cases be able to cancel, vary, or correct any transaction.

4(2)

For the purposes of sub-paragraph (1), the [UK RIE] must ensure that the parameters for halting trading are appropriately calibrated in a way which takes into account -

4(a)

the liquidity of different asset classes and subclasses;

4(b)

the nature of the trading venue market model; and

4(c)

the types of users,

4to ensure the parameters are sufficient to avoid significant disruptions to the orderliness of trading.

4(3)

The [UK RIE] must report the parameters mentioned in sub-paragraph (2) and any material changes to those parameters to the FCA in a format to be specified by the FCA.

4(4)

If a trading venue operated by the [UK RIE] is material in terms of liquidity of the trading of a financial instrument and it halts trading in the United Kingdom6 in that instrument it must have systems and procedures in place to ensure that it notifies the FCA.

4[Note:MiFID RTS 12 contains requirements for when a regulated market is material in terms of liquidity in a financial instrument for purposes of trading halt notifications]

4Paragraph 3C – Direct electronic access

4Where the [UK RIE] permits direct electronic access to a trading venue it operates, it must -

4(1)

(a)

ensure that a member of, or participant in that trading venue is only permitted to provide direct electronic access to the venue if the member or participant -

4(i)

an investment firm which has permission under Part 4A of the Act to carry on a regulated activity which is any of the investment services or activities;6

4(ii)

a qualifying credit institution that has Part 4A permission to carry on the regulated activity of accepting deposits;6

4(iii)

is a person who falls within regulation 30(1A) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Markets in Financial Instruments) Regulations 2017 and has permission under Part 4A of the Act to carry on a regulated activity which is any of the investment services or activities;6

4(iv)

is a third country firm providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under Article 46.1 (general provisions) 6of the markets in financial instruments regulation;

4(v)

is a third country firm and the provision of the direct electronic access by that firm is subject to the exclusion in Article 72 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001; or

4(vi)

is a third country firm which does not come within paragraph (iv) or (v) and is otherwise permitted to provide the direct electronic access under the Act;

4(b)

ensure that appropriate criteria are set and applied for the suitability of persons to whom direct electronic access services may be provided;

4(c)

ensure that a member of, or participant in, the trading venue retains responsibility for adherence to the requirements of any provisions of the law of the United Kingdom relied on by the United Kingdom before IP completion day to implement6 the markets in financial instruments directive in respect of orders and trades executed using the direct electronic access service, as those provisions have effect on IP completion day, in the case of rules made by the FCA under the Act, and as amended from time to time, in all other cases6;

4(d)

set appropriate standards regarding risk controls and thresholds on trading through direct electronic access;

4(e)

be able to distinguish and if necessary stop orders or trading on that trading venue by a person using direct electronic access separately from -

4(i)

other orders; or

4(ii)

trading by the member or participant providing the direct electronic access; and

4(f)

have arrangements in place to suspend or terminate the provision to a client of direct electronic access to that trading venue by a member of, or participant in, the trading venue in the case of non-compliance with this paragraph.

4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on direct electronic access permitted through a trading venue’s systems]

4Paragraph 3D – Co-location services

4(1)

The [UK RIE’s] rules on colocation services must be transparent, fair and nondiscriminatory.

4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements to ensure co-location services are transparent, fair and non-discriminatory]

4Paragraph 3E – Fee structures

4(1)

The [UK RIE’s] fee structure, for all fees it charges including execution fees and ancillary fees and rebates it grants, must -

4(a)

be transparent, fair and non-discriminatory;

4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements to ensure fee structures are transparent, fair and non-discriminatory]

4(b)

not create incentives to place, modify or cancel orders, or execute transactions, in a way which contributes to disorderly trading conditions or market abuse; and

4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements concerning prohibited fee structures]

4(c)

impose market making obligations in individual shares or suitable baskets of shares for any rebates that are granted.

4(2)

Nothing in sub-paragraph (1) prevents the [UK RIE] from -

4(a)

adjusting its fees for cancelled orders according to the length of time for which the order was maintained;

4(b)

calibrating its fees to each financial instrument to which they apply;

4(c)

imposing a higher fee -

4(i)

for placing an order which is cancelled than an order which is executed;

4(ii)

on participants placing a high ratio of cancelled orders to executed orders; or

4(iii)

on a person operating a high-frequency algorithmic trading technique,

4in order to reflect the additional burden on system capacity.

4Paragraph 3F – Algorithmic trading

4(1)

The [UK RIE] must require members of and participants in trading venues operated by it to flag orders generated by algorithmic trading in order for it to be able to identify the -

4(a)

the different algorithms used for the creation of orders; and

4(b)

the persons initiating those orders.

4Paragraph 3G – Tick size regimes

4(1)

Subject to paragraph 1A, the8 [UK RIE] must adopt tick size regimes in respect of trading venues operated by it in -

4(a)

shares, depositary receipts, exchange-traded funds, certificates and other similar financial instruments traded on each trading venue; and

4[Note:MiFID RTS 11 contains requirements on the tick size regime for shares, depositary receipts, exchange traded funds and certificates5]

4(b)

any financial instrument for which technical standards are adopted by FCA under paragraphs 24 and 25 of Part 2 of Schedule 3 to6 the markets in financial instruments regulation8 which is traded on that trading venue.

[Note:MiFID RTS 11]

8(1A)

The application of tick sizes shall not prevent the [UK RIE] from matching orders that are large in scale (as determined in accordance with Article 4 of the markets in financial instruments regulation) at the mid-point within the current bid and offer prices.

[Note:MiFID RTS 11]

4 (2)

The tick size regime must -

4(a)

be calibrated to reflect the liquidity profile of the financial instrument in different markets and the average bid-ask spread taking into account desirability of enabling reasonably stable prices without unduly constraining further narrowing of spreads; and

4(b)

adapt the tick size for each financial instrument appropriately.

4(3)

The tick size regime must comply with Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/588 of 14 July 2016 supplementing Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards on the tick size regime for shares, depositary receipts and exchange-traded funds6.

4[Note:MiFID RTS 11]

4Paragraph 3H – Syncronisation of business clocks

4(1)

The [UK RIE] must synchronise the business clocks it uses to record the date and time of any reportable event in accordance with Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/574 of 7 June 2016 supplementing Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards for the level of accuracy of business clocks6.

4[Note:MiFID RTS 25]

COLL 5.2.35GRP
(1) 15A syndicated loan for the purposes of this guidance means a form of loan where a group or syndicate of parties lend money to a third party and, in return, receive interest payments during the life of the debt and a return of principal either at the end of the loan period or amortised over the life of the loan. Such loans are usually arranged through agent banks which may, among other things, maintain a record of the lenders’ interest in the loan and arrange or act as a