Related provisions for PERG 7.4.13
181 - 200 of 236 items.
Controlled activity and controlled investment are defined in Schedule 1 to the Financial Promotion Order and are listed in PERG 8.36.3 G and PERG 8.36.4 G. Broadly speaking, controlled activities and controlled investments are similar to regulated activities and specified investments under the Regulated Activities Order. However, with controlled activities, the exclusions set out in the Regulated Activities Order do not, in most cases, apply. It is important to note, however,
A contravention of a rule in SYSC 11 to 2SYSC 21,7SYSC 22.8.1R, SYSC 22.9.1R or to 9SYSC 288 does not give rise to a right of action by a private person under section 138D of the Act (and each of those rules is specified under section 138D(3) of the Act as a provision giving rise to no such right of action). 34437
4For each 8sponsor service requiring the submission of a document to the FCA or contact with the FCA, a sponsor must:8(1) at the time of submission or on first making contact with the FCA8notify the FCAof the name and contact details of a key 8contact within8 the sponsor for that matter8; and8888(2) ensure that its key8contact : 88(a) has8 sufficient knowledge about the listed company or applicant and the proposed matter8to be able to answer queries from the FCA about it; 888(b)
Persons who may be carrying on the activity of advising on investments or making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments will only require authorisation or exemption if they are carrying on those activities by way of business. This is the effect of section 22(1) of the Act. Under section 419 of the Act, the Treasury has the power, by order, to require activities which would otherwise be treated as carried on by way of business to be treated as not carried on by
A person may enter into a regulated sale and rent back agreement as agreement provider without being regulated by the FCA (or an exempt person) if the person does not do so by way of business. However, a SRB intermediary should at all times be conscious of its obligations under Principle 6 (Customers' interests). Should the firm have any reason to believe or entertain any suspicions that the SRB agreement seller may be proposing to enter into a regulated sale and rent back agreement
1This section applies to every firm in the regulatory activity group (RAG) set out in column (1), which is a type of firm in column (2), of the tables in SUP 16.7A.3 R and SUP 16.7A.5 R, except:(1) [deleted]5(2) [deleted]5(3) an oil market participant that is not subject to the requirements of IPRU(INV) Chapter 3;(4) an authorised professional firm other than:(a) a firm that must comply with IPRU(INV) 3, 5 or 13 in accordance with IPRU(INV) 2.1.4R; or(b) a CASS debt management
Any person who is concerned that his proposed activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form in the decision tree in PERG 2 Annex 1 G):(1) Will I be carrying on my activities by way of business (see PERG 2.3)?(2) Will I be managing the assets of an occupational pension scheme (see PERG 2.3.2G (3))?(3) If the answer is 'Yes' to (1)
1The grounds on which the FCA may exercise its power to cancel an authorised person's
permission under section 55J of the Act are the same as the grounds for variation and for imposition of requirements. They are set out in section 55J(1) and section 55L(2) and described in EG 8.1.1. Examples of the types of circumstances in which the FCA may cancel a firm'sPart 4A permission include: (1) non-compliance with a Financial Ombudsman Service award against the
1Where the FCA is considering making a disapplication order against a member as a result of a breach of rules made by the FCA under section 323(1) of the Act, it will take into account any proposed application by the member concerned for authorisation under the Act. The FCA may refrain from making a disapplication order pending its consideration of the application for authorisation.
An insurer authorised in another EEA State who is insuring UK risks and so passports on a services basis under the Solvency II Directive7 into the United Kingdom may not be carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom. But, if it passports into the United Kingdom, it will qualify for authorisation under paragraph 12 of Schedule 3 to the Act (Firms qualifying for authorisation). Where this is the case, the insurer will be subject to conduct of business requirements in
4A firm must:(1) ensure the MTF has at least three materially active members or users who each have the opportunity to interact with all the others in respect of price formation;[Note: article 18(7) of MiFID](2) have arrangements to ensure it is adequately equipped to manage the risks to which it is exposed, to implement appropriate arrangements and systems to identify all significant risks to its operation and put in place effective measures to mitigate those risks;[Note: article
Intermediaries involved with arranging and advising on deposits may be unauthorised persons as such activities do not amount to regulated activities (other than where they involve giving basic advice on a stakeholder product (article 52A of the Regulated Activities Order (Giving basic advice on a stakeholder product))) and so do not require authorisation under section 19 of the Act. However, the combination of the exemptions in Part V together with certain of the exemptions in
(1) Subject to (2) and (3), this section applies to a firm that carries on any distance marketing activity from an establishment in the UK, with or for a consumer in the UK4.(2) This section does not apply to an authorised professional firm with respect to its non-mainstream regulated activities.(3) This section does not apply to an activity in relation to a consumer hire agreement.
A firm which permits direct electronic access to an MTF it operates must:(1) not permit members or participants of the MTF to provide such services unless they are: (a) MiFID investment firms3; or (b) CRD credit institutions; or(c) third country firms providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under article 46.1 of MiFIR; or(d) third country firms providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under article 47.3 of MiFIR;
17The Ombudsman can also consider a complaint under the Compulsory Jurisdiction if it relates to an act or omission by:
(1) an investment firm authorised under the UK provisions which implemented22MiFID when providing investment services or ancillary services;(2)
a CRD credit institution when providing one or more investment services;(3)
an investment firm authorised under the UK provisions which implemented22MiFID or a CRD credit institution when selling structured deposits