Related provisions for IPRU-INV 12.2.1

41 - 60 of 156 items.

Search Term(s)

Filter by Topics

Filter by Modules

Filter by Documents

Filter by Keywords

Effective Period

Similar To

To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

IPRU-INV 9.3.3RRP
When calculating initial capital, a firm may include its audited retained earnings only after making the following adjustments: (1) a firm must not recognise the fair value reserves related to gains or losses on cash flow hedges of financial instruments measured at amortised cost; (2) in respect of a defined benefit occupational pension scheme, a firm must derecognise any defined benefit asset; (3) a firm must not include any unrealised gains from investment
IPRU-INV 9.3.5RRP
When calculating initial capital, a firm may includes its partners' capital only after making the following adjustments: (1) a firm must not recognise the fair value reserves related to gains or losses on cash flow hedges of financial instruments measured at amortised cost; (2) in respect of a defined benefit occupational pension scheme, a firm must derecognise any defined benefit asset; (3) where applicable, a firm must deduct any asset in respect of deferred
CASS 8.2.1RRP
1A mandate is any means that give a firm the ability to control a client's assets or liabilities, which meet the conditions in (1) to (5): (1) they are obtained by the firm from the client, and with the client's consent;(2) where those means are obtained in the course of, or in connection with, the firm'sinsurance distribution activity4, they are in written form at the time they are obtained from the client;(3) they are retained by the firm;(4) they put the firm in a position
CASS 8.2.2GRP
A mandate can take any form and need not state that it is a mandate. For example it could take the form of:333(1) a standalone document containing certain information conferring authority to control a client's assets or liabilities on the firm;3(2) a specific provision within a document or agreement that also relates to other matters; or3(3) an authority provided by a client orally.3
FEES 6.7.6RRP
If a firm ceases to be a participant firm or carry out activities within one or more classes54 part way through a financial year6 of the compensation scheme:44(1) it will remain liable for any unpaid levies which the FSCS has already made on the firm; and41(2) the FSCS may make one or more levies4 upon it (which may be before or after the firm5 has ceased to be a participant firm or carry out activities within one or more classes5,4 but must be before it ceases to be an authorised
SUP 18.4.4GRP
For a transfer to another friendly society, if the conditions of 87(1) and 87(2) of the Friendly Societies Act 1992 are met a report is required from the appropriate actuary of the transferee to confirm that it will meet the necessary margin of solvency2. Where the conditions of 87(1) and 87(3) are met the appropriate authority2 may require a report from the appropriate actuary of the transferee to confirm that it will have an excess of assets over liabilities.22
SUP 18.4.25GRP
The criteria that the appropriate authority2 must use in determining whether to confirm a proposed amalgamation or transfer are set out in schedule 15 to the Friendly Societies Act 1992. These criteria include that:2(1) confirmation must not be given if the appropriate authority2 considers that:2(a) there is a substantial risk that the successor society or transferee will be unable lawfully to carry out the engagements to be transferred to it;(b) information material to the members'
SUP 18.4.37GRP
The appropriate authority2 will not decide whether to confirm the transfer or amalgamation at the hearing. A copy of its written decision, including its findings on the points made in representations, will be sent to the society(ies) and to those making representations. It will also be available to any other person on request and may be published.2
INSPRU 1.2.60GRP
The rates of mortality or morbidity should contain prudent margins for adverse deviation7. In setting those rates, a firm should take account of:(1) the systems and controls applied in underwriting long-term insurance contracts and whether they provide adequate protection against anti-selection (that is, selection against the firm) including:(a) adequately defining and identifying non-standard risks; and(b) where such risks are underwritten, allocating to them an appropriate weighting;(2)
INSPRU 1.2.61GRP
An additional provision for diseases covered by INSPRU 1.2.60G (5)(c) may be needed, in particular for unit-linked policies. In determining whether such a provision is needed a firm may take into consideration any ability to increase product charges commensurately (provided that such increase does not infringe on its regulatory duty to treat its customers fairly), but a provision would still be required for the period until such an increase could be brought into effect.
INSPRU 1.2.62RRP
When a firm establishes its mathematical reserves in respect of a long-term insurance contract, the firm must include an amount to cover any increase in liabilities which might be the direct result of its policyholder exercising an option under, or by virtue of, that contract of insurance. Where the surrender value of a contract is guaranteed, the amount of the mathematical reserves for that contract at any time must be at least as great as the value guaranteed at that time.
DTR 4.1.11RRP
The management report required by DTR 4.1.8 R must also give an indication of:(1) any important events that have occurred since the end of the financial year unless those events are:4(a) 4reflected in the issuer’s profit and loss account or balance sheet; or(b) 4disclosed in the notes to the issuer’s audited financial statements;(2) the issuer's likely future development;(3) activities in the field of research and development;(4) the information concerning acquisitions of own
DTR 4.1.12RRP
(1) Responsibility statements must be made by the persons responsible within the issuer.(2) The name and function of any person who makes a responsibility statement must be clearly indicated in the responsibility statement.(3) For each person making a responsibility statement, the statement must set out that to the best of his or her knowledge:(a) the financial statements, prepared in accordance with the applicable set of accounting standards, give a true and fair view of the
APER 4.2.7GRP
3Behaviour of the type referred to in APER 4.2.6 G includes, but is not limited to, recommending transactions in investments to a customer without a reasonable understanding of the liability (either potential or actual) of that transaction.
APER 4.2.9GRP
3Behaviour of the type referred to in APER 4.2.8 G includes, but is not limited to, trading on the APER employer's4 own account without a reasonable understanding of the liability (either potential or actual) of the transaction.
BIPRU 3.4.48RRP
[deleted]10
BIPRU 3.4.121RRP
Where BIPRU 3.4.116 R does not apply, a firm may determine the risk weight for a CIU as set out in BIPRU 3.4.123 R to BIPRU 3.4.125 R, if the following eligibility criteria are met:(1) one of the following conditions is satisfied:(a) the CIU is managed by a company which is subject to supervision in the UK10; or(b) the following conditions are satisfied:(i) the CIU is managed by a company which is subject to supervision that is equivalent to that laid down in UK10 law; and55(ii)
BIPRU 3.4.131RRP
Gold bullion held in own vaults or on an allocated basis to the extent backed by bullion liabilities must be assigned a 0% risk weight.[Note: BCD Annex VI Part 1 point 87]
COLL 6.3.3ARRP
(1) 8An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme13must ensure the employment of the accounting policies and procedures referred to in SYSC 4.1.9 R (Accounting policies), so as to ensure the protection of unitholders.(2) Accounting for the scheme shall be carried out in such a way that all assets and liabilities of the scheme can be directly identified at all times.(3) If the scheme is an umbrella, separate accounts must be maintained for each sub-fund.[Note: article 8(1) of the
COLL 6.3.3DRRP
8An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme13must establish appropriate procedures to ensure the proper and accurate valuation of the assets and liabilities of each scheme it manages.[Note: article 8(3) of the UCITS implementing Directive]
COLL 6.3.6GRP

Table: This table belongs to COLL 6.3.2 G (2) (a) and COLL 6.3.3 R (Valuation)1.

Valuation and pricing

1

The valuation of scheme property

(1)

Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review.

(2)

For some or all of the investments comprising the scheme property, different prices may quoted according to whether they are being bought (offer prices) or sold (bid prices). The valuation of a single-priced authorised fund should reflect the mid-market value of such investments. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the issue basis of the valuation will be carried out by reference to the offer prices of investments and the cancellation basis by reference to the bid prices of those same investments. The prospectus should explain how investments will be valued for which a single price is quoted for both buying and selling.1

1

3(2A)

Schemes investing in approved money-market instruments5should value such instruments on an amortised cost basis on condition that:5

55

[Note:CESR's UCITS eligible assets guidelines with respect to article 4(2) of the UCITS eligible assets Directive]

(2B)

[deleted]12

7

12

7

(3)

Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation).

(4)

For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should, in the case of a single-priced authorised fund,2 be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, any such payments should be added to the issue basis of the valuation, or subtracted from the cancellation basis of the valuation, as appropriate. Alternatively, the prospectus of a dual-priced authorised fund may prescribe any other method of calculating unitprices that ensures an equivalent treatment of the effect of these payments.2

(5)

Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that:

it should value an investment at a price which, in its opinion, reflects a fair and reasonable price for that investment (the fair value price);

(6)

The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include:

  • no recent trade in the security concerned; or
  • the occurrence of a significant event since the most recent closure of the market where the price of the security is taken.
In (b), a significant event is one that means the most recent price of a security or a basket of securities is materially different to the price that it is reasonably believed would exist at the valuation point had the relevant market been open.

(7)

In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration:

4(7A)

Where the authorised fund manager, the depositary or the standing independent valuer have reasonable grounds to believe that the most recent valuation of an immovable does not reflect the current value of that immovable, then, unless COLL 6.3.6G(1)(7B) applies,14 the authorised fund manager should consult and agree with the standing independent valuer a fair and reasonable value for the immovable.

14(7B)

Where the authorised fund manager decides that an immovable must be sold quickly to meet redemption requests as they fall due, it should consult and agree with the standing independent valuer a fair and reasonable price for the immovable to reflect a rapid sale, to extent that the prospectus states that it may do so.

(8)

The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly.

(9)

Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing.

2

The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager

(1)

An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices.

(2)

The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that:

  • asset prices are accurate and up to date;
  • investment 1transactions are accurately and promptly reflected in valuations;
  • the components of the valuation (including stock, cash, and units in issue1), are regularly reconciled to their source or prime records and any reconciling items resolved promptly and debtors reviewed for recoverability;
  • the sources of prices not obtained from the main pricing source are recorded and regularly reviewed;
  • compliance with the investment and borrowing powers is regularly reviewed;
  • dividends are accounted for as soon as securities1 are quoted ex-dividend (unless it is prudent to account for them on receipt):
  • fixed interest dividends, interest and expenses are accrued at each valuation point1;
  • tax positions are regularly reviewed and adjusted, if necessary;
  • reasonable tolerances are set for movements in the key elements of a valuation and movements outside these tolerances are investigated;5
  • the fund manager regularly reviews the portfolio valuation for accuracy5; and5
  • the valuation of OTC derivatives is accurate and up to date and in compliance with the methods agreed with the depositary.5

(3)

In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the authorised fund1or the materiality of any effect on the price.

(4)

Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained.

(5)

Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult.

(6)

Where the pricing1function is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply.

3

The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls

(1)

This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing1 functions to one or more third parties5.

5

(2)

A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them.

(3)

A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation.

(4)

A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory.

(5)

Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue1, securities prices (and in particular the prices of OTC derivatives,5unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor.

(6)

A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved.

4

The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing

(1)

An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable.

(2)

In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FCA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FCA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only.

(3)

A depositary should also report to the FCA immediately any instance of incorrect pricing1where the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager.

(4)

In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FCA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing1 during a particular period.

5

The rectification of pricing breaches

(1)

COLL 6.6.3R(3)(c)10(Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing1, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance.

(2)

A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricing1is of minimal significance if:

(3)

In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing1 is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately.

(4)

If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate).

(5)

The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing1 are accurately and promptly calculated and paid.

(6)

If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FCA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units.

(7)

It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price.

(8)

In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid.
FIT 2.3.2GRP
The FCA1will not normally require a 1candidate to supply a statement of assets or liabilities. The fact that a person may be of limited financial means will not, in itself, affect their 1suitability to perform a controlled function. The FCA would expect a firm3 to take a similar view in assessing whether staff being assessed under FIT, are fit and proper.11112
BIPRU 5.3.3RRP
For on-balance sheet netting agreements - other than master netting agreements covering repurchase transactions, securities or commodities lending or borrowing transactions and/or other capital market-driven transactions – to be recognised for the purposes of BIPRU 5 the following conditions must be satisfied:(1) they must be legally effective and enforceable in all relevant jurisdictions, including in the event of the insolvency or bankruptcy of a counterparty;(2) the firm must
LR 10.1.4GRP
This chapter is intended to cover transactions that are outside the ordinary course of the listed company's business and may change a security holder's economic interest in the company's assets or liabilities (whether or not the change in the assets or liabilities is recognised on the company's balance sheet).
SUP App 2.8.1RRP
If a firm (whether within or outside the scope of the Solvency II Directive)2 decides to cease to effect new contracts of insurance, it must, within 28 days of that decision, submit a run-off plan to the FCA3 including: (1) a scheme of operations; and (2) an explanation of how, or to what extent, all liabilities to policyholders (including, where relevant, liabilities which arise from the regulatory duty to treat customers fairly in setting discretionary benefits) will be met
IPRU-INV 6.1.2 RRRP
(1) A service company must be able to meet its liabilities as they fall due.(2) In complying with (1) a firm may use any assets which are available to meet any of its liabilities.
IPRU-INV 2.2.1RRP
(1) A firm must be able to meet its liabilities as they fall due.(2) In complying with (1) a firm may use any assets which are available to meet any of its liabilities.
RCB 3.4.2DRP
1On the date of issuance, the issuer must send to the FCA:(1) the information in the form set out in RCB 3 Annex 5 D (issuance form);(2) the information in the form set out in RCB 3 Annex 3 D (asset and liability profile form); and(3) the final terms of the regulated covered bonds or equivalent issuance documents setting out the terms of the regulated covered bonds and signed copies of swap documents.
LR 10.4.2RRP
(1) A listed company must notify a RIS as soon as possible if, after the notification under LR 10.4.1 R, it becomes aware that:(a) there has been a significant change affecting any matter contained in that earlier notification; or(b) a significant new matter has arisen which would have been required to be mentioned in that earlier notification if it had arisen at the time of the preparation of that notification.(2) The supplementary notification must give details of the change