Related provisions for IFPRU 2.2.44

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DEPP 5.1.8CGRP
5Where the proposed settlement is on the basis of a focused resolution agreement, the role of the settlement decision makers shall be as follows:(1) The settlement decision makers will decide whether or not to give a warning notice. (For the avoidance of doubt, the settlement decision makers may meet the relevant FCA staff or the person concerned in accordance with DEPP 5.1.5G and any such meeting shall not affect the settlement decision makers’ ability to decide whether or not
SUP App 3.9.6GRP

Table 2A: UCITS Directive activities

Part II RAO Activities

Part III RAO Investments

1.

The management of UCITS in the form of unit trusts / common funds or of investment companies; this includes the function mentioned in Annex II of the UCITS Directive (see Note 2).

Article 51ZA8

8

N/A (activity relates to property of any kind) (Note 3)8

88

2.

Managing portfolios of investments, including those owned by pension funds, in accordance with mandates given by investors on a discretionary, client-by-client basis, where such portfolios include one or more of the instruments listed in Section C 3of Annex I 3to MiFID3.

33

Articles 14, 21, 25, 37, 40 (arranging only),8 64

8

Articles 76-81, 82B,12 83-85, 89

3.

Investment advice concerning one or more of the instruments listed in Section C3of Annex I 3to MiFID3.

3

Articles 53(1)10, 64

Articles 76-81, 82B,12 83-85, 89

4.

Safekeeping and administration services in relation to units of collective investment undertakings.

Articles 40, 45, 64

Articles 76-81, 82B,12 83-85, 89

Note 1. A UCITS management company can only be authorised to carry on the non-core services set out in rows (3) and (4) of Table 2A if it is also authorised to carry on the activity set out in row (2) of the table (see COLL 6.9.9 R)8.

338

Note 2. The functions set out in Annex 2 to the UCITS Directive are:

1.

Investment management.

2.

Administration:

a.

legal and fund management accounting services;

b.

customer inquiries;

c.

valuation and pricing (including tax returns);

d.

regulatory compliance monitoring;

e.

maintenance of unit-holder register;

f.

distribution of income;

g.

unit issues and redemptions;

h.

contract settlements (including certificate dispatch);

i.

record keeping.

3.

Marketing.

8Note 3. The regulated activity of managing a UCITS may be carried on for property of any kind (article 4(2) of the regulated activities order). However, the scheme property of a UCITS scheme is limited to certain types of property, in line with COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers).

COBS 22.2.6RRP
1A firm which carries on an activity which is subject to this section must comply with the following record-keeping requirements:(1) the person allocated the compliance oversight function in the firm must make a record at or near the time of the activity certifying it complies with the requirements set out in this section;(2) the making of the record required in (1) may be delegated to one or more employees of the firm who report to and are supervised by the person allocated the
MAR 5.10.2RRP
For an MTF to be eligible for registration as an SME growth market, the firm must have effective rules, systems and procedures which ensure that:(1) at least 50% of the issuers whose financial instruments are admitted to trading on the MTF are small and medium-sized enterprises at the time when the MTF is registered as an SME growth market, and in any calendar year thereafter;(2) appropriate criteria are set for initial and ongoing admission to trading of financial instruments
COLL 6.5.9RRP
(1) Upon the removal or retirement of the authorised fund manager3, the removed or retiring authorised fund manager of an AUT or ACS:333(a) is entitled to be recorded in the register for those units continued to be held or treated as held by it as principal3; and(b) may require the depositary3 to issue to it a certificate for those units (if not previously issued).3(2) Paragraph (1) is subject to any restriction in the prospectus relating to the permitted categories of unitho
MAR 5.3A.17RRP
A firm must synchronise the business clocks it uses to record the date and time of any reportable event.[Note: article 50 of MiFID and MiFID RTS 25]
BIPRU 9.6.3GRP
(1) Securitisation documentation should make clear, where applicable, that any repurchase of securitised exposures or securitisation positions by the originator or sponsor beyond its contractual obligations is not mandatory and may only be made at fair market value. In general, any such repurchase should be subject to a firm's credit review and approval process, which should be adequate to ensure that the repurchase complies with BIPRU 9.6.1 R.(2) If an originator or sponsor repurchases
COBS 16.2.7RRP
A firm must retain a copy of any confirmation despatched to a client under this section for a period of at least three years6 from the date of despatch.6
DISP 3.7.7RRP
17The Ombudsman will maintain a register of each money award.
SUP 5.3.9GRP
In having regard to the cost implications of using the section 166 power (Reports by skilled persons) or the section 166A power (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) 6alternative options (such as visits) or other powers, the FCA5 will take into account relevant factors, including:66(1) whether the firm may derive some benefit from the work carried out and recommendations made by the skilled person, for instance a better understanding of its business
SYSC 19C.2.4GRP
In line with the record-keeping requirements in SYSC 9, a firm should ensure that its remuneration policies, practices and procedures are clear and documented. Such policies, practices and procedures would include performance appraisal processes and decisions.
LR 13.8.6RRP
(1) A circular containing an offer to shareholders of the right to elect to receive shares instead of all or part of a cash dividend must include:(a) a statement of the total number of shares that would be issued if all eligible shareholders were to elect to receive shares for their entire shareholdings, and the percentage which that number represents of the equity shares (excluding treasury shares) in issue at the date of the circular;(b) in a prominent position, details of the
DEPP 6.4.2GRP
The criteria for determining whether it is appropriate to issue a public censure rather than impose a financial penalty include those factors that the FCA2 will consider in1 determining the amount of penalty set out in DEPP 6.5 A to DEPP 6.5 D.1 Some particular considerations that may be relevant when the FCA2 determines whether to issue a public censure rather than impose a financial penalty are:122(1) whether or not deterrence may be effectively achieved by issuing a public
CONC 5A.3.9GRP
For the purposes of this chapter, where a lender allows a borrower to make a number of drawdowns of credit (which may be expressed to be possible up to a specified amount of credit) but only with the lender's consent to each respective drawdown, each drawdown is a separate agreement for high-cost short-term credit and each agreement needs to be documented as a separate regulated credit agreement in accordance with the CCA and with the rest of CONC. This chapter applies to each
DEPP 3.2.6GRP
The RDC Office will record and document all disclosures of potential conflicts of interest and the steps taken to manage them.
SUP 10C.9.10GRP
(1) The potential FCA governing functions should be recorded in A’s statement of responsibilities and in the firm'smanagement responsibilities map.(2) A potential FCA governing function means a function that would have been an FCA governing function but which is not an FCA governing function because of SUP 10C.9.8R.
CONC 7.17.11RRP
The reference to the account in CONC 7.17.9R (2) and CONC 7.17.9R (4) are to be construed as a reference to all accounts maintained by the firm (on behalf of a lender) which relate to the agreement with the borrower.
SYSC 18.3.1RRP
(1) A firm must establish, implement and maintain appropriate and effective arrangements for the disclosure of reportable concerns by whistleblowers.(2) The arrangements in (1) must at least:(a) be able effectively to handle disclosures of reportable concerns including: (i) where the whistleblower has requested confidentiality or has chosen not to reveal their identity; and(ii) allowing for disclosures to be made through a range of communication methods; (b) ensure the effective