Related provisions for LR 11.1.1D
81 - 100 of 1080 items.
(1) The purpose of REC 3.15.2 R to REC 3.15.5 G is to enable the FCA3 to obtain information where a UK recognised body decides to suspend the provision of its services in relation to particular investments6 or (for a RAP) decides to cancel an auction7. Planned changes to the provision of services should be notified to the FCA3under REC 3.14.323(2) REC 3.15.6 R to REC 3.15.7 R provide for notification to the FCA3where a UK recognised body is unable to operate or provide its facilities
Where, for any reason, an RIE halts trading in a financial instrument on a trading venue which is material in terms of liquidity in that financial instrument,4it must immediately give the FCA3notice of that event, particulars of that financial instrument4, and the reasons for the action taken.[Note: article 48(5) of MiFID and MiFID RTS 12]43
1When a UK RIE suspends trading on a trading venue4 in any financial instrument, it must immediately give the FCA3notice of that event and relevant information including particulars of that financial instrument and the reasons for the action taken. [Note: articles 32(2) and 52(2), paragraph 14 of MiFID. REC 2.6.6UK(4)5 requires that the FCA be notified when a trading suspension for a financial instrument is lifted or a financial instrument is re-admitted to trading. MiFID ITS
Where a UK recognised body suspends providing clearing facilitation services generally in respect of any derivative (other than an option in relation to a security), type of security or type of option in relation to a security, it must immediately give the FCA notice of that event, particulars of that derivative, type of security or type of option in relation to a security, as the case may be, and the reasons for the action taken.33
Where a UK recognised body suspends any arrangements it makes for the safeguarding and administration of any type of asset belonging to any other person (other than an undertaking in the same group), that UK recognised body must immediately give the FCA3notice of that event, particulars of that type of asset and the reasons for the action taken.3
Where, because of the occurrence of any event or circumstances, a UK recognised body is unable to operate any of its facilities within its normal hours of operation, it must immediately give the FCA3notice of that inability and inform the FCA:333(1) which facility it is unable to operate; (2) what event or circumstance has caused it to become unable to operate that facility within those hours; and(3) what action, if any, it is taking or proposes to take to enable it to recommence
Where, because of the occurrence of any event or circumstances, a UK recognised body extends its hours of operation, it must immediately give the FCA3notice of that event, and inform the FCA3:33(1) what event or circumstance has caused it to do so; (2) the new hours of operation; and(3) the date on which it expects to revert to its normal hours of operation.
The criteria listed in FIT 2.1 to FIT 2.3 are guidance and will be applied in general terms when the FCA1 is determining a person's fitness and propriety. It would be impossible to produce a definitive list of all the matters which would be relevant to a particular determination. A firm3 assessing the fitness and propriety of staff being assessed under FIT should be guided by substantially the same criteria in FIT 2.1 to FIT 2.3 (to the extent applicable to the firm), recognising
If a matter comes to the FCA's1 attention which suggests that the person might not be fit and proper, the FCA1 will take into account how relevant and how important it is. In the same way, if a matter comes to the attention of a firm3 which suggests that any staff being assessed under FIT might not be fit and proper, the firm should take into account how relevant and how important that matter is. 1112
1A firm3 assessing the continuing fitness and propriety of an approved person is required to notify the FCA under section 63(2A) of the Act if it forms the opinion that there are grounds on which the FCA could withdraw its approval (see SUP 10C.14.24R). In discharging its obligation to notify the FCA, a firm3 should take into account how relevant and how important the matter is that comes to its attention which suggests an approved person might not be fit and proper before determining
1The RDC is the FCA's decision maker for some of the decisions under the Payment Services Regulations as set out in DEPP 2 Annex 1G. This builds a layer of separation into the process to help ensure not only that decisions are fair but that they are seen to be fair. The RDC will make its decisions following the procedure set out in DEPP 3.2 or, where appropriate, DEPP 3.3 3.2
1As with cases under the Act, the FCA may settle or mediate appropriate cases involving civil breaches of the Payment Services Regulations to assist it to exercise its functions under the Regulations in the most efficient and economic way. See DEPP 5, DEPP 6.7 and EG 5 for further information on the settlement process and the settlement discount scheme.
1The Payment Services Regulations apply section 169 of the Act which requires the FCA to publish a statement of policy on the conduct of certain interviews in response to requests from overseas regulators. For the purposes of the Payment Services Regulations the FCA will follow the procedures described in DEPP 7.
A firm must give the FCA4 reasonable advance notice of a change in:1010(1) the firm's name (which is the registered name if the firm is a body corporate); (2) any business name under which the firm carries on a regulated activity (other than a regulated claims management activity)8 or ancillary activity either from an establishment in the United Kingdom or with or for clients in the United Kingdom; and8(3) any business name under which the firm carries on a regulated claims management
A firm must give the FCA4 reasonable advance notice of a change in any of the following addresses, and give details of the new address and the date of the change:1010(1) the firm's principal place of business in the United Kingdom; (2) in the case of an overseas firm, its registered office (or head office) address.
A firm must give the FCA4 reasonable advance notice of a change in any of the following telephone numbers, and give details of the new telephone number and the date of the change:131010(1) the number of the firm's principal place of business in the United Kingdom;(2) in the case of an overseas firm, the number of its head office.3
(1) 2A firm other than:55(a) a credit union; or5(b) an FCA-authorised person with permission to carry on only credit-related regulated activity;5must submit any notice under6SUP 15.5.1R, SUP 15.5.4Rand10SUP 15.5.5 R3 by submitting the form in SUP 15 Ann 3R online at the FCA's4 website.101010(2) A credit union or an FCA-authorised person with permission to carry on only credit-related regulated activity (other than a firm with only an interim permission to which the modifications
(1) If the FCA's4 information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FCA4 will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 15.5.9R(3) and SUP 15.7.4R to SUP 15.7.9G (Form and method of notification) should be used.10101010(2) Where 10SUP 15.5.9R (2)10 applies to a firm, GEN 1.3.2 R (Emergency) does not apply.
As the provision of credit data on companies is not a regulated activity under the Act, the Regulations create a separate monitoring and enforcement regime but apply, or make provision corresponding to, certain aspects of the Act. The FCA's approach to taking enforcement action under the Regulations will reflect its general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. It will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate and responsive
Regulation 23 of the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms) Regulations applies many of the provisions of the Act in relation to the FCA’s investigation and information-gathering powers in respect of designated banks and designated finance platforms. The effect of this is to apply the same procedures under the Act for appointing investigators and requiring information when investigating any breaches of the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms) Regulations.
For example, the FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed investigators to carry out an investigation and the reasons for the appointment. The FCA's policy in regulatory investigations under the Regulations is to use powers to compel information, in the same way as it would in the course of an investigation under the Act.
The RDC is the FCA’s decision maker for some decisions which require warning notices or decision notices to be given under the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms) Regulations as set out in DEPP 2 Annex 1G. The RDC will make its decisions following the procedure in DEPP 3.2 or, where appropriate, DEPP 3.32. For decisions made by executive procedures, the procedure to be followed will be those described in DEPP 4.
When determining whether to take action to impose a penalty or to issue a public censure under the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms) Regulations, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6.2 and DEPP 6.4. When determining the level of financial penalty, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6.5, DEPP 6.5A, DEPP 6.5D and DEPP 6.7.
As with cases under the Act, the FCA may settle or mediate appropriate cases involving breaches of the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms) Regulations to assist it to exercise its functions. DEPP 5, DEPP 6.7 and EG 5 set out information on the FCA’s settlement process and the settlement discount scheme.
When determining whether to take action to impose a restriction under regulation 27 of the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms) Regulations, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6A.2 and 6A.4. When determining the length of the period of restriction, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6A.3.
(1) Section 258A(1) and (2) and section 261Z(1) and (2)1 (Winding up or merger of master UCITS) of the Act3, provide1 that where a master UCITS is wound up, for whatever reason, the FCA is to direct the manager and trustee of any AUT or the authorised contractual scheme manager and depositary of any ACS1 which is a feeder UCITS of the master UCITS to wind up the scheme, unless one of the following conditions is satisfied:1(a) the FCA approves under section 283A (Master-feeder
Where the authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a feeder UCITS is notified that its master UCITS is to be wound up, it must submit to the FCA the following:(1) where the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS intends to invest at least 85% in value of the scheme property in units of another master UCITS:(a) its application for approval under section 283A of the Act for that investment;(b) where applicable, its notice under section 251 (Alteration of schemes and
(1) The information in COLL 11.6.3 R must be submitted no later than two months after the date on which the master UCITS has informed the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS of the binding decision to be wound up.(2) By way of derogation from (1), where the master UCITS has informed the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS of the binding decision to be wound up more than five months before the date at which the winding up will start, the authorised fund manager
Where the authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a feeder UCITS is notified that the master UCITS is to merge with another UCITS scheme or EEA UCITS scheme or divide into two or more such schemes, it must submit to the FCA the following:(1) where the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS intends it to continue to be a feeder UCITS of the same master UCITS:(a) its application under section 283A of the Act, for approval;(b) where applicable, a notice under section
(1) The information in COLL 11.6.5 R must be submitted to the FCA no later than one month after the date on which the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS has received the information of the planned merger or division in accordance with regulation 13(6) of the UCITS Regulations 2011.(2) By way of derogation from (1), where the master UCITS provides the information referred to in, or comparable with, COLL 7.7.10 R (Information to be given to Unitholders) to the authorised
Regulation 12(4) (Right of redemption) of the UCITS Regulations 2011 provides that where a UK3master UCITS merges with another scheme, the master UCITS must enable its feeder UCITS to repurchase or redeem all the units of the master UCITS in which they have invested before the consequences of the merger become effective, unless the FCA approves the continued investment by the feeder UCITS in a master UCITS resulting from the merger.
(1) Where:(a) the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS has submitted the documents required under COLL 11.6.5R (2) and (3); and(b) does not receive the necessary approvals from the FCA by the business day preceding the last day on which the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS can request repurchase or redemption of its units in the master UCITS;the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS must exercise the right to repurchase or redeem its units in the master UCITS
Where:(1) the FCA approves an application under sections 283A (Master-feeder structures), 252A or 261S1 (Proposal to convert to a non-feeder UCITS) of the Act or regulation 22A of the OEIC Regulations that arises as a result of the winding-up, merger or division of the master UCITS (other than an application pursuant to COLL 11.6.5R (1)); and1(2) the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS holds or receives cash in accordance with COLL 11.6.9R (4) or as a result of a winding-up;the
Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS has submitted the documents required under COLL 11.6.3R (1), COLL 11.6.3R (2), COLL 11.6.5R (1), COLL 11.6.5R (2) or COLL 11.6.5R (3) and has received written notice of any required approvals from the FCA, it must:(1) inform the master UCITS of those approvals; and(2) in the case of the required approvals received in respect of documents submitted under COLL 11.6.3 R (1) and COLL 11.6.5 R (2), take the necessary measures to comply
Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS gives notice to the FCA under section 251 or section 261Q1 of the Act or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations that it intends to wind up the scheme, it must inform:(1) the unitholders of the feeder UCITS; and(2) where notice is given under COLL 11.6.5R (4) (Application for approval by a feeder UCITS where a master UCITS merges or divides), the authorised fund manager of the master UCITS;of its intention without undue delay.[Note:
(1) The following enable the FCA to charge fees to cover its costs and expenses in carrying out its functions:13(a) paragraph 23 of Schedule 1ZA of the Act;13(b) regulation 92 of the Payment Services Regulations;13(c) regulation 59 of the Electronic Money Regulations;13(d) article 25(a) of the MCD Order;1513(e) regulation 21 of the Small and Medium Sized Businesses (Credit Information) Regulations. 13(f) regulation 18 of the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms)
3Regulation 92 of the Payment Services Regulations and regulation 59 of the Electronic Money Regulations each provide7 that the functions of the FCA18 under the respective7 regulations are treated for the purposes of paragraph 23 of Schedule 1ZA18 to the Act as functions conferred on the FCA18 under the Act. Paragraph 23(7) 22 however, has not been included 22.7This is 22the FCA's187 obligation to ensure that the amount of penalties received or expected to be received are not
(1) 13The FCA also has a fee-raising power as a result of:14(a) regulation 21 of the Small and Medium Sized Business (Credit Information) Regulations;1514(b) regulation 18 of the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms) Regulations;1514(c) regulation 40 of the DRS Regulations; and15(d) paragraph 25 of the Schedule 1 to the MiFI Regulations.15(2) The FCA’s functions under these regulations are treated as functions conferred on the FCA under the Act for the purposes of
The FCA’s12fees payable will vary from one fee year18 to another, and will reflect the FCA’s12funding requirement for that period and the other key components, as described in FEES 2.1.7G. Periodic fees, which will normally be payable on an annual basis, will provide the majority of the funding required to enable the FCA12to undertake its statutory functions.18181818181818
The key components of the FCA12fee mechanism (excluding the FSCS5levy, the FOS5 levy and case fees16 which are dealt with in FEES 5 and16FEES 616)5 are:55555(1) a funding requirement derived from:(a) the FCA’s12financial management and reporting framework;(b) the FCA’s12budget; and(c) adjustments for audited variances between budgeted and actual expenditure in the previous accounting year, and reserves movements (in accordance with the FCA’s12reserves policy);(2) mechanisms for
18PRA-authorised persons and persons seeking to become PRA-authorised persons should note that the FCA and the PRA have agreed for the FCA to act as the PRA's collection 12agent for 12PRA fees. Where applicable, both PRA and FCA fees should be paid as a single payment to the FCA, which will receive the payment in its own capacity in respect of FCA fees and in its capacity as collection 12agent for the PRA in respect of the PRA fees. References to this arrangement will be referred
6(1) A firm must notify the FCA that it has become or ceased to be closely linked with any person and ensure the following:454(a) where a firm has elected to report changes in close links on a monthly basis under SUP 11.9.5A R, the notification must be made in line with SUP 11.9.3BA R; and4(b) in any other case, the notification must be made by completing the Close Links Notification Form (see SUP 11.9.3B G) and must include the information in SUP 11.9.3D G.4(2) If a group includes
6The firm must make a notification to the FCA under SUP 11.9.1A R:(1) as soon as reasonably practicable and no later than one month after it becomes aware that it has become or ceased to be closely linked with any person; or(2) where a firm has elected to report on a monthly basis, within fifteen business days of the end of each month by completing 4the Close Links Monthly Report for that month and must submit the group organisation chart on a quarterly basis unless there have
6(1) A firm elects to report changes in close links on a monthly basis by sending a written notice of election to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA.(2) An election to report changes in close links on a monthly basis will stand until such time as the firm gives its usual supervisory contact at the FCA at least one month's written notice of its intention to cease reporting changes in close links on a monthly basis.
1The FCA has information gathering and sanctioning powers under the Act which are applicable to breaches of EMIR requirements
by authorised persons or recognised bodies. The OTC derivatives, CCPs and trade repositories regulation adds to the powers available to the FCA for dealing with breaches of EMIR requirements and sets out information gathering and sanctioning powers enabling the FCA to investigate and take action for breaches of the EMIR requirements
1The FCA may require a non-authorised counterparty that is subject to obligations under EMIR to provide specified information or specified documents so that it can verify whether the non-authorised counterparty has complied with EMIR. The FCA also has the power to require a person to provide specified information or specified documents so that it can verify whether the person is subject to EMIR. The FCA may require the above information to be provided in such form, or to be verified
(1) 1The FCA has the power to publish a statement or impose a financial penalty of such amount as it considers appropriate on: (a) a financial counterparty who is not an authorised person, a non- financial counterparty or any other person who has breached an EMIR requirement or regulation 7 or 8 of the OTC derivatives,
CCPs and trade repositories regulation; (b) a financial counterparty who is an authorised person who has breached regulation 8 of the
1As the power to impose penalties for contravention of an EMIR requirement or regulations 7 or 8 of the OTC derivatives, CCPs and trade repositories regulation mirrors similar powers to that the FCA has under the Act, the FCA will adopt procedures and policies in relation to the use of those powers akin to those it has adopted under the Act, subject to EG 19.26.3(2).
1The FCA will use the sanctioning powers where it is appropriate to do so and with regard to the relevant factors listed in DEPP 6.2.1G and DEPP 6.4. In determining the appropriate level of financial penalty, the FCA will have regard to the principles set out in DEPP 6.5, DEPP 6.5A, DEPP 6.5B, DEPP 6.5D and DEPP 6.7.
1Where the FCA proposes or decides to take action to publish a statement or impose a financial penalty referred to in EG 19.26.3, it will give the person concerned a warning notice or a decision notice respectively. In the case of a public statement, the warning notice or decision notice will also set out the terms of the statement. In the case of a financial penalty, the warning notice or decision notice will also state the amount of the penalty. On receiving a warning notice,
Under section 294(4) of the Act, before the FCA1 may give a waiver of notification rules, it must be satisfied that:1(1) compliance by the recognised body with those notification rules, or with those rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome or would not achieve the purpose for which those rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not result in undue risk to persons whose interests those rules are designed to protect.
There is no application form, but applicants should make their application formally and in writing and in accordance with any direction the FCA1 may make under section 294(2) of the Act. Each application should set out at least:1(1) full particulars of the waiver which is requested; (2) the reason why the recognised body believes that the criteria set out in section 294(4) (and described in REC 3.3.3 G) would be met, if this waiver were granted; and (3) where the recognised body
Any waiver given by the FCA1 under section 294 of the Act will be made in writing, stating: 1(1) the name of the recognised body in respect of which the waiver is made;(2) the notification rules which are to be waived or modified in respect of that body;(3) where relevant, the manner in which any rule is to be modified;(4) any condition or time limit to which the waiver is subject; and(5) the date from which the waiver is to take effect.
Where the FCA1 considers that it will not give the waiver which has been applied for, the FCA1 will give reasons to the applicant for its decision. The FCA1 will endeavour, where practicable, to inform an applicant in advance where it seems that an application is likely to fail unless it is amended or expanded, so that the applicant will have the opportunity to make any necessary amendments or additions before the application is considered.111
The FCA1 will periodically review any waiver it has given. The FCA1 has the right to revoke a waiver under section 294(6) of the Act. This right is likely to be exercised in the event of a material change in the circumstances of the recognised body or in any fact on the basis of which the waiver was given.11
(1) The purpose of this section is to ensure that the FCA receives regular and comprehensive information about the firm’s systems and controls in preventing financial crime.(2) The purpose of collecting the data in the Annual Financial Crime Report is to assist the FCA in assessing the nature of financial crime risks within the financial services industry.
1Under section 300B(2) of the Act, the FCA4may, by rules under section 293 (Notification requirements):4(1) 1specify descriptions of regulatory provision in relation to which, or circumstances in which, the duty in section 300B(1) does not apply, or(2) 1provide that the duty applies only to specified descriptions of regulatory provision or in specified circumstances.
1Under section 300B(3) of the Act, the FCA4may also by rules under section 293: 4(1) 1make provision as to the form and contents of the notice required, and(2) 1require the UK recognised body to provide such information relating to the proposal as may be specified in the rules or as the FCA4may reasonably require.4
1A notice under section 300B(1) of the Act of a proposal to make a regulatory provision must be in writing and state expressly that it is a notice for the purpose of that section. To be effective, a notice must: (1) 1contain full particulars of the proposal to make a regulatory provision which is the subject of that notice; and(2) 1either be accompanied by sufficient supporting information to enable the FCA4to assess the purpose and effect of the proposed regulatory provision
1In determining whether a UK RIE3has provided sufficient supporting information, the FCA4may have regard to the extent to which the information includes:44(1) 1clearly expressed reasons for the proposed regulatory provision; and(2) 1an appropriately detailed assessment of the likely costs and benefits of the proposed regulatory provision.
An auditor of a firm must submit a client assets 5report addressed to the FCA which: 5(1) 5(a) states the matters set out in SUP 3.10.5 R; and55(b) specifies the matters to which SUP 3.10.9 R and SUP 3.10.9A R refer; or (2) if the firm claims not to hold client money or custody assets, states whether anything has come to the auditor's attention that causes him to believe that the firm held client money or custody assets during the period covered by the report.
SUP 3.10.4 R provides that an auditor must ensure that a client assets report is prepared in accordance with the terms of, as the case may be, a reasonable assurance engagement or a limited assurance engagement. However, the FCA also expects an auditor to have regard, where relevant, to material published by the Financial Reporting Council 11that deals specifically with the client assets report which the auditor is required to submit to the FCA. In the FCA's view, a client assets
335(1) 5If an auditor expects that it will fail to comply with SUP 3.10.7 R, it must no later than the end of the four month period in question:(a) notify the FCA that it expects that it will be unable to deliver a client assets report by the end of that period; and(b) ensure that the notification in (a) is accompanied by a full account of the reasons for its expected failure to comply with SUP 3.10.7 R.(2) If an auditor fails to comply with SUP 3.10.7 R, it must promptly:(a)
1The rights and duties of auditors are set out in SUP 3.8 (Rights and duties of all auditors) and SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets). SUP 3.8.10 G also refers to the auditor's statutory duty to report certain matters to the FCA imposed by regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator). An auditor should bear these rights and duties in mind when carrying out
1It is the responsibility of an insurance intermediary's senior management to determine, on a continuing basis, whether the firm is an exempt insurance intermediary for the purposes of this requirement and to appoint an auditor if management determines the firm is no longer exempt. SUP 3.7 (amplified by SUP 15) sets out what a firm should consider when deciding whether it should notify the FCA of matters raised by its auditor.
5An auditor must:(1) deliver to a firm a draft of its client assets report such that the firm has an adequate period of time to consider the auditor’s findings and to provide the auditor with comments of the kind to which SUP 3.11.1 G refers; and(2) unless it is the auditor of a firm falling within category (10) of SUP 3.1.2 R, deliver to the firm a copy of the final report at the same time as it delivers that report to the FCA in accordance with SUP 3.10.7 R.
(1) 5The FCA expects that the list of breaches will include every breach of a rule in CASS insofar as that rule is within the scope of the client assets report and is identified in the course of the auditor’s review of the period covered by the report, whether identified by the auditor or disclosed to it by the firm, or by any third party.(2) 5For the purpose of determining whether to qualify its opinion or express an adverse opinion, the FCA would expect an auditor to exercise
1
A data reporting services provider must promptly complete the notification form for changes to the membership of the management body form at MAR 9 Annex 6D to inform the FCA of any change to the membership of its management body before any change to the membership of its management body or when this is impossible within 10 working days after the change.
1As soon as possible and within 2 weeks of being authorised as an APA or a CTP, an APA or a CTP seeking a connection to the FCA’s market data processor system must:(1) sign the MIS confidentiality agreement at MAR 9 Annex 10D; and(2) email it to MDP.onboarding@fca.org.uk or post an original signed copy to the FCA addressed to:
The Financial Conduct Authority
FAO The Markets Reporting Team
25 The North Colonnade12 Endeavour Square3
Canary Wharf
London E20 1JN.3E14 5HS.
(1) To ensure the security of the FCA’s systems, the FCA requires an APA or a CTP to sign the MIS confidentiality agreement before receiving the FCA’s Market Interface Specification (MIS).(2) Once the FCA receives the MIS confidentiality agreement from the APA or the CTP, the FCA will provide the APA or the CTP with Market Interface Specification (MIS).
A data reporting services provider must promptly provide the forms in MAR 9 Annexes 5D, 6D, 7D, 8D and 9D and supporting documentation to the FCA: (1) at MRT@fca.org.uk; or(2) by posting it to the FCA, addressed to:
The Financial Conduct Authority
The Markets Reporting Team12 Endeavour Square3
London E20 1JN.3
The issuer must ensure that a director or a1senior manager of the issuer verifies the application by confirming on the FCA's form that the issuer has obtained the appropriate third party advice or reports as required by RCB 2.3.16 D and is satisfied that:(1) the information provided in the application is correct and complete; and (2) the arrangements relating to the covered bond or programme will comply with the requirements in the RCB Regulations and in RCB.
A firm must notify the FCA of the following:(1) its intention; or(2) the intention of another member of its group that is not a firm, but is included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the firm;to issue a capital instrument that it believes will qualify under the UK CRR3 as own funds other than a common equity tier 1 capital at least one month before the intended date of issue.
A firm does not have to give notice under IFPRU 3.2.10 R if the capital instrument is: (1) an ordinary share; or(2) a debt instrument issued under a debt securities programme under which the firm or group member has previously issued and the firm has notified the FCA, in accordance with IFPRU 3.2.10 R, prior to a previous issuance under the programme.
A firm must notify the FCA of its intention, or the intention of another member of its group that is not a firm included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the firm, to amend or otherwise vary the terms of any own funds instrument included in its own funds or the own funds of its consolidated group at least one month before the intended date of such amendment or other variation.
The first activity (article 25A(1) and (2A)2) is referred to in this guidance as arranging (bringing about) regulated mortgage contracts. Various points arise:(1) It is not necessary for the potential borrower himself to be involved in making the arrangements.(2) This activity is carried on only if the arrangements bring about, or would bring about a regulated mortgage contract. This is because of the exclusion in article 26 (see PERG 4.5.4 G). As explained in PERG 4.5.4A G, this
Article 26 of the Regulated Activities Order (Arrangements not causing a deal) excludes from article 25A(1) arrangements which do not bring about or would not bring about the regulated mortgage contract in question. In the FCA's view, a person brings about or would bring about a regulated mortgage contract if his involvement in the chain of events leading to the transaction is of enough importance that without that involvement it would not take place.
In the FCA's view, the crucial element of the exclusion in article 27 is the inclusion of the word "merely". When a publisher, broadcaster or Internet website operator goes beyond what is necessary for him to provide his service of publishing, broadcasting or otherwise facilitating the issue of promotions, he may well bring himself within the scope of article 25A(2). Further detailed guidance relating to the scope of the exclusion in article 27 is contained in PERG 8.32.6 G to
Arranging a regulated mortgage contract (or contract variation) to which the arranger is to be a party is excluded from both article 25A(1) and (2) by article 28A of the Regulated Activities Order (Arranging contracts to which the arranger is a party). As a result, a person cannot both be entering into a regulated mortgage contract and arranging a regulated mortgage contract under article 25A as regards a particular regulated mortgage contract. This means that a direct sale by
An unauthorised person who makes arrangements for or with a view to a regulated mortgage contract between a borrower and an authorised person, is excluded from article 25A(1) and (2), 25A(2A) and2 by article 29 of the Regulated Activities Order (Arranging deals with or through authorised persons) if specified conditions as to advice and remuneration are satisfied. For example, the exclusion is dependent on the borrower not receiving any advice on the regulated mortgage contract
The exclusion applies for introductions to:(1) an authorised person who has permission to carry on a regulated activity specified in article 25A (Arranging regulated mortgage contracts) or article 53A (Advising on regulated mortgage contracts) or article 61(1) (Entering into a regulated mortgage contract as lender); introducers can check the status of an authorised person and its permission by visiting the Financial Services Register1 at http://www.fsa.gov.uk/register/;11(2) an
In the FCA's view, money payable to an introducer on his own account includes money legitimately due to him for services rendered to the borrower, whether in connection with the introduction or otherwise. It also includes sums payable to an introducer (for example, a housebuilder) by a buyer in connection with a transfer of property. For example, article 33A allows a housebuilder to receive the purchase price on a property that he sells to a borrower, whom he previously introduced
In the FCA's view, details of fees or commission referred to in PERG 4.5.14G (2) does not require an introducer to provide an actual sum to the borrower, where it is not possible to calculate the full amount due prior to the introduction. This may arise in cases where the fee or commission is a percentage of the eventual loan taken out and the amount of the required loan is not known at the time of the introduction. In these cases, it would be sufficient for the introducer to
In the FCA's view, the information condition in PERG 4.5.14G (3) requires the introducer to indicate to the borrower any other advantages accruing to him as a result of ongoing arrangements with N relating to the introduction of borrowers. This may include, for example, indirect benefits such as office space, travel expenses, subscription fees and this and other relevant information may be provided on a standard form basis to the borrower, as appropriate.
The FCA would normally consider the dissolution of a sub-pool, such that the firm no longer operates the sub-pool or no longer uses the relevant net margined omnibus client account or transfers the business to another authorised central counterparty, to be examples of material changes to a sub-pool.
The records maintained under this section, including the sub-pool disclosure documents, are a record of the firm that must be kept in a durable medium for at least five years following the date on which client money was last held by the firm for a sub-pool to which those records or the sub-pool disclosure document applied.