Related provisions for CONC 15.1.15
261 - 280 of 375 items.
2Investment firms shall publish the details of the process to be followed when handling a complaint. Such details shall include information about the complaints management policy and the contact details of the complaints management function. This information shall be provided to clients or potential clients, on request, or when acknowledging a complaint.
[Note: article 26(2) of the MiFID Org Regulation]
In assessing the ability of a UK recognised body to cooperate with the FCA4 and other appropriate bodies, the FCA4 may have regard to the extent to which the constitution and rules of the UK recognised body and its agreements with its members enable it to obtain information from members and to disclose otherwise confidential information to the FCA4 and other appropriate bodies.444
When determining whether a charge is excessive, a firm should consider:(1) the amount of its charges for the services or products in question compared with charges for similar products or services on the market; (2) the degree to which the charges are an abuse of the trust that the customer has placed in the firm; and (3) the nature and extent of the disclosure of the charges to the customer.
A depositary must not carry out activities with regard to the UCITS scheme, or the authorised fund manager, acting on behalf of the scheme, that may create conflicts of interest between the scheme, the unitholders in the scheme or the authorised fund manager and itself, unless:(1) the depositary has properly identified any such potential conflicts of interest;(2) the depositary has functionally and hierarchically separated the performance of its depositary tasks from its other
(1) 1A2platform service provider must clearly disclose the total platform charge to the retail client32 in a durable medium in good time before the provision of designated investment business.22(2) In the event that it is not possible to make the disclosure in (1) in good time before the provision of designated investment business, the disclosure must be made as soon as practicable thereafter.
Where a transferable security, which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, is also traded on an OTF without the consent of the issuer, the firm operating the OTF must not make the issuer subject to any obligation relating to initial, ongoing or ad hoc financial disclosure with regard to that OTF.[Note: article 18(8) of MiFID]
To comply with the requirements of COBS 21.2.4A R, a firm should:(1) disclose to policyholders the implications of any credit-risk exposure they may face in relation to the solvency of the reinsurer; and(2) suitably monitor the way the reinsurer manages the business in order to discharge its continuing responsibilities to policyholders.
In the main BIPRU only applies to a collective portfolio management investment firm7 in respect of designated investment business (excluding managing an AIF and managing a UK UCITS10). However BIPRU 2.2 (Internal capital adequacy standards), BIPRU 2.3 (Interest rate risk in the non-trading book), BIPRU 8 (Group risk - consolidation) and BIPRU 11 (Disclosure) apply to the whole of its business.777
Although the FCA1 may consider that a matter is relevant to its assessment of a firm, the fact that a matter is disclosed to the FCA1, for example in an application, does not necessarily mean that the firm will fail to satisfy the FCA1threshold conditions. The FCA1 will consider each matter in relation to the regulated activities for which the firm has, or will have, permission, having regard to its statutory objectives1. A firm should disclose each relevant matter but, if it
(1) Where a firm gives advice to a customer not to make a contractual repayment or to cancel any means of making such a repayment before any debt solution is agreed or entered into, the firm must be able to demonstrate the advice is in the customer's best interests.(2) Where a firm gives advice of the type in (1), the firm must advise the customer (C) that if C adopts the advice C should notify C's lenders without delay and explain that C is following the firm's advice to this
The requirement under section 64(1)(b) of the CCA to send debtors or hirers a notice of their rights to cancel a cancellable agreement within the seven days following the making of that agreement does not apply in the case of the agreements described in SUP 8A.2.5 G, if: (1) on application by a firm to the FCA, the FCA has determined, having regard to:(a) the manner in which antecedent negotiations for the relevant agreements with the firm are conducted; and(b) the information
Where consideration of the root causes of complaints suggests recurring or systemic problems in the firm's sales practices for payment protection contracts, the firm should, in assessing an individual complaint, consider whether the problems were likely to have contributed (at step 1) 1to a breach or failing or (at step 2) to a failure to disclose commission 1in the individual case, even if those problems were not referred to specifically by the complainant.
1The broad test the FCA will apply when it decides whether to seek an injunction is whether the application would be the most effective way to deal with the FCA's concerns. In deciding whether an application for an injunction is appropriate in a given case, the FCA will consider all relevant circumstances and may take into account a wide range of factors. The following list of factors is not exhaustive; not all the factors will be relevant in a particular case and there may be