Related provisions for LR 15.4.26

COLL 6.1.3G01/10/2016

(1) The authorised fund manager operates the scheme on a day-to-day basis. Its operation is determined by the rules in this chapter, which require appropriate powers in the instrument constituting the fund3 or refer to the need to state the relevant operating procedures in the prospectus of the scheme.3(2) (a) 4The authorised fund manager does not necessarily have to carry out all the activities it is responsible for and may delegate functions to other persons.(b) 4The rules in

COLL 7.5.1G01/07/2013

(1) The FCA expects that the majority of requests it will receive for the winding up of an authorised fund (under regulation 21(1) of the OEIC Regulations or under sections1 256 or 261W1 of the Act) or termination of a sub-fund will be from authorised fund managers and depositaries who consider that the AUT, ACS1, ICVC or sub-fund in question is no longer commercially viable.(2) It is in consumers' interests to minimise, as far as possible, the period between which the FCA receives

COLL 7.5.2G01/07/2013

The information referred to in COLL 7.5.1 G is listed below:(1) the name of the authorised fund or sub-fund;(2) the size of the authorised fund or sub-fund;(3) the number of unitholders; (4) whether dealing in units has been suspended;(5) why the request is being made; (6) what consideration has been given to the authorised fund or sub-fund entering into a scheme of arrangement with another regulated collective investment scheme and the reasons why a scheme of arrangement is not

IFPRU 8.2.14G01/01/2014

If a firm has an exposure to a person ('A') when A is acting on his own behalf, and also an exposure to A when A acts in his capacity as trustee, custodian or general partner of an investment trust, unit trust, venture capital or other investment fund, pension fund or a similar fund (a "fund"), the firm may treat the latter exposure as if it was to the fund, unless such a treatment would be misleading.

IFPRU 8.2.15G01/01/2014

When considering whether the treatment described is misleading, factors a firm should consider include:(1) the degree of independence of control of the fund, including the relation of the fund's board and senior management to the firm or to other funds or to both;(2) the terms on which the counterparty, when acting as trustee, is able to satisfy its obligation to the firm out of the fund of which it is trustee;(3) whether the beneficial owners of the fund are connected to the

FEES 3.2.7R01/07/2021

Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32

31

31Part 1: Application, notification and vetting fees
31(1) Fee payer	(2) Fee payable (£)37	Due date
(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (zza)52 of this table 26	(1) Unless (2),41 (3) or (4)41 applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application. When both (A) and (B) apply, 50% of the tariff payable under (1):34 (2) 50% of the tariff payable under (1) is payable when either (a) or (b) apply: (a) the application is one referred to in paragraph p; or (b) the application is a limited permission case under . (A) the application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6; and34 (B) the application is:34 (i) a straightforward case under paragraph 2(d) or 3(g) of FEES 3 Annex 1; (ii) a moderately complex case under paragraph 2(e) or 3(h) of FEES 3 Annex 1; or (iii) a limited permission case under paragraph 3(i) of FEES 3 Annex 1. (3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the higher of: 80 (i) the fee otherwise payable in (1) or (2); and 80 (ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 80 (4) No fee is payable if the applicant satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(a).41 1 80 34 34 34 34	On or before the application is made
(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30	As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
(b) [deleted]56 4
(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order	2,000	On or before the application is made
(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition under section 272 of the Act 27 of, a collective investment scheme	FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 227 27	On or before the application is made
(da) Applicants for the authorisation of an AIF as a LTIF 58 36	FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 2A36	On or before the date the application is made36
(e) The management company 27 of a scheme making a notification under section 264 of the Act 27 27	FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 327 27	On or before the date the application is made28
28(ea) (i) A non-UK AIFM 56 (with a branch in the UK) notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 5956 of the AIFMD UK regulation (ii) An AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation	FEES 3 Annex 2 R, part 4	On or before the date the notification is made
28(eb) An applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM which the FCA is required to maintain under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation	£750	On or before the date the application is made
(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.	10,000	30 days after the order is granted
(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:62 (i) under section 287 of the Act; or62 (ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations 62 56 17 78 17 17	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1	On or before the date the application is made26
(ga) [deleted]52 26 35 35 35
(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE 78 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act 78 78	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2	On or before the date the application is made
(i) [deleted]35 35	35	35
(j) [deleted]38	38	38
(k) [deleted]35 35	35	35
(l) [deleted]38	38 7 2	38
(m) [deleted]38	38 7 2	38
(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges	50,000	On or before the date the application is made
2(o) In relation to a BIPRU firm, a firm applying to the FCA 29 for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches.56 1 1 2 29 5 29 78 29 5 78 29 29 29 5 5 5 78 29 29 5 78 29 29 29 78 29 29 5	(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5 (2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1 firm submitting a second application for the permission or5 guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application (b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1 56 5 2 5 1 2 5 5 5 78 5 78 5 5 2	Where the firm has made an application directly to the FCA 29, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FCA 29 notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested assistance.2 29 2 78 29 78 29 78
29(oa) Either: (i) a firm applying to the 37 FCA for permission to use one of the internal approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6A (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the 37 FCA as consolidating supervisor under the UK CRR 58 56) any firm making such an application; or (ii) in the case of an application to the consolidating supervisor other than the 37 FCA for the use of the IRB approach and the consolidating supervisor requesting the 37 FCA's assistance in accordance with the UK CRR 58, any firm to which the 37 FCA would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach. 37 37 37 37 37	(1) Unless (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6A. (2) (a) Unless (b) applies a firm submitting a second application for the permission or guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6A, but only in respect of that second application. (b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements. (c) No fee is payable where the consolidating supervisor has requested the assistance described in paragraph (oa)(ii) of column 1. 37	Where the firm has made an application directly to the 37 FCA , on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the 37 FCA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's consolidating supervisor has requested assistance. 37 37
(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (zza)52 of this table 26	(1) Unless (2), (2A), (3), (3A), (3B), (3C), (3D) or 3(E)44 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 which apply to that application. (2) Subject to (2A) below, if the firm's application includes an application for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 that would be payable under (1) above or, if higher, 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 that would be payable in relation to the new credit-related regulated activity 30.37 (2A) If an applicant which already has a Part 4A permission to carry on a credit-related regulated activity exclusively applies for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, that is specified in Part 3 of FEES 3 Annex 1R37 in the straightforward category (or if it exclusively applies for a number of such permissions), the fee is £25030.37 (3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11 (3A) If the applicant had a limited permission prior to the application to vary its Part 4A permission, 100% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 which apply to that application30.37 (3B) If the applicant has a limited permission and its application exclusively relates to another limited permission, the fee is 030 (3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee is the highest of the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR and the amount otherwise payable in (1), (2), (2A), (3), (3A) or (3B), or (4).80 (3D) No fee is payable if the applicant satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(a).41 (4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250 for firms which are not, or are not seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person, and 125 for firms which are, or are seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person,78 unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part 4A permission in which case no fee is payable.1 (3E) The fee is 12,500 if the firm applying:44 (i) is an MTF operator and the proposed new business of the firm is to be an OTF operator; or44 (ii) is an OTF operator and the proposed new business of the firm is to be an MTF operator.44 30 80 41 30 80 80 1 78 78 37 78 37 80 80 37 1 37 30 30 23 37 37 37 11 37	On or before the date the application is made
30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”)	As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
2(q) [deleted]38 7 7 13 79 13 79 7 7 22 22 7	38	38 3 3 3
2(r) [deleted]46	6 6	5 6 6
5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor. Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.	Either (1) or (2) as set out below: (1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 20,00059; or (2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 12,500.59 77 77 37 37 77 77 37 77 37	On or before any application is made for the appointment of a person as an independent expert. 37
6(t) [deleted]46 20
(u) [deleted]34 34	34	34
(v) [deleted]38 22 22	38	38
[deleted]35 35	35	35
(x)[deleted]38	38	38 8
8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations	The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.47	On or before the date the application is made.
47(ya) An applicant for registration as an account information service provider under regulation 17 of the Payment Services Regulations.	47FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (2)(i). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.	47On or before the date the application is made.
(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 16 47 of the Payment Services Regulations applies	The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.	On or before the date the application is made.
(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 13 47 of the Payment Services Regulations	FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.	On or before the date the application is made.
(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 5 47 of the Payment Services Regulations.	(1) If50 prior to the variation the authorised payment institution is authorised to carry on any one or more of the payment services falling50 within paragraph (f), 47 (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and the authorised payment institution is applying to extend its authorisation to include any one or more of the payment services in (a) to (e)50, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application. (2) Where the authorised payment institution 50 already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (f);50 the fee payable is £47250 irrespective of the number of agents it has. 50(3) Where the authorised payment institution already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (f) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or both of the services in (g) and (h) the fee payable is £750, irrespective of the number of agents it has. (4)50 In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable. 47 47 47 47 47	On or before the date the application is made.
(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 13 47 of the Payment Services Regulations	(1)The 47 fee is 50% of the tariff 47set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). 47 (2) 47 In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable. 47 47	On or before the date the application is made.
(zd) 47	47	[deleted]47
(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12 12	Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .	30 days of the date of the invoice.9
(zf) [deleted]78 78	78	9 16 78
16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution 14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	50(1) Subject to (2) below, the fee is 50% of the tariff for an electronic money institution authorisation application set out in FEES 3 Annex 10R. 50(2) Where the authorised electronic money institution applies to vary its permission so as to be able to provide one or both of the payment services in paragraphs (g) and (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations the fee payable is £750.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.	2,500	On or before the date the application is made.18
18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond.	(1) Unless (2) or (3)41 applies, 45,000. (2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000. (3) No fee is payable if the issuer satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(b).41	On or before the date the application is made.
18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D.	(1) Unless (2) applies 6,500.41 (2) No fee is payable if the issuer satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(c).41	On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.21
21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either: (i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or (ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1).	An amount equal to: (1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or (2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
78(zp) A person in respect of which the FCA 37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2. 37	Any amount invoiced to the FCA 37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act. 37	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
78(zq) A person in respect of which the FCA 37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act . 37	Any amount invoiced to the FCA 37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act. 37 37	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33
33(zr) [deleted]38	38	38
30(zs) Applicant for FCA permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) and/or money paid or property transferred under and agreement to be retained under 3128A(3)(b) of the Act	(1) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act and for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act, the fee is 31£3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.30 (2) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31 (3) If the application is for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31 Where there are a number of agreements of the same type, only one fee is payable in respect of those agreements. A number of agreements are of the same type when those agreements are entered into on the same terms and conditions.	On or before the date the application is made.
(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 80	Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 80 (1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 80 (2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 80	On or before the application is made.80
(zu)40 Any person to which the Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee applies under FEES 3 Annex 10B. 39	Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 10B.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
43(zv) Any firm that meets the test in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1)R(1) (PPI campaign fees).	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1) R(2).	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
45(zw) An applicant for authorisation under regulation 7 of the DRS Regulations, or the operator of a trading venue seeking verification of their compliance with the DRS Regulations 63 49 under regulation 8 of those regulations 63 or an applicant for variation of an authorisation under regulation 12 of the DRS Regulations. 63	Either (1), (2), or (3) applies as set out below: (1) If the applicant is applying for permission to operate one data reporting service, 5,000. (2) If the applicant is applying for permission to operate more than one data reporting services, 50% of the fee at (1) for each additional service plus the fee at (1). (3) If the applicant is applying for variation of an authorisation, 50% of the fee at (1) for each additional service.	On the date the application is made.
46(zx) (1) Unless (2) applies any person applying to connect to the market data processor system to make transaction reports directly to the FCA under MiFIR. (2) If a person has previously applied as stated in (zx)(1) above and has been connected then no further fee is payable for any further such applications.	1) 20,00063	On the date the application is made
46(zy) (1) Subject to (2) and (3) below, any person applying to connect to the market data processor system to provide markets data (other than transaction reports) under MAR 1056. (2) If a person has previously applied as stated in (zy)(1) above and has been connected then no further fee is payable for any further such applications in relation to reporting the same data. (3) If a person has previously applied as stated in (zy)(1) above and makes a further application in relation to the provision of different data then a separate fee is payable for such application. 49	10,00063 56	On the date the application is made.
51(zz) an applicant for registration under regulation 14 of the Risk Transformation Regulations as a protected cell company.	500	On or before the date the application is made.
52(zza) An application for authorisation as a regulated benchmark administrator.	The highest of the applicable tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R. Where an applicant intends to administer benchmarks falling into different complexity groupings, it will pay one fee only, for the highest category applied for. If, once authorised, a regulated benchmark administrator notifies the FCA of its intention to administer other/additional benchmarks no further application fee is payable (even if the other/additional benchmark falls into a higher complexity category).	On the date the application is made.
52(zzb) An application for recognition of an administrator in accordance with article 32 of the benchmarks regulation.	5,000	On the date the application is made.
52(zzc) An application for endorsement of a benchmark or family of benchmarks in accordance with article 33 of the benchmarks regulation.	1,500	On the date the application is made.
54(zzd) applications for claims management companies	(1) £1,200 for claims management companies with annual turnover of up to and including £1,000,000; and (2) £10,000 for claims management companies with annual turnover of over £1,000,000. Firms which already have Part 4A permissions and are applying to vary their permissions will receive a 50% reduction in the relevant fee.	On the date the application is made.
55(zze) An application for authorisation as a third party verifier	(1) Unless (2) applies, 1,500. (2) Firms which already have Part 4A permissions will not receive a 50% reduction in the authorisation fee.	On the date the application is made.
61(zzf) UK-based applicants for registration as a trade repository; a securitisation repository, or a third country applicant seeking recognition as a trade repository.	5,000 Applicants for registration as a trade repository who already hold registration as a securitisation repository, or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee. Applicants for registration as a trade repository to carry on activity for the purposes of UK SFTR who already hold registration as a trade repository under EMIR or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee.	On the date the application is made.
61(zzg) UK-based applicants for registration as a credit rating agency or a third country applicant seeking certification as a credit rating agency.	The fee set out in FEES 3 Annex 13R.	On the date the application is made.
32Part 2: UKLA38 fees
(1) Fee payer	(2) Fee payable	(3) Due date
(a) (i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R. (ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2).	FEES 3 Annex 12R38	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
38(b) An applicant for approval as a sponsor.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date the application is made.
38(c) For the purposes of48 the listing rules:48 (i)48 an issuer requesting approval of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction; or48 48(ii) an issuer or person applying for eligibility for listing of its securities.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(d) Under the Prospectus Rules or the Prospectus Regulation 60, an issuer or a person requesting approval or review of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(e) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a super transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(f) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a significant transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(g) A person who requests the FCA’s approval of a document that includes a mineral expert’s report and who is a fee payer under one or more of the categories (c), (d), (e), and (f) above must additionally pay a fee under this category.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(h) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date the application is made.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

COLL 8.5.9R20/07/2018

(1) The value of the scheme property is the net value of the scheme property after deducting any outstanding borrowings (including any capital outstanding on a mortgage of an immovable).(2) Any part of the scheme property which is not an investment (save an immovable) must be valued at fair value.(3) For the purposes of (2), any charges that were paid, or would be payable, on acquiring or disposing of the asset must be excluded from the value of that asset.(4) The value of the

COLL 8.5.12AR01/07/2020

(1) 4The authorised fund manager of a property authorised investment fund must take reasonable steps to ensure that no body corporate holds more than 10% of the net asset value of that fund (the "maximum allowable").(1A) 17For the purposes of (1), a body corporate shall not be treated as holding more than the maximum allowable to the extent that:(a) the body corporate holds units in a unit trust scheme which holds shares in the property authorised investment fund; and(b) in their

COLL 8.5.12BG06/06/2008

4Reasonable steps to monitor the maximum allowable include:(1) regularly reviewing the register; and(2) taking reasonable steps to ensure that unitholders are kept informed of the requirement that no body corporate may hold more than 10% of the net asset value of a property authorised investment fund.

COBS 18.5.7G01/01/2018

The fund documents of an unauthorised fund managed by a small authorised UK AIFM or a residual CIS operator (if those fund documents6 exist) should make it clear that if an investor6 is reclassified as a retail client, this reclassification will not affect certain activities of the firm6. In particular, despite such a reclassification, the firm6 will not be required to comply with the best execution provisions. It should be noted that there is no requirement that fund6 documents

COBS 18.5.8R22/07/2013

Where the fund is an unauthorised fund managed by a small authorised UK AIFM or a residual CIS operator6 and no current investor6 in the fund6 was a retail client when it invested in the fund6, the fund6 documents must include a statement that:66666(1) explains that if an investor6 is reclassified as a retail client subsequent to investing in the fund6, then the firm6 may continue to treat all investors in the fund6 as though they were not retail clients; 6666(2) explains that

COBS 18.5.9G22/07/2013

A small authorised UK AIFM of an unauthorised AIF or a residual CIS operator will still have to comply with other COBS provisions as a result of the reclassification of an investor6 as a retail client. For example, the firm must6 provide periodic statements to investors6 who are retail clients in an unauthorised fund6 (see the rule on periodic statements for an unauthorised fund6 (COBS 18.5.11 R6)).666666

COLL 4.2.4R01/04/2004

(1) The authorised fund manager:(a) must ensure that the prospectus of the authorised fund does not contain any untrue or misleading statement or omit any matter required by the rules in this sourcebook to be included in it; and(b) is liable to pay compensation to any person who has acquired any units in the authorised fund and suffered loss in respect of them as a result of such statement or omission; this is in addition to any liability incurred apart from under this rule.(2)

COLL 4.2.5R30/04/2021

This table belongs to COLL 4.2.2 R (Publishing the prospectus).

Document status
1	A statement that the document is the prospectus of the authorised fund valid as at a particular date (which shall be the date of the document).
Authorised fund
2	A description of the authorised fund including:
	(a)	its name;
	29(aa)	its FCA product reference number (PRN);
	(b)	whether it is an ICVC, ACS 21 or an AUT;17
	3(ba)	whether it is a UCITS scheme or a non-UCITS retail scheme;
	17(bb)	a statement that unitholders in an AUT, ICVC or co-ownership scheme 21 are not liable for the debts of the authorised fund;21
	(bc)	a statement that the scheme property of a co-ownership scheme is beneficially owned by the participants as tenants in common (or, in Scotland, is the common property of the participants);21
	(bd)	a statement that a unitholder in a limited partnership scheme is not liable for the debts or obligations of the limited partnership scheme beyond the amount of the scheme property which is available to the authorised contractual scheme manager to meet such debts or obligations, provided that the unitholder does not take part in the management of the partnership business;21
	(be)	a statement that the exercise of rights conferred on limited partners by FCA rules does not constitute taking part in the management of the partnership business;21
	(c)	for an ICVC, the address of its head office and the address of the place in the United Kingdom for service on the ICVC of notices or other documents required or authorised to be served on it;
	(ca)	for an ACS that is a limited partnership scheme, the address of the proposed principal place of business of the limited partnership scheme;21
	(d)	the effective date of the authorisation order made by the FCA and relevant details of termination, if the duration of the authorised fund is limited;
	(e)	its base currency;
	(f)	for an ICVC, the maximum and minimum sizes of its capital; 18
	(g)	the circumstances in which it may be wound up under the rules and a summary of the procedure for, and the rights of unitholders under, such a winding up; and18 17
	18(h)	if it is not an umbrella, a statement that it is a feeder UCITS, a feeder NURS, a fund of alternative investment funds or a property authorised investment fund22, where that is the case. 22
Umbrella ICVCs or co-ownership schemes21
2A	The following statements for an ICVC or a co-ownership scheme which is an umbrella:21 21
	(a)	for an ICVC, a statement that21its sub-funds are segregated portfolios of assets and, accordingly, the assets of a sub-fund belong exclusively to that sub-fund and shall not be used to discharge directly or indirectly the liabilities of, or claims against, any other person or body, including the umbrella, or any other sub-fund, and shall not be available for any such purpose; 21
	(aa)	for a co-ownership scheme, a statement that the property subject to a sub-fund is beneficially owned by the participants in that sub-fund as tenants in common (or, in Scotland, is the common property of the participants in that sub-fund) and must not be used to discharge any liabilities of, or meet any claims against, any person other than the participants in that sub-fund; and21
	(b)	for an ICVC or a co-ownership scheme, a statement that21 while the provisions of the OEIC Regulations, and section 261P (Segregated liability in relation to umbrella co-ownership schemes) of the Act in the case of co-ownership schemes,21 provide for segregated liability between sub-funds, the concept of segregated liability is relatively new. Accordingly, where claims are brought by local creditors in foreign courts or under foreign law contracts, it is not yet known how those foreign courts will react to regulations 11A and 11B of the OEIC Regulations or, as the case may be, section 261P of the Act.21 18
18Umbrella Schemes
182B	For a UCITS scheme or non-UCITS retail scheme which is an umbrella:29 22 22 22
	29(a)		a statement detailing whether each specific sub-fund is a feeder UCITS, a feeder NURS, a fund of alternative investment funds or a property authorised investment fund, as appropriate; and
	29(b)		the FCA product reference number (PRN) of each sub-fund.
Investment objectives and policy
3	The following particulars of the investment objectives and policy of the authorised fund:
	(a)	the investment objectives, including its financial objectives;
	(b)	the authorised fund's investment policy for achieving those investment objectives, including the general nature of the portfolio and, if appropriate, any intended specialisation;
	(c)	an indication of any limitations on that investment policy;22
	(c-b)	where:33
		(i)	a target for a scheme’s performance has been set, or a payment out of scheme property is permitted, by reference to a comparison of one or more aspects of the scheme property or price with fluctuations in the value or price of an index or indices or any other similar factor (a “target benchmark”); or33
		(ii)	without being a target benchmark, arrangements are in place in relation to the scheme according to which the composition of the portfolio of the scheme is, or is implied to be, constrained by reference to the value, the price or the components of an index or indices or any other similar factor (a “constraining benchmark”); or33
		(iii)	without being a target benchmark or a constraining benchmark, the scheme’s performance is compared against the value or price of an index or indices or any other similar factor (a “comparator benchmark”),33
		a statement providing sufficient information for investors to understand the choice and use of any target benchmark, constraining benchmark or comparator benchmark in relation to the scheme;33
	(c-a)	where no target benchmark, constraining benchmark or comparator benchmark is used, a statement to that effect and an explanation of how investors can assess the performance of the scheme;33
	22(ca)	for an authorised fund that has indicated in its name, investment objectives or fund literature (including in any financial promotions for the fund), through use of descriptions such as 'absolute return', 'total return' or similar, an intention to deliver positive returns in all market conditions (and where there is no actual guarantee of such returns), additional statements in the authorised fund's investment objectives specifying:
		(i)	that capital is in fact at risk;
		(ii)	the investment period over which the authorised fund aims to achieve a positive return; and
		(iii)	there is no guarantee that this will be achieved over that specific, or any, time period;
	(d)	the description of assets which the capital property may consist of;
	(e)	the proportion of the capital property which may consist of an asset of any description;
	(f)	the description of transactions which may be effected on behalf of the authorised fund and an indication of any techniques and instruments or borrowing powers which may be used in the management of the authorised fund;
	(g)	a list of the eligible markets through which the authorised fund may invest or deal in accordance with COLL 5.2.10 R (2)(b) (Eligible markets: requirements);
	(h)	for an ICVC, a statement as to whether it is intended that the scheme will have an interest in any immovable property or movable property ((in accordance with COLL 5.6.4 R (2) (Investment powers: general) or COLL 5.2.8 R (2) (UCITS schemes: general)) for the direct pursuit of the ICVC's business;
	(i)	where COLL 5.2.12 R (3) (Spread: government and public securities) applies:29
		29(i)	a prominent statement as to the fact that more than 35% in value29 of the scheme property is or may be invested in transferable securities or approved money-market instruments issued or guaranteed by a single state, local authority or public international body29; and
		29(ii)	the names of the individual states, local authorities or public international bodies issuing or guaranteeing the securities in which29 more than 35% in value of the scheme property may be invested29;
	(k)	for an authorised fund which may invest in other schemes, the extent to which the scheme property may be invested in the units of schemes which are managed by the authorised fund manager or by its associate;
14	(ka)	where a scheme is a feeder scheme (other than a feeder UCITS or a feeder NURS)18,16 which (in respect of investment in units in collective investment schemes) is dedicated to units in a single collective investment scheme, details of the master scheme and the minimum (and, if relevant, maximum) investment that the feeder scheme may make in it; 16 18
	(l)	where a scheme invests principally in scheme units, deposits or derivatives, or replicates an index in accordance with COLL 5.2.31 R or COLL 5.6.23 R (Schemes replicating an index), a prominent statement regarding this investment policy;
	(m)	where derivatives transactions may be used in a scheme, a prominent statement as to whether these transactions are for the purposes of efficient portfolio management (including10hedging)10 or meeting the investment objectives or both and the possible outcome of the use of derivatives on the risk profile of the scheme;
	(n)	information concerning the profile of the typical investor for whom the scheme is designed;
	(o)	information concerning the historical performance of the scheme, comparing in particular its historical performance against each target benchmark and each constraining benchmark used in relation to the scheme,33 presented in accordance with COBS 4.6.2R (the rules on past performance); 6 6
	(p)	for a non-UCITS retail scheme which invests in immovables, a statement of the countries or territories of situation of land or buildings in which the authorised fund may invest;
	34(pa)	for a fund investing in inherently illiquid assets at least the following (see FUND 3.2.2R(8) (Prior disclosure of information to investors)):
		(i)	an explanation of the risks associated with the scheme investing in inherently illiquid assets and how those risks might crystallise;
		(ii)	a description of the tools and arrangements the authorised fund manager would propose using, including those required by FCA rules, to mitigate the risks referred to in (i); and
		(iii)	an explanation of the circumstances in which those tools and arrangements would typically be deployed and the likely consequences for investors;
	(q)	for a UCITS scheme which invests a substantial portion of its assets in other schemes, a statement of the maximum level of management fees that may be charged to that UCITS scheme and to the schemes in which it invests;
	5(qa)	where the authorised fund is a qualifying money market fund, 31a statement identifying it as such a fund 15and a statement that the authorised fund's investment objectives and policies will meet the conditions specified in the definition of qualifying money market fund 31; 15 15 15
	(r)	where the net asset value of a UCITS scheme is likely to have high volatility owing to its portfolio composition or the portfolio management techniques that may be used, a prominent statement to that effect; 16
	(s)	for a UCITS scheme, a statement that any unitholder may obtain on request the types of information (which must be listed) referred to in COLL 4.2.3R (3) (Availability of prospectus and long report); and16
	16(t)	for a UCITS scheme that is or is intended to be a master UCITS, a statement that it is not a feeder UCITS and will not hold units of a feeder UCITS.
Reporting, distributions and accounting dates
4	Relevant details of the reporting, accounting and distribution information which includes:
	(a)	the accounting and distribution dates;
	(b)	procedures for:
		(i)	determining and applying income (including how any distributable income is paid);
		(ii)	unclaimed distributions; and
		(iii)	if relevant, calculating, paying and accounting for income equalisation; and27
	(c)	the accounting reference date and when the long report will be published in accordance with COLL 4.5.14 R (Publication and availability of annual and half-yearly long report).27
	(d)	[deleted]27
Characteristics of the units
5	Information as to:
	(a)	where there is more than one class of unit in issue or available for issue, the name of each such class and the rights attached to each class in so far as they vary from the rights attached to other classes;
	(b)	[deleted]35 23 23 29
	(c)	how unitholders may exercise their voting rights and what these amount to;
	(d)	where a mandatory redemption, cancellation or conversion of units from one class to another may be required, in what circumstances it may be required; and
	(e)	for an AUT, the fact that the nature of the right represented by units is that of a beneficial interest under a trust.
215A	ACSs: UCITS and NURS eligible investors
	(a)	A statement that units may not be issued to a person other than a:
		(i)	professional ACS investor; or
		(ii)	large ACS investor; or
		(iii)	person who already holds units in the scheme.
	(b)	A statement that the authorised contractual scheme manager must redeem units as soon as practicable after becoming aware that those units are vested in anyone (whether as a result of subscription or transfer of units) other than a person meeting the criteria in paragraph 5A(a).
215B	ACSs: UCITS and NURS transfer of units
	(a)	A statement whether the transfer of units in the ACS scheme is either:
		(i)	prohibited; or
		(ii)	allowed;
		by the instrument constituting the fund 23 and prospectus. 23
	(b)	Where transfer of units is allowed by the instrument constituting the fund 23 and prospectus in accordance with (a)(ii), a statement that units may only be transferred in accordance with the conditions specified by FCA rules, including that units may not be transferred to a person other than a: 23
		(i)	professional ACS investor; or
		(ii)	large ACS investor; or
		(iii)	person who already holds units in the scheme.
	(c)	For a co-ownership scheme which is an umbrella, a statement in accordance with (5B)(a)(i) or (ii) and, where appropriate, a statement in accordance with (5B)(b), must also be made for the sub-funds. Where individual sub-funds have differing policies in relation to transfer of units, separate statements are required.
Authorised fund manager
6	The following particulars of the authorised fund manager:
	(a)	its name;
	(b)	the nature of its corporate form;
	(c)	the date of its incorporation;
	(d)	the address of its registered office;
	(e)	the address of its head office, if that is different from the address of its registered office;
	(f)	[deleted]32
	(g)	if the duration of its corporate status is limited, when that status will or may cease; and
	(h)	the amount of its issued share capital and how much of it is paid up.
Directors of an ICVC, other than the ACD
7	Other than for the ACD:
	(a)	the names and positions in the ICVC of any other directors (if any); and
	(b)	the manner, amount and calculation of the remuneration of such directors.
Depositary
8	The following information and 25particulars concerning 25the depositary:
	(a)	its name;
	(b)	the nature of its corporate form;
	(c)	the address of its registered office;
	(d)	the address of its head office, if that is different from the address of its registered office;
	(e)	[deleted]32 25
	(f)	a description of its duties and conflicts of interest that may arise between the depositary and:25
		25(i)	the scheme; or
		25(ii)	the unitholders in the scheme; or
		25(iii)	the authorised fund manager;
	25(g)	(i)	a description of any safekeeping functions delegated by the depositary;
		(ii)	a description of any conflicts of interest that may arise from such delegation; and
		(iii)	for a UCITS scheme, a list showing the identity of each delegate and sub-delegate; and
	25(h)	for a UCITS scheme, a statement that up-to-date information regarding the points covered under (a),(f) and (g), above, will be made available to unitholders on request.
Investment adviser
9	If an investment adviser is retained in connection with the business of an authorised fund:
	(a)	its name; and
	(b)	where it carries on a significant activity other than providing services to the authorised fund as an investment adviser, what that significant activity is.
Auditor
10	The name of the auditor of the authorised fund.
Contracts and other relationships with parties
11	The following relevant details:
	(a)	for an ICVC:
		(i)	a summary of the material provisions of the contract between the ICVC and the ACD 3 which may be relevant to unitholders including provisions (if any) relating to remuneration, termination, compensation on termination and indemnity; 3
		(ii)	the main business activities of each of the directors (other than those connected with the business of the ICVC) where these are of significance to the ICVC's business;
		(iii)	if any director is a body corporate in a group of which any other corporate director of the ICVC is a member, a statement of that fact; 3
		(iv)	the main terms of each contract of service between the ICVC and a director in summary form; and3
		3(v)	for an ICVC that does not hold annual general meetings, a statement that copies of contracts of service between the ICVC and its directors, including the ACD, will be provided to a unitholder on request;
	(b)	the names of the directors of the authorised fund manager and the main business activities of each of the directors (other than those connected with the business of the authorised fund) where these are of significance to the authorised fund's business;
	(c)	a summary of the material provisions of the contract between the ICVC or the manager of the AUT and the depositary which may be relevant to unitholders, including provisions relating to the remuneration of the depositary;
	21(ca)	in the case of an ACS, a summary of the material provisions of the contracts between:
		(i)	the authorised fund manager and the nominated partner (if any); and
		(ii)	the authorised fund manager and depositary;
		which may be relevant to unitholders, including provisions relating to the remuneration of the depositary;
	(d)	if an investment adviser retained in connection with the business of the authorised fund is a body corporate in a group of which any director of the ICVC or the authorised fund manager 21 of the AUTor ACS 21 is a member, that fact; 21
	(e)	a summary of the material provisions of any contract between the authorised fund manager or the ICVC and any investment adviser which may be relevant to unitholders;
	(f)	if an investment adviser retained in connection with the business of the authorised fund has the authority of the authorised fund manager or the ICVC to make decisions on behalf of the authorised fund manager or the ICVC, that fact and a description of the matters in relation to which it has that authority;
	(g)	a list of:16 16
		16(i)	the functions which the authorised fund manager has delegated in accordance with FCA rules 32; and
		16(ii)	the person to whom such functions have been delegated; and
	(h)	in what capacity (if any), the authorised fund manager acts in relation to any other regulated collective investment schemes 2 and the name of such schemes. 2
Register of Unitholders
12	Details of:
	(a)	the address in the United Kingdom where the register of unitholders, and where relevant the plan register is kept and can be inspected by unitholders; and
	(b)	the registrar's name and address.
Payments out of scheme property
13	In relation to each type of payment from the scheme property, details of:
	(a)	who the payment is made to;
	(b)	what the payment is for;
	(c)	the rate or amount where available;
	(d)	how it will be calculated and accrued;
	(e)	when it will be paid; and
	(f)	where a performance fee is taken, examples of its operation in plain English and the maximum it can amount to.
Allocation of payments
14	If, in accordance with COLL 6.7.10 R4 (Allocation of payments to income or capital), the authorised fund manager and the depositary have agreed that all or part of any income expense payments may be treated as a capital expense:
	(a)	that fact;
	(b)	the policy for allocation of these payments; and
	(c)	a statement that this policy may result in capital erosion or constrain capital growth.
Moveable and immovable property (ICVC only)
15	An estimate of any expenses likely to be incurred by the ICVC in respect of movable and immovable property in which the ICVC has an interest.
Valuation and pricing of scheme property
16	In relation to the valuation of scheme property and pricing of units 1: 1
	(a)	either:1 1
		(i)	in the case of a single-priced authorised fund,1 a provision that there must be only a single price for any unit as determined from time to time by reference to a particular valuation point; or1
		(ii)	1in the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the authorised fund manager's policy for determining prices for the sale and redemption of units by reference to a particular valuation point and an explanation of how those prices may differ;
	(b)	details of:
		(i)	how the value of the scheme property is to be determined in relation to each purpose for which the scheme property must be valued;
		(ii)	how frequently and at what time or times of the day the scheme property will be regularly valued for dealing purposes and a description of any circumstance in which the scheme property may be specially valued;
		(iii)	where relevant, how the price of units of each class will be determined for dealing purposes; 1
		(iv)	where and at what frequency the most recent prices will be published; and
		(v)	1where relevant in the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, an explanation of what is meant by large deals and 29the authorised fund manager's policy in relation to large deals; and
	(c)	if provisions in (a) and (b) do not take effect when the instrument constituting the fund 23 or (where appropriate) supplemental trust deed takes effect, a statement of the time from which those provisions are to take effect or how it will be determined. 23
Dealing
17	The following particulars:
	(a)	the procedures, the dealing periods and the circumstances in which the authorised fund manager will effect:
		(i)	the sale and redemption of units and the settlement of transactions (including the minimum number or value of units which one person may hold or which may be subject to any transaction of sale or redemption) for each class of unit in the authorised fund; and
		(ii)	any direct issue or cancellation of units by an ICVC or by the depositary of an AUT or ACS 21 (as appropriate) through the authorised fund manager in accordance with COLL 6.2.7R (2) (Issue and cancellation of units through an authorised fund manager); 21
	(b)	the circumstances in which the redemption of units may be suspended;
	(c)	whether certificates will be issued in respect of registered units;
	(d)	the circumstances in which the authorised fund manager may arrange for, and the procedure for the issue or cancellation of units in specie;
	(e)	the investment exchanges (if any) on which units in the scheme are listed or dealt;
	(f)	the circumstances and conditions for issuing units in an authorised fund which limit the issue of any class of units in accordance with 13COLL 6.2.18 R13 (Limited issue);
	(g)	the circumstances and procedures for the limitation or deferral of redemptions in accordance with 13COLL 6.2.19 R13 (Limited redemption) or 13COLL 6.2.21 R13 (Deferred redemption); 12
	(h)	in a prospectus available during the period of any initial offer:
		(i)	the length of the initial offer period;
		(ii)	the initial price of a unit, which must be in the base currency;
		(iii)	the arrangements for issuing units during the initial offer, including the authorised fund manager's intentions on investing the subscriptions received during the initial offer;
		(iv)	the circumstances when the initial offer will end;
		(v)	whether units will be sold or issued in any other currency; and12
		(vi)	any other relevant details of the initial offer 12; 30 12
	(i)	whether a unitholder may effect transfer of title to units on the authority of an electronic communication and if so the conditions that must be satisfied in order to effect a transfer; and30 12
	30(j)	if the authorised fund manager deals as principal in units of the scheme and holds them for that purpose, a statement of its policy for doing so and, where applicable:
		30(i)	a description of when the authorised fund manager may retain any profits it earns and absorb any losses it incurs for these activities; and
		30(ii)	a statement of non-accountability as referred to in COLL 6.7.16G.
Dilution
18	In the case of a single-priced authorised fund, details1 of what is meant by dilution including:
	(a)	a statement explaining:
		(i)	that it is not possible to predict accurately whether dilution is likely to occur; and
		(ii)	which of the policies the authorised fund manager is adopting under COLL 6.3.8 (1) (Dilution) together with an explanation of how this policy may affect the future growth of the authorised fund; and
	(b)	if the authorised fund manager may require a dilution levy or make a dilution adjustment, a statement of:
		(i)	the authorised fund manager's policy in deciding when to require a dilution levy, including what is meant by large deals and 29the authorised fund manager's policy on large deals, or when to make a dilution adjustment;
		(ii)	the estimated rate or amount of any dilution levy or dilution adjustment based either on historical data or future projections; and
		(iii)	the likelihood that the authorised fund manager may require a dilution levy or make a dilution adjustment and the basis (historical or projected) on which the statement is made.
SDRT provision
19	29
	29	29
	29	[deleted]29
Forward pricing29
20	An explanation of forward pricing 29 under COLL 6.3.9 (Forward 29pricing).
Preliminary charge
21	Where relevant, a statement authorising the authorised fund manager to make a preliminary charge and specifying the basis for and current amount or rate of that charge.
Redemption charge
22	Where relevant, a statement authorising the authorised fund manager to deduct a redemption charge out of the proceeds of redemption; and if the authorised fund manager makes a redemption charge:
	(a)	the current amount of that charge or if it is variable, the rate or method of calculating it;
	(b)	if the amount, rate or method has been changed, that details of any previous amount, rate or method may be obtained from the authorised fund manager on request; and
	(c)	how the order in which units acquired at different times by a unitholder is to be determined so far as necessary for the purposes of the imposition of the redemption charge.
9Property Authorised Investment Funds
922A	For a property authorised investment fund, a statement that:
	(1)	[deleted]22 22
	(2)	no body corporate may seek to obtain or intentionally maintain a holding of more than19 10% of the net asset value of the fund; and 19
	(3)	in the event that the authorised fund manager reasonably considers that a body corporate holds more than 10% of the net asset value of the fund, the authorised fund manager is entitled to delay any redemption or cancellation of units if the authorised fund manager reasonably considers such action to be:
		(a)	necessary in order to enable an orderly reduction of the holding to below 10%; and
		(b)	in the interests of the unitholders as a whole.
18
18	18
General information
23	Details of:
	(a)	the address at which copies of the instrument constituting the fund,23 any amending instrument and the most recent annual and half-yearly long reports may be inspected and from which copies may be obtained; 23
	(b)	the manner in which any notice or document will be served on unitholders;
	(c)	the extent to which and the circumstances in which:
		(i)	the scheme is liable to pay or suffer tax on any appreciation in the value of the scheme property or on the income derived from the scheme property; and
		(ii)	deductions by way of withholding tax may be made from distributions of income to unitholders and payments made to unitholders on the redemption of units; 3
	(d)	for a UCITS scheme, any possible fees or expenses not described in paragraphs 13 to 22, distinguishing between those to be paid by a unitholder and those to be paid out of scheme property; and3 3
	3(e)	for an ICVC, whether or not annual general meetings will be held.
Information on the umbrella
24	In the case of a scheme which is an umbrella with two or more sub-funds 11, the following information:
	(a)	that a unitholder is entitled to exchange units in one sub-fund for units in any other sub-fund (other than a sub-fund which has limited the issue of units);
	(b)	that an exchange of units in one sub-fund for units in any other sub-fund is treated as a redemption and sale and will, for persons subject to United Kingdom taxation, be a realisation for the purposes of capital gains taxation;
	(c)	that in no circumstances will a unitholder who exchanges units in one sub-fund for units in any other sub-fund be given a right by law to withdraw from or cancel the transaction;
	(d)	the policy for allocating between sub-funds any assets of, or costs, charges and expenses payable out of, the scheme property which are not attributable to any particular sub-fund;
	(e)	what charges, if any, may be made on exchanging units in one sub-fund for units in any other sub-fund; and11
	(f)	for each sub-fund, the currency in which the scheme property allocated to it will be valued and the price of units calculated and payments made, if this currency is not the base currency of the scheme which is an umbrella.11
	(g)	[deleted]11 11
Application of the prospectus contents to an umbrella
25	For a scheme which is an umbrella, information required must be stated:
	(a)	in relation to each sub-fund where the information for any sub-fund differs from that for any other; and
	(b)	for the umbrella as a whole, but only where the information is relevant to the umbrella as a whole.16
16Information on a feeder UCITS
1625A	In the case of a feeder UCITS, the following information:
	(a)	a declaration that the feeder UCITS is a feeder of a particular master UCITS and as such permanently invests at least 85% in value of the scheme property in units of that master UCITS;
	(b)	the investment objective and policy, including the risk profile; and whether the performance records of the feeder UCITS and the master UCITS are identical, or to what extent and for which reasons they differ, including a description of how the balance of the scheme property which is not invested in units of the master UCITS is invested in accordance with COLL 5.8.3 R (Balance of scheme property: investment restrictions on a feeder UCITS);
	(c)	a brief description of the master UCITS, its organisation, its investment objective and policy, including the risk profile, and an indication of how the prospectus of the master UCITS may be obtained;
	(d)	a summary of the master-feeder agreement or where applicable, the internal conduct of business rules referred to in COLL 11.3.2 R (2) (Master-feeder agreement and internal conduct of business rules);
	(e)	how the unitholders may obtain further information on the master UCITS and the master-feeder agreement;
	(f)	a description of all remuneration or reimbursement of costs payable by the feeder UCITS by virtue of its investment in units of the master UCITS, as well as the aggregate charges of the feeder UCITS and the master UCITS; and
	(g)	a description of the tax implications of the investment into the master UCITS for the feeder UCITS.
[Note: article 63(1) of the UCITS Directive]18
18Information on a feeder NURS
1825B	In the case of a feeder NURS, the following information:
	(a)	a declaration that the feeder NURS is a feeder of a particular qualifying master scheme and as such is dedicated to units in a single qualifying master scheme and the minimum (and, if relevant, maximum) investment that the feeder NURS may make in its qualifying master scheme;
	(b)	the investment objective and policy of the feeder NURS, including its risk profile; and whether the performance records of the feeder NURS and the qualifying master scheme are identical, or to what extent and for which reasons they differ, including a description of how the balance of the scheme property which is not invested in units of the qualifying master scheme is invested in accordance with COLL 5.6.7 R (6A) (Spread: general);
	(c)	a brief description of the qualifying master scheme, its organisation, its investment objective and policy, including the risk profile, and an indication of how the prospectus of the qualifying master scheme may be obtained;
	(d)	how the unitholders may obtain further information on the qualifying master scheme;
	(e)	a description of all remuneration or reimbursement of costs payable by the feeder NURS by virtue of its investment in units of the qualifying master scheme, as well as the aggregate charges of the feeder NURS and the qualifying master scheme; and
	(f)	a description of the tax implications of the investment into the qualifying master scheme for the feeder NURS.

Marketing in another EEA state
26	[deleted]32



			23 23

		21 21




7Investment in overseas8 property through an intermediate holding vehicle
726A	7If investment in an overseas8 immovable is to be made through an intermediate holding vehicle or a series of intermediate holding vehicles, a statement disclosing the existence of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicles and confirming that the purpose of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicle is to enable the holding of overseas8 immovables by the scheme.
Additional information
27	Any other material information which is within the knowledge of the directors of an ICVC or the authorised fund manager of an AUT or ACS, or which the directors or authorised fund manager 21 would have obtained by making reasonable enquiries, including but not confined to, the following matters: 21
	(a)	information which investors and their professional advisers would reasonably require, and reasonably expect to find in the prospectus, for the purpose of making an informed judgement about the merits of investing in the authorised fund and the extent and characteristics of the risks accepted by so participating;
	(b)	a clear and easily understandable explanation of any risks which investment in the authorised fund may reasonably be regarded as presenting for reasonably prudent investors of moderate means;
	(c)	if there is any arrangement intended to result in a particular capital or income return from a holding of units in the authorised fund or any investment objective of giving protection to the capital value of, or income return from, such a holding:
		(i)	details of that arrangement or protection;
		(ii)	for any related guarantee, sufficient details about the guarantor and the guarantee to enable a fair assessment of the value of the guarantee;
		(iii)	a description of the risks that could affect achievement of that return or protection; and
		(iv)	details of the arrangements by which the authorised fund manager will notify unitholders of any action required by the unitholders to obtain the benefit of the guarantee; and
	(d)	whether any notice has been given to unitholders of the authorised fund manager intention to propose a change to the scheme and if so, its particulars.
Remuneration Policy
2528	For a UCITS scheme and in relation to UCITS Remuneration Code staff:
	(a)	up-to-date details of the remuneration policy including, but not limited to:
		(i)	a description of how remuneration and benefits are calculated; and
		(ii)	the identities of persons responsible for awarding the remuneration and benefits, including the composition of the remuneration committee, where such a committee exists; or
	(b)	a summary of the remuneration policy and a statement that:
		(i)	up-to-date details of the matters set out in (a) above are available by means of a website, including a reference to that website; and
		(ii)	a paper copy of that website information will be made available free of charge upon request.

[Note: A transitional provision applies to row 3(ca) of this table: see COLL TP 1.28.]22

COLL 4.2.6G01/01/2021

(1) In relation to COLL 4.2.5R (3)(b) the prospectus might include:(a) a description of the extent (if any) to which that policy does not envisage the authorised fund remaining fully invested at all times;(b) for a non-UCITS retail scheme which may invest in immovable property:(i) the maximum extent to which the scheme property may be invested in immovables; and(ii) a statement of the policy of the authorised fund manager in relation to insurance of3 immovables forming part of

LR 15.3.4R28/09/2007

An application for the listing of securities of a multi-class fund or umbrella fund must provide details of the various classes or designations of securities intended to be issued by the applicant.

PERG 9.5.5G01/04/2013

In the FCA's view, the question of whether funds are invested by BC with the aim of spreading investment risk is not affected by the levels of risk involved in particular investments. What matters for these purposes is that the aim is to spread the risk, whatever it may be. For example, the value of each of BC's investments, if taken separately, might be subject to a high level of risk. However, this would not itself result in BC failing to satisfy the property condition as long

LR 16.3.6R01/04/2013

An applicant which is a multi-class or umbrella fund which seeks to create a new class of security without increasing its share capital for which listing has previously been granted, must provide the FCA with the details of the new class and no further application for listing is required.

LR 15.1.1R06/04/2010

2This chapter applies to a closed-ended investment fund applying for, or with, a premium listing3.33

COLL 4.1.2G01/04/2013

This chapter helps in achieving the statutory objective of protecting consumers by ensuring consumers have access to up-to-date detailed information about an authorised fund particularly before buying units and thereafter an appropriate level of investor involvement exists by providing a framework for them to:(1) participate in the decisions on key issues concerning the authorised fund; and(2) be sent regular and relevant information about the authorised fund.

EG 15.3.101/03/2016

1When it decides whether to exercise its power to disqualify an auditor or actuary under section 345(1), and what the scope of any disqualification will be, the FCA will take into account all the circumstances of the case. These may include, but are not limited to, the following factors: (1) the nature and seriousness of any breach of rules and the effect of that breach: the rules are set out in SUP 3 (Auditors) and SUP 4 (Actuaries), and in the case of firms which are ICVCs,

FEES 5.9.3G01/07/2011

[deleted]3838

EG 15.4.101/03/2016

1When deciding whether or not to disqualify an auditor under section 249(1) or section 261K(1) of the Act (concerning the power to disqualify an auditor for breach of trust scheme rules or contractual scheme rules), and in setting the disqualification, the FCA will take into account all the circumstances of the case. These may include, but are not limited to, the following circumstances: (1) the effect of the auditor's breach of a duty imposed by trust scheme

LR 1.6.1AR01/07/2018

1An issuer must comply with the rules that are applicable to every security in the category of listing which applies to each security the issuer has listed. The categories of listing are:(1) premium listing (commercial company); (2) premium listing (closed-ended investment fund);(3) premium listing (open-ended investment companies);(3A) premium listing (sovereign controlled commercial company);3(4) standard listing (shares);(5) standard listing (debt and debt-like securities);(6)

SUP App 2.1.5G01/04/2013

10SUP App 2.7.1 G is made by the FCA for the purpose of its application to dormant account fund operators, rather than insurers.

COLL 4.4.2R01/10/2016

(1) The authorised fund manager, the depositary or the other directors of an ICVC may convene a general meeting of unitholders at any time.(2) The unitholders may request the convening of a general meeting by a requisition which must:(a) state the objects of the meeting;(b) be dated;(c) be signed by unitholders who, at that date, are registered as the unitholders of units representing not less than one-tenth in value (or such lower proportion stated in the instrument constituting

COLL 4.4.4R30/04/2021

(1) Unless a unit in the authorised fund is a participating security, in this section "unitholders" means unitholders as at a cut-off date selected by the authorised fund manager which is a reasonable time before notices of the relevant meeting are sent out.(2) If any unit in the authorised fund is a participating security, a registered unitholder of such a unit is entitled to receive a notice of a meeting or a notice of an adjourned meeting under COLL 4.4.5 R (Notice of general

INSPRU 3.2.5AG07/03/2016

(1) PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Insurance Company – Capital Resources 13.36 requires firms to consider first whether an asset is a derivative or quasi-derivative transaction notwithstanding that it is also capable of falling within one or more other categories in PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Insurance Company – Capital Resources 13.16. If it is a derivative or quasi-derivative transaction it is only admissible if it satisfies the conditions for it to be approved

INSPRU 3.2.36AR07/03/2016

(1) 1For the purposes of the rules on permitted links, a stock lending transaction (including a repo transaction) is approved if:(a) the assets lent are permitted links;(b) the counterparty is an authorised person, an approved counterparty, a person registered as a broker-dealer with the Securities and Exchange Commission of the United States of America or a bank, or a branch of a bank, supervised, and authorised to deal in investments as principal, with respect to OTC derivatives

Related provisions for LR 15.4.26

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Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32