Related provisions for BIPRU 12.7.9
1The following words or terms throughout IPRU-INV 5 appearing in bold (other than headings and titles) are to have the meanings given to them below if not inconsistent with the subject or context. If a defined term is italicised the definition appearing in the main Handbook Glossary applies.
Term |
Meaning |
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accounting reference date |
means: |
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(a) |
the date to which a firm's accounts are prepared in order to comply with the relevant Companies Act legislation. In the case of a firm not subject to Companies Act legislation, the equivalent date selected by the firm; and |
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(b) |
in the case of an OPS firm which is not subject to the relevant Companies Act legislation, the date to which the accounts of the OPS in respect of which the firm acts are prepared. |
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annual expenditure |
has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.5.1 (Determination). |
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category a body |
means: |
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(a) |
the government or central bank of a zone a country; or |
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(b) |
EU or Euratom (the European Atomic Energy Community); or |
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(c) |
the government or central bank of any other country, provided the receivable in question is denominated in that country's national currency. |
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category b body |
means: |
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(a) |
the European Investment Bank (EIB) or a multi-lateral development bank; or |
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(b) |
the regional government or local authority of a zone a country; or |
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(c) |
an investment firm or credit institution authorised in a zone a country; or |
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(d) |
a recognised clearing house or exchange; or |
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(e) |
an investment firm or credit institution authorised in any other country, which applies a financial supervision regime at least equivalent to the Capital Adequacy Directive. |
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counterparty |
means any person with or for whom a firm carries on regulated business or an ancillary activity. |
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counterparty risk requirement |
has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.11.1R (Counterparty risk requirement). |
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expenditure based requirement |
means the requirement calculated in accordance with IPRU-INV 5.9.1R (Expenditure based requirement). |
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financial resources |
has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.2.3R (Financial resources). |
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financial resources requirement |
has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.4.1R (Determination of requirement). |
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financial resources rules |
has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.2. |
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financial return |
means quarterly financial return or monthly financial return as the case may be. |
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foreign exchange position |
has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.14.1R (Foreign exchange requirement). |
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investment |
means a designated investment in the main Glossary. |
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investment business |
means designated investment business in the main Glossary. |
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investment firm |
has the meaning given to investment firm in the main Glossary except that it excludes persons to which MiFID does not apply as a result of articles 2 or 3 of MiFID. |
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Note: An investment firm is not necessarily a firm for the purposes of the rules. |
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investment manager |
means a person who, acting only on behalf of a customer, either: |
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(a) |
manages an account or portfolio in the exercise of discretion; or |
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(b) |
has accepted responsibility on a continuing basis for advising on the composition of the account or portfolio. |
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liquid capital |
has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.3.1R (Calculation of own funds and liquid capital). |
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liquid capital requirement |
has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.4.4R (Liquid capital requirement). |
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non-retail client |
means a professional client or an eligible counterparty. |
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OPS or occupational pension scheme |
means any scheme or arrangement which is comprised in one or more instruments or agreements and which has, or is capable of having, effect in relation to one or more descriptions or categories of employment so as to provide benefits, in the form of pensions or otherwise, payable on termination of service, or on death or retirement, to or respect of earners with qualifying service in an employment of any such description or category. |
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OPS firm |
means: |
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(a) |
a firm which: |
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(i) |
carries on OPS activity but not with a view to profit; and |
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(ii) |
is one or more of the following: |
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(A) |
a trustee of the occupational pension scheme in question; |
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(B) |
a company owned by the trustees of the occupational pension scheme in question; |
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(C) |
a company which is: |
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(I) |
an employer in relation to the occupational pension scheme in question in respect of its employees or former employees or their dependants; or |
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(II) |
a company within the group which includes an employer within (I); or |
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(III) |
an administering authority subject to the Local Government Superannuation Regulations 1986; or |
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(b) |
a firm which: |
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(i) |
has satisfied the requirements set out in (a) at any time during the past 12 months; but |
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(ii) |
is no longer able to comply with those requirements because of a change in the control or ownership of the employer referred to in (a)(ii) during that period. |
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otc derivative |
means interest rate and foreign exchange contracts covered by Annex III to the previous version of the Banking Consolidation Directive (i.e. Directive (2000/12/EC) and off balance sheet contracts based on equities which are not traded on a recognised or designated investment exchange or other exchange where they are subject to daily margin requirements, excluding any foreign exchange contract with an original maturity of 14 calendar days or less. |
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other assets requirement |
has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.17.1R (Other assets requirement). |
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own funds |
has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.3.1R and IPRU-INV 5.3.2R, as applicable. |
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own funds requirement |
has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.4.3R and IPRU-INV 5.4.4R (Own funds requirement), as applicable. |
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permitted business |
means regulated activity which a firm has permission to carry on. |
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position risk requirement |
has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.11.1R (Position risk requirement). |
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prescribed subordinated loan agreement |
means the subordinated loan agreement prescribed by the appropriate regulator for the purposes of IPRU-INV 5.6.4R. |
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qualifying capital instrument |
means that part of a firm's capital which is a security of indeterminate duration, or other instrument, that fulfils the following conditions: |
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(a) |
it may not be reimbursed on the bearer's initiative or without the prior agreement of the appropriate regulator; |
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(b) |
the debt agreement must provide for the firm to have the option of deferring the payment of interest on the debt; |
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(c) |
the lender's claims on the firm must be wholly subordinated to those of all non-subordinated creditors; |
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(d) |
the documents governing the issue of the securities must provide for debt and unpaid interest to be such as to absorb losses, whilst leaving the firm in a position to continue trading; and |
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(e) |
only fully paid-up amounts shall be taken into account. |
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qualifying capital item |
means that part of a firm's capital which has the following characteristics: |
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(a) |
it is freely available to the firm to cover normal banking or other risks where revenue or capital losses have not yet been identified; |
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(b) |
its existence is disclosed in internal accounting records; and |
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(c) |
its amount is determined by the management of the firm and verified by independent auditors, and is made known to, and is monitored by, the FCA. |
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qualifying property |
has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.7.1R (Qualifying property and qualifying amount defined). |
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qualifying subordinated loan |
has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.6 (Qualifying subordinated loans). |
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qualifying undertaking |
has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.7.3R (Qualifying undertakings). |
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readily realisable investment |
means a unit in a regulated collective investment scheme, a life policy or any marketable investment other than one which is traded on or under the rules of a recognised or designated investment exchange so irregularly or infrequently: |
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(a) |
that it cannot be certain that a price for that investment will be quoted at all times; or |
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(b) |
that it may be difficult to effect transactions at any price which may be quoted. |
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regulated business |
means designated investment business in the main Glossary. |
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relevant foreign exchange items |
means: |
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(a) |
all assets less liabilities, including accrued interest, denominated in the currency (all investments at market or realisable value); |
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(b) |
any currency future, at the nominal value of the contract; |
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(c) |
any forward contract for the purchase or sale of the currency, at the contract value, including any future exchange of principal associated with currency swaps; |
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(d) |
any foreign currency options at the net delta (or delta-based) equivalent of the total book of such options; |
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(e) |
any non-currency option, at market value; |
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(f) |
any irrevocable guarantee; |
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(g) |
any other off-balance sheet commitment to purchase or sell an asset denominated in that currency. |
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reporting currency |
means the currency in which the firm's books of account are maintained. |
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specified trustee business |
1. |
means any investment business carried on in the UK by a trustee firm, but excluding each of the following activities: |
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(a) |
Dealing or arranging deals in investments |
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(i) |
where the deal is transacted or arranged by a trustee firm with or through a PTP; or |
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(ii) |
where the dealing or arranging is done in the course of, or is incidental to, an activity of management falling within paragraph (b) below; or |
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(iii) |
where the trust is a unit trust scheme and the deal is or the arrangements are made with a view to either an issue or sale of units in such a scheme to, or a redemption or repurchase or conversion of such units or a dealing in investments for such a scheme carried out by with or through, the operator or on the instructions of the operator; or |
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(iv) |
where the trustee firm, being a bare trustee (or, in Scotland, a nominee) holding investments for another person, is acting on that person's instructions; or |
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(v) |
where any arrangements do not or would not bring about the transaction in question. |
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(b) |
Managing investments |
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(i) |
where the trustee firm has no general authority to effect transactions in investments at discretion; or |
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(ii) |
if and to the extent that all day-to-day decisions in relation to the management of the investments or any discrete part of the investments are or are to be taken by a PTP; or |
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(iii) |
if and to the extent that investment decisions in relation to the investments or any discrete part of the investments are or are to be taken substantially in accordance with the advice given by a PTP; or |
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(iv) |
where the trustee firm is a personal representative or executor and is acting in that capacity; or |
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(v) |
where the trust is a unit trust scheme and all day-to-day investment decisions in the carrying on of that activity are or are to be taken by the operator of the scheme. |
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(c) |
Investment advice |
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(i) |
where the relevant advice: |
||||
(A) |
does not recommend the entry into any investment transaction or the exercise of any right conferred by any investment to acquire, dispose of, underwrite or convert such an investment; and |
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(ii) |
if and to the extent that the relevant advice is in substance the advice of a PTP; or |
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(iii) |
where the relevant advice is given by the trustee firm acting in the capacity of personal representative or executor. |
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(d) |
Establishing, operating or winding up a collective investment scheme including acting as trustee of an authorised unit trust scheme but only to the extent that such activities do not otherwise constitute specified trustee business. |
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(e) |
Any trustee activity undertaken as trustee of an issue of debentures or government or public securities: |
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(i) |
where the issue is made by a company listed on a recognised investment exchange or on a designated investment exchange (or by a wholly-owned subsidiary of such a company); or |
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(ii) |
where the issue is listed or traded either on a recognised investment exchange or on a designated investment exchange or on the Société de la Bourse de Luxembourg; or |
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(iii) |
where the issue is made by a government, local authority or international organisation; or |
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(iv) |
where the aggregate amounts issued (pursuant to the trust deed or any deed supplemental thereto and ignoring any amounts redeemed, repurchased or converted) exceed the sum of £10,000,000. |
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2. |
For the purpose of this definition of "specified trustee business": |
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(a) |
a transaction is entered into through a person if that person: |
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(i) |
enters into it as agent; or |
||||
(ii) |
arranges for it to be entered into as principal or agent by another person and the arrangements are such that they bring about the transaction in question; |
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(b) |
investment transaction means a transaction to purchase, sell, subscribe for or underwrite a particular investment and "investment decision" means a decision relating to an investment transaction; |
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(c) |
debentures means any securities falling within article 77 of the RAO; |
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(d) |
government or public securities means any securities falling within article 78) of the RAO; |
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(e) |
government, local authority or international organisation means: |
||||
(i) |
the government of the United Kingdom, of Northern Ireland, or of any country or territory outside the United Kingdom; |
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(ii) |
a local authority in the United Kingdom or Anywhere; or |
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(iii) |
an international organisation the members of which include the United Kingdom2. |
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(f) |
in determining the size of an issue of debentures or government or public securities made in a currency other than sterling, the amount of the issue shall be converted into sterling at the exchange rate prevailing in London on the date of issue. |
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total capital requirement |
has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.4.5R (Total capital requirement). |
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trading book |
in relation to a firm's business or exposures, means: |
||||
(a) |
its proprietary positions in financial instruments: |
||||
(i) |
which are held for resale and/or are taken on by the firm with the intention of benefiting in the short term from actual and/or expected differences between their buying and selling prices or from other price or interest-rate variations; |
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(ii) |
arising from matched principal broking; |
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(iii) |
taken in order to hedge other elements of the trading book; |
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(b) |
exposures due to unsettled securities transactions, free deliveries, OTC derivative instruments, repurchase agreements and securities lending transactions based on securities included in (a)(i) to (iii) above, reverse repurchase agreements and securities borrowing transactions based on securities included in (a)(i) to (iii) above; and |
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(c) |
fees, commission, interest and dividends, and margin on exchange-traded derivatives which are directly related to the items included in (a) and (b) above. |
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trustee activity |
means, in relation to a firm, any activity undertaken in the course of or incidental to the exercise of any of its powers, or the performance of any of its duties, when |
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unit trust manager |
means the manager of a unit trust scheme. |
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zone b country |
means a country which is not a Zone A country in the Glossary. |
Part 1: Activities
Note: The activity numbers in this table relate to the activities14 in TC App 1.1.1 R. These tables do not cover activities 1, 5, 13A, 13B, 13C, 20A, 21B,14 23A, 23B, 23C, 23D, 23E,17 24, 25 or 26 as these activities do not have a qualification requirement.21 In relation to advising on P2P agreements (activity 9A), see TC 2.1.5HR and TC 2.1.6R(2).
24Part 1A: The Retail Distribution Review activities (RDR activities)
14Activity Number |
RDR24 Activity |
||
2 |
Giving personal recommendations26 on securities which are not stakeholder pension schemes, personal pension schemes or broker funds |
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3 |
Giving personal recommendations26 on derivatives |
||
4 and 6 |
(4) Giving personal recommendations26 on retail investment products which are not broker funds and (6) giving personal recommendations26 on friendly societytax-exempt policies (other than Holloway sickness policies26 where the Holloway policy special application conditions26 are met) |
||
12 |
Giving personal recommendations26 on and dealing in securities which are not stakeholder pension schemes, personal pension schemes or broker funds |
||
13 |
Giving personal recommendations26 on and dealing in derivatives |
Information to be provided in the UCITS half-yearly and annual reports and the AIF’s annual report |
|
Global data: |
|
- |
The amount of securities and commodities on loan as a proportion of total lendable assets defined as excluding cash and cash equivalents; |
- |
The amount of assets engaged in each type of SFTs and total return swaps expressed as an absolute amount (in the collective investment undertaking’s currency) and as a proportion of the collective investment undertaking’s assets under management (AUM). |
Concentration data: |
|
- |
Ten largest collateral issuers across all SFTs and total return swaps (break down of volumes of the collateral securities and commodities received per issuer’s name); |
- |
Top 10 counterparties of each type of SFTs and total return swaps separately (Name of counterparty and gross volume of outstanding transactions). |
Aggregate transaction data for each type of SFTs and total return swaps separately to be broken down according to the below categories: |
|
- |
Type and quality of collateral; |
- |
Maturity tenor of the collateral broken down in the following maturity buckets: less than one day, one day to one week, one week to one month, one to three months, three months to one year, above one year, open maturity; |
- |
Currency of the collateral; |
- |
Maturity tenor of the SFTs and total return swaps broken down in the following maturity buckets: less than one day, one day to one week, one week to one month, one to three months, three months to one year, above one year, open transactions; |
- |
Country in which the counterparties are established; |
- |
Settlement and clearing (e.g., tri-party, Central Counterparty, bilateral). |
Data on reuse of collateral: |
|
- |
Share of collateral received that is reused, compared to the maximum amount specified in the prospectus or in the disclosure to investors; |
- |
Cash collateral reinvestment returns to the collective investment undertaking. |
Safekeeping of collateral received by the collective investment undertaking as part of SFTs and total return swaps: |
|
Number and names of custodians and the amount of collateral assets safe-kept by each of the custodians |
|
Safekeeping of collateral granted by the collective investment undertaking as part of SFTs and total return swaps: |
|
The proportion of collateral held in segregated accounts or in pooled accounts, or in any other accounts |
|
Data on return and cost for each type of SFTs and total return swaps broken down between the collective investment undertaking, the manager of the collective investment undertaking and third parties (e.g. agent lender) in absolute terms and as a percentage of overall returns generated by that type of SFTs and total return swaps |
|
[Note: section A of the annex to the Securities Financing Transactions Regulation and article 3 for relevant definitions] |
Table: This table belongs to COLL 6.3.2 G (2) (a) and COLL 6.3.3 R (Valuation)1.
Valuation and pricing |
||
1 |
The valuation of scheme property |
|
(1) |
Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review. |
|
(2) |
For some or all of the investments comprising the scheme property, different prices may quoted according to whether they are being bought (offer prices) or sold (bid prices). The valuation of a single-priced authorised fund should reflect the mid-market value of such investments. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the issue basis of the valuation will be carried out by reference to the offer prices of investments and the cancellation basis by reference to the bid prices of those same investments. The prospectus should explain how investments will be valued for which a single price is quoted for both buying and selling.1 1 |
|
3(2A) |
Schemes investing in approved money-market instruments5should value such instruments on an amortised cost basis on condition that:5
|
|
[Note:CESR's UCITS eligible assets guidelines with respect to article 4(2) of the UCITS eligible assets Directive] |
||
(2B) |
[deleted]12 7 |
|
7 | ||
(3) |
Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation). |
|
(4) |
For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should, in the case of a single-priced authorised fund,2 be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, any such payments should be added to the issue basis of the valuation, or subtracted from the cancellation basis of the valuation, as appropriate. Alternatively, the prospectus of a dual-priced authorised fund may prescribe any other method of calculating unitprices that ensures an equivalent treatment of the effect of these payments.2 |
|
(5) |
Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that:
|
|
(6) |
The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include:
|
|
(7) |
In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration:
|
|
4(7A) |
Where the authorised fund manager, the depositary or the standing independent valuer have reasonable grounds to believe that the most recent valuation of an immovable does not reflect the current value of that immovable, then, unless COLL 6.3.6G(1)(7B) applies,14 the authorised fund manager should consult and agree with the standing independent valuer a fair and reasonable value for the immovable. |
|
14(7B) |
Where the authorised fund manager decides that an immovable must be sold quickly to meet redemption requests as they fall due, it should consult and agree with the standing independent valuer a fair and reasonable price for the immovable to reflect a rapid sale, to extent that the prospectus states that it may do so. |
|
(8) |
The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly. |
|
(9) |
Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing. |
|
2 |
The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager |
|
(1) |
An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices. |
|
(2) |
The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that:
|
|
(3) |
In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the authorised fund1or the materiality of any effect on the price. |
|
(4) |
Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained. |
|
(5) |
Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult. |
|
(6) |
Where the pricing1function is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply. |
|
3 |
The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls |
|
(1) |
This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing1 functions to one or more third parties5. 5 |
|
(2) |
A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them. |
|
(3) |
A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation. |
|
(4) |
A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory. |
|
(5) |
Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue1, securities prices (and in particular the prices of OTC derivatives,5unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor. |
|
(6) |
A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved. |
|
4 |
The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing |
|
(1) |
An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable. |
|
(2) |
In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FCA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FCA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only. |
|
(3) |
A depositary should also report to the FCA immediately any instance of incorrect pricing1where the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager. |
|
(4) |
In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FCA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing1 during a particular period. |
|
5 |
The rectification of pricing breaches |
|
(1) |
COLL 6.6.3R(3)(c)10(Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing1, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance. |
|
(2) |
A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricing1is of minimal significance if:
|
|
(3) |
In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing1 is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately. |
|
(4) |
If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate). |
|
(5) |
The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing1 are accurately and promptly calculated and paid. |
|
(6) |
If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FCA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units. |
|
(7) |
It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price. |
|
(8) |
In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid. |