Related provisions for SUP 18.4.32

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EG 8.5.2RP
1The grounds on which the FCA may exercise its power to cancel an authorised person's permission under section 55J of the Act are the same as the grounds for variation and for imposition of requirements. They are set out in section 55J(1) and section 55L(2) and described in EG 8.1.1. Examples of the types of circumstances in which the FCA may cancel a firm'sPart 4A permission include: (1) non-compliance with a Financial Ombudsman Service award against the
SYSC 19C.1.7GRP
(1) The BIPRU Remuneration Code does not contain specific notification requirements. However, general circumstances in which the FCA expects to be notified by firms of matters relating to their compliance with requirements under the regulatory system are set out in SUP 15.3 (General notification requirements). (2) In particular, in relation to remuneration matters, such circumstances should take into account unregulated activities as well as regulated activities and the activities
SUP App 3.9.4GRP

1

Table 1: CRD activities6

6

Part II RAO Activities

Part III RAO Investments

1.

Taking6 deposits and other repayable funds from the public

6

Article 5

Article 74

2.

Lending

Article 61, 64

Article 88

3.

Financial leasing

4.

Money transmission services

5.

Issuing and administering means of payment (eg credit cards, travellers' cheques and bankers' drafts)

6.

Guarantees and commitments

7.

Trading for own account or for account of customers in:

(a) money market instruments

(b) foreign exchange

(c) financial futures and options

(d) exchange and interest rate instruments

(e) transferable securities

Article 14, 21, 25 (see Note 1), 64

Article 14, 21, 25, 64

Article 14, 21, 25, 64

Article 14, 21, 25, 64

Article 14, 21, 25, 64

Article 77, 78, 80, 83-85, 89

Article 83-85, 89

Article 83-85, 89

Article 83-85, 89

Article 76-81, 89

8.

Participation in share issues and the provision of services relating to such issues

Article 14, 21, 25, 53(1)10, 64

Article 76-81, 89

9.

Advice to undertakings on capital structure, industrial strategy and related questions and advice and services relating to mergers and the purchase of undertakings

Article 14, 21, 25, 53(1)10, 64

Article 76-80, 83-85, 89

10.

Money broking

Article 25, 64

Article 77, 78, 89

11.

Portfolio management and advice

Article 14, 21, 25, 37, 53(1)10, 64

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

12.

Safekeeping and administration of securities

Article 40, 45, 64

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

13.

Credit reference services

14.

Safe custody services

 1 16

615.

Issuing electric money

Article 9B

Article 74A

3Note 12: The services and activities provided for in Sections A and B of Annex I of MiFID when referring to the financial instruments provided for in Section C of Annex I of that Directive are subject to mutual recognition according to the CRD from 1 January 2013.6See2 the table at SUP App 3.9.5 G below for mapping of MiFIDinvestment services and activities.For further details relating to this residual category, please see the "CRD"6section of the passporting forms entitled "Notification of intention to establish a branch in another EEA State" and "Notification of intention to provide cross border services in another EEA State".2

266
BIPRU 8.5.9RRP
A firm may, having first notified the appropriate regulator in writing in accordance with SUP 15.7 (Form and method of notification), exclude a BIPRU firm,4asset management company, financial institution or ancillary services undertaking that is a subsidiary undertaking in, or an undertaking in which a participation is held by, the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group if the balance sheet total of that undertaking is less than the smaller of the following two amounts:4(1)
MAR 5.3A.8RRP
A firm must have systems and procedures to notify the FCA if:(1) an MTF operated by the firm is material in terms of the liquidity of trading of a financial instrument3; and(2) trading is halted in that instrument.[Note: article 48(5) of MiFID]
CONC 10.2.14RRP
A firm must notify the FCA of any change in its prudential resources requirement within 14 days of that change.
FEES 13.1.4GRP
Section 333T of the Act (Funding of action against illegal money lending) requires the Treasury to notify the FCA of the amount of the Treasury’s illegal money lending costs. The FCA must make rules requiring authorised persons, or any specified class of authorised person, to pay to the FCA the specified amounts or amounts calculated in a specified way, with a view to recovering the amounts notified to it by the Treasury.
DTR 1C.2.1RRP
(1) The FCA may dispense with, or modify, a requirement in DTR 8 in such cases and by reference to such circumstances as it considers appropriate (subject to the Act).(2) A dispensation or modification may be either unconditional or subject to specified conditions.(3) If a primary information provider or a person that is applying for approval as a primary information provider has applied for, or been granted, a dispensation or modification, it must notify the FCA immediately it
SUP 16.14.3RRP
(1) Subject to (3), a4firm must submit a completed CMAR to the FCA10 within 15 business days of the end of each month.410(2) In this rule month means a calendar month and SUP 16.3.13 R (4) does not apply.(3) 4A firm which changes its 'CASS firm type' and notifies the FCA10 that it is a CASS medium firm or a CASS large firm in accordance with CASS 1A.2.9 R is not required to submit a CMAR in respect of the month in which the change to its 'CASS firm type' takes effect in accordance
COLL 4.7.2RRP
(1) An authorised fund manager must6 draw up a short document in English containing key investor information6 for investors:6(a) in each UCITS scheme which it manages (a key investor information document); and6(b) in each KII-compliant NURS which it manages (a NURS-KII document).6(2) The words "key investor information" must be clearly stated in the key investor information document and NURS-KII document6.(3) Key investor information must include appropriate information about
SUP 6.2.7GRP
If a firm intends to cease carrying on one or more regulated activities permanently, it should give prompt notice to the appropriate regulator8 to comply with Principle 11 (see SUP 15.3.8 G (1)(d)). A firm should consider whether it needs to notify the appropriate regulator8 before applying to vary or cancel its Part 4A permission.8888
SUP 6.4.18GRP
(1) A firm which is applying for cancellation of Part 4A permission and which is not otherwise authorised by, or under, the Act should, at the same time:15(a) comply with:15(i) SUP 10A.14.8R (for a firm that has appointed representatives21);1520(ii) SUP 10C.14.5R (for an SMCR firm20); or15(iii) the corresponding PRA requirements; and15(b) notify the the FCA or PRA20 of persons ceasing to perform controlled functions specified by that regulator.15(2) These forms should give the
MAR 5.7.1DGRP
4A firm should have regard to the urgency and significance of a matter and, if appropriate, should also notify its usual supervisory contact at the FCA by telephone or by other prompt means of communication, before submitting a written application. Oral notifications should be given directly to the firm’s usual supervisory contact at the FCA. An oral notification left with another person or on a voicemail or other automatic messaging service is unlikely to have been given appropriately.
COLL 7.2.1RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager may, with the prior agreement of the depositary, and must without delay, if the depositary so requires, temporarily1 suspend the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of units in an authorised fund (referred to in this chapter as "dealings in units"), where due to exceptional circumstances it is in the interest of all the unitholders in the authorised fund. Where an authorised fund is a regulated money market fund, the authorised fund manager
SUP 10A.13.19RRP
A firm notifying the FCA of its withdrawal of 1an application for approval must notify the FCA using Form B (SUP 10C Annex 4R)3.
CASS 12.2.5RRP
A firm must notify the FCA immediately if it arranges the issue of a letter of credit for a specified client who is the named beneficiary under an LME bond arrangement.
SYSC 8.1.12GRP
As SUP 15.3.8 G explains, a firm should notify the FCA7 when it intends to rely on a third party for the performance of operational functions which are critical or important for the performance of relevant services and activities on a continuous and satisfactory basis.[Note: recital 44 to7 the MiFID Org Regulation7]2
REC 2.6.6UKRP

(1)7

The rules of the [UK RIE] must provide that the [UK RIE] must not exercise its power to suspend or remove from trading on a trading venue operated by it any financial instrument which no longer complies with its rules, where such step would be likely to cause significant damage to the interests of investors or the orderly functioning of the financial markets.

7(2)

Where the [UK RIE] suspends or removes any financial instrument from trading on a trading venue it operates it must also suspend or remove from trading on that venue any derivative that relates to or is referenced to that financial instrument where that is required to support the objectives of the suspension or removal of trading of that financial instrument.

7(3)

Where the [UK RIE] suspends or removes any financial instrument from trading on a trading venue it operates, including any derivative in accordance with sub-paragraph (2), it must make that decision public and notify the FCA.

7(4)

Where following a decision made under sub-paragraph (2) the [UK RIE] lifts a suspension or re-admits any financial instrument to trading on a trading venue it operates, including any derivative suspended or removed from trading in accordance with that sub-paragraph , it must make that decision public and notify the FCA.

[Note: MiFID RTS 18 contains requirements on the suspension and removal of financial instruments from trading]7
MAR 5A.5.8RRP
A firm must have systems and procedures to notify the FCA if:(1) an OTF operated by it is material in terms of the liquidity of the trading of a financial instrument3; and(2) trading is halted in that instrument.[Note: article 48(5) of MiFID]
FIT 1.3.4AGRP
1A firm3 assessing the continuing fitness and propriety of an approved person is required to notify the FCA under section 63(2A) of the Act if it forms the opinion that there are grounds on which the FCA could withdraw its approval (see SUP 10C.14.24R). In discharging its obligation to notify the FCA, a firm3 should take into account how relevant and how important the matter is that comes to its attention which suggests an approved person might not be fit and proper before determining