Related provisions for SUP App 3.3.8
Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32
31Part 1: Application, notification and vetting fees |
||
31(1) Fee payer |
(2) Fee payable (£)37 |
Due date |
(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (zza)52 of this table 26 |
(1) Unless (2),41 (3) or (4)41 applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application. When both (A) and (B) apply, 50% of the tariff payable under (1):34 (2) 50% of the tariff payable under (1) is payable when either (a) or (b) apply: (a) the application is one referred to in paragraph p; or (b) the application is a limited permission case under . (A) the application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6; and34 (B) the application is:34 (i) a straightforward case under paragraph 2(d) or 3(g) of FEES 3 Annex 1; (ii) a moderately complex case under paragraph 2(e) or 3(h) of FEES 3 Annex 1; or (iii) a limited permission case under paragraph 3(i) of FEES 3 Annex 1. (3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the higher of: 80 (i) the fee otherwise payable in (1) or (2); and 80 (ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 80 (4) No fee is payable if the applicant satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(a).41 18034343434 |
On or before the application is made |
(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30 |
As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application. |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
(b) [deleted]56 4 |
||
(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order |
2,000 |
On or before the application is made |
(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition under section 272 of the Act27 of, a collective investment scheme |
FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 227 27 |
On or before the application is made |
(da) Applicants for the authorisation of an AIF as a LTIF58 36 |
FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 2A36 |
On or before the date the application is made36 |
(e) The management company27 of a scheme making a notification under section 264 of the Act 2727 |
FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 327 27 |
On or before the date the application is made28 |
28(ea) (i) A non-UK AIFM56 (with a branch in the UK) notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 5956 of the AIFMD UK regulation (ii) An AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation |
FEES 3 Annex 2 R, part 4 |
On or before the date the notification is made |
28(eb) An applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM which the FCA is required to maintain under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation |
£750 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body. |
10,000 |
30 days after the order is granted |
(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body56 under section 287 of the Act 17781717 |
FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1 |
On or before the date the application is made26 |
(ga) [deleted]52 26353535 |
||
(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE78 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act 7878 |
FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(i) [deleted]35 35 |
35 | 35 |
(j) [deleted]38 |
||
(k) [deleted]35 35 |
35 | 35 |
(l) [deleted]38 |
72 | |
(m) [deleted]38 |
72 | |
(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges |
50,000 |
On or before the date the application is made |
2(o) In relation to a BIPRU firm, a firm applying to the FCA29 for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches.56 1122952978295782929295557829295782929297829295 |
(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5 (2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application (b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1 5251255578578552 |
Where the firm has made an application directly to the FCA29, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FCA29 notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested assistance.229 27829782978 |
29(oa) Either: (i) a firm applying to the 37FCA for permission to use one of the internal approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6A (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the 37FCA as consolidating supervisor under the UK CRR5856) any firm making such an application; or (ii) in the case of an application to the consolidating supervisor other than the 37FCA for the use of the IRB approach and the consolidating supervisor requesting the 37FCA's assistance in accordance with the UK CRR58, any firm to which the 37FCA would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach. 3737373737 |
(1) Unless (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6A. (2) (a) Unless (b) applies a firm submitting a second application for the permission or guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6A, but only in respect of that second application. (b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements. (c) No fee is payable where the consolidating supervisor has requested the assistance described in paragraph (oa)(ii) of column 1. 37 |
Where the firm has made an application directly to the 37FCA , on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the 37FCA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's consolidating supervisor has requested assistance. 3737 |
(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (zza)52 of this table 26 |
(1) Unless (2), (2A), (3), (3A), (3B), (3C), (3D) or 3(E)44 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 which apply to that application. (2) Subject to (2A) below, if the firm's application includes an application for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 that would be payable under (1) above or, if higher, 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 that would be payable in relation to the new credit-related regulated activity30.37 (2A) If an applicant which already has a Part 4A permission to carry on a credit-related regulated activity exclusively applies for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, that is specified in Part 3 of FEES 3 Annex 1R37 in the straightforward category (or if it exclusively applies for a number of such permissions), the fee is £25030.37 (3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11 (3A) If the applicant had a limited permission prior to the application to vary its Part 4A permission, 100% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 which apply to that application30.37 (3B) If the applicant has a limited permission and its application exclusively relates to another limited permission, the fee is 030 (3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee is the highest of the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR and the amount otherwise payable in (1), (2), (2A), (3), (3A) or (3B), or (4).80 (3D) No fee is payable if the applicant satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(a).41 (4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250 for firms which are not, or are not seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person, and 125 for firms which are, or are seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person,78 unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part 4A permission in which case no fee is payable.1 (3E) The fee is 12,500 if the firm applying:44 (i) is an MTF operator and the proposed new business of the firm is to be an OTF operator; or44 (ii) is an OTF operator and the proposed new business of the firm is to be an MTF operator.44 308041308080178783778378080371373030233737371137 |
On or before the date the application is made |
30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”) |
As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application. |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
| 77137913797722227 | 333 | |
| 66 | 566 | |
5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor. Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly. |
Either (1) or (2) as set out below: (1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 20,00059; or (2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 12,500.59 777737377777377737 |
On or before any application is made for the appointment of a person as an independent expert. 37 |
| 20 | ||
(u) [deleted]34 34 |
34 | 34 |
(v) [deleted]38 2222 |
||
[deleted]35 35 |
35 | 35 |
(x)[deleted]38 |
||
8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations |
The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.47 |
On or before the date the application is made. |
47(ya) An applicant for registration as an account information service provider under regulation 17 of the Payment Services Regulations. |
47FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (2)(i). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R. |
47On or before the date the application is made. |
(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 16 47 of the Payment Services Regulations applies |
The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 13 47 of the Payment Services Regulations |
FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 5 47 of the Payment Services Regulations. |
(1) If50 prior to the variation the authorised payment institution is authorised to carry on any one or more of the payment services falling50 within paragraph (f), 47 (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and the authorised payment institution is applying to extend its authorisation to include any one or more of the payment services in (a) to (e)50, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application. (2) Where the authorised payment institution50 already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (f);50 the fee payable is £47250 irrespective of the number of agents it has. 50(3) Where the authorised payment institution already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (f) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or both of the services in (g) and (h) the fee payable is £750, irrespective of the number of agents it has. (4)50 In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable. 4747474747 |
On or before the date the application is made. |
(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 13 47 of the Payment Services Regulations |
(1)The 47 fee is 50% of the tariff 47set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). 47 (2) 47 In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable. 4747 |
On or before the date the application is made. |
(zd) 47 |
47 | [deleted]47 |
(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12 12 |
Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 . |
|
(zf) [deleted]78 78 |
78 | 91678 |
16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations. |
The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations. |
The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies. |
The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations. |
50(1) Subject to (2) below, the fee is 50% of the tariff for an electronic money institution authorisation application set out in FEES 3 Annex 10R. 50(2) Where the authorised electronic money institution applies to vary its permission so as to be able to provide one or both of the payment services in paragraphs (g) and (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations the fee payable is £750. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations. |
The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body. |
2,500 |
On or before the date the application is made.18 |
18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond. |
(1) Unless (2) or (3)41 applies, 45,000. (2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000. (3) No fee is payable if the issuer satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(b).41 |
On or before the date the application is made. |
18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D. |
(1) Unless (2) applies 6,500.41 (2) No fee is payable if the issuer satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(c).41 |
On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.21 |
21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either: (i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or (ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1). |
An amount equal to: (1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or (2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R. |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
78(zp) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2. 37 |
Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA37 pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act. 37 |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
78(zq) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act . 37 |
Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act. 3737 |
|
30(zs) Applicant for FCA permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) and/or money paid or property transferred under and agreement to be retained under 3128A(3)(b) of the Act |
(1) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act and for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act, the fee is 31£3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.30 (2) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31 (3) If the application is for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31 Where there are a number of agreements of the same type, only one fee is payable in respect of those agreements. A number of agreements are of the same type when those agreements are entered into on the same terms and conditions. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 80 |
Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 80 (1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 80 (2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 80 |
On or before the application is made.80 |
(zu)40 Any person to which the Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee applies under FEES 3 Annex 10B. 39 |
Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 10B. |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
43(zv) Any firm that meets the test in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1)R(1) (PPI campaign fees). |
The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1) R(2). |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
45(zw) An applicant for authorisation under regulation 7 of the DRS Regulations, or the operator of a trading venue seeking verification of their compliance with Title V of MiFID49 under regulation 8 of the DRS Regulations or an applicant for variation of an authorisation under regulation 12 of the DRS Regulations. |
Either (1), (2), or (3) applies as set out below: (1) If the applicant is applying for permission to operate one data reporting service, 5,000. (2) If the applicant is applying for permission to operate more than one data reporting services, 50% of the fee at (1) for each additional service plus the fee at (1). (3) If the applicant is applying for variation of an authorisation, 50% of the fee at (1) for each additional service. |
On the date the application is made. |
46(zx) (1) Unless (2) applies any person applying to connect to the market data processor system to make transaction reports directly to the FCA under MiFIR. (2) If a person has previously applied as stated in (zx)(1) above and has been connected then no further fee is payable for any further such applications. |
1) Unless (2) applies, 20,000. (2) Any incoming data reporting services provider will pay 80% of the fee at (1). |
On the date the application is made |
46(zy) (1) Subject to (2) and (3) below, any person applying to connect to the market data processor system to provide markets data (other than transaction reports) under MAR 1056. (2) If a person has previously applied as stated in (zy)(1) above and has been connected then no further fee is payable for any further such applications in relation to reporting the same data. (3) If a person has previously applied as stated in (zy)(1) above and makes a further application in relation to the provision of different data then a separate fee is payable for such application. 49 |
On the date the application is made. |
|
51(zz) an applicant for registration under regulation 14 of the Risk Transformation Regulations as a protected cell company. |
500 |
On or before the date the application is made. |
52(zza) An application for authorisation as a regulated benchmark administrator. |
The highest of the applicable tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R. Where an applicant intends to administer benchmarks falling into different complexity groupings, it will pay one fee only, for the highest category applied for. If, once authorised, a regulated benchmark administrator notifies the FCA of its intention to administer other/additional benchmarks no further application fee is payable (even if the other/additional benchmark falls into a higher complexity category). |
On the date the application is made. |
52(zzb) An application for recognition of an administrator in accordance with article 32 of the benchmarks regulation. |
5,000 |
On the date the application is made. |
52(zzc) An application for endorsement of a benchmark or family of benchmarks in accordance with article 33 of the benchmarks regulation. |
1,500 |
On the date the application is made. |
54(zzd) applications for claims management companies |
(1) £1,200 for claims management companies with annual turnover of up to and including £1,000,000; and (2) £10,000 for claims management companies with annual turnover of over £1,000,000. Firms which already have Part 4A permissions and are applying to vary their permissions will receive a 50% reduction in the relevant fee. |
On the date the application is made. |
55(zze) An application for authorisation as a third party verifier |
(1) Unless (2) applies, 1,500. (2) Firms which already have Part 4A permissions will not receive a 50% reduction in the authorisation fee. |
On the date the application is made. |
61(zzf) UK-based applicants for registration as a trade repository; a securitisation repository, or a third country applicant seeking recognition as a trade repository. |
5,000 Applicants for registration as a trade repository who already hold registration as a securitisation repository, or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee. Applicants for registration as a trade repository to carry on activity for the purposes of UK SFTR who already hold registration as a trade repository under EMIR or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee. |
On the date the application is made. |
61(zzg) UK-based applicants for registration as a credit rating agency or a third country applicant seeking certification as a credit rating agency. |
The fee set out in FEES 3 Annex 13R. |
On the date the application is made. |
(1) Fee payer |
(2) Fee payable |
(3) Due date |
(a) (i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R. (ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2). |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
|
On or before the date the application is made. |
||
38(c) For the purposes of48 the listing rules:48 (i)48 an issuer requesting approval of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction; or48 48(ii) an issuer or person applying for eligibility for listing of its securities. |
On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA. |
|
38(d) Under the Prospectus Rules or the Prospectus Regulation60, an issuer or a person requesting approval or review of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction. |
On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA. |
|
38(e) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a super transaction. |
On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA. |
|
38(f) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a significant transaction. |
On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA. |
|
38(g) A person who requests the FCA’s approval of a document that includes a mineral expert’s report and who is a fee payer under one or more of the categories (c), (d), (e), and (f) above must additionally pay a fee under this category. |
On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA. |
|
38(h) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
|
[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19
Table: specific risk position risk adjustments
This table belongs to BIPRU 7.2.43R.
Issuer |
Residual maturity |
|
Debt securities issued or guaranteed by central governments, issued by central banks, international organisations, multilateral development banks or United Kingdom5 regional governments or local authorities which would qualify for credit quality step 1 or which would receive a 0% risk weight under the standardised approach to credit risk. |
Any |
0% |
(A) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by central governments, issued by central banks, international organisations, multilateral development banks or United Kingdom5 regional governments or local authorities which would qualify for credit quality step 2 or 3 under the standardised approach to credit risk. (B) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by institutions which would qualify for credit quality step 1 or 2 under the standardised approach to credit risk. (C) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by institution which would qualify for credit quality step 3 under BIPRU 3.4.34 R (Exposures to institutions: Credit assessment based method) or which would do so if it had an original effective maturity of three months or less. (D) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by corporates which would qualify for credit quality step 1, 2 or 32 under the standardised approach to credit risk. (E) Other qualifying debt securities (see BIPRU 7.2.49R) 2 |
Zero to six months |
0.25% |
over 6 and up to and including 24 months |
1% |
|
Over 24 months |
1.6% |
|
(A) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by central governments, issued by central banks, international organisations, multilateral development banks or United Kingdom5 regional governments or local authorities or institutions which would qualify for credit quality step 4 or 5 under the standardised approach to credit risk. (B) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by corporates which would qualify for credit quality step 4 under the standardised approach to credit risk. (C) Exposures for which a credit assessment by a nominated ECAI is not available. 2 |
Any |
8% |
(A) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by central governments, issued by central banks, international organisations, multilateral development banks or United Kingdom5 regional governments or local authorities or institution which would qualify for credit quality step 6 under the standardised approach to credit risk. (B) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by corporate which would qualify for credit quality step 5 or 6 under the standardised approach to credit risk. (C) An instrument that shows a particular risk because of the insufficient solvency of the issuer of liquidity. This paragraph applies even if the instrument would otherwise qualify for a lower position risk adjustment under this table. |
Any |
12% |
Note: The question of what a corporate is and of what category a debt security falls into must be decided under the rules relating to the standardised approach to credit risk. |
||
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraphs 3 – 3H4
Paragraph 3 – Systems and controls4 |
|||
(1) |
The [UK RIE] must ensure that the systems and controls, including procedures and arrangements,4 used in the performance of its functions and the functions of the trading venues it operates are adequate, effective4 and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business. |
||
(2) |
Sub-paragraph (1) applies in particular to systems and controls concerning - |
||
(a) |
the transmission of information; |
||
(b) |
the assessment, mitigation and management of risks to the performance of the [UK RIE'srelevant functions]; |
||
(c) |
the effecting and monitoring of transactions on the [UK RIE]; |
||
(ca) |
the technical operation of the [UK RIE], including contingency arrangements for disruption to its facilities; |
||
(d) |
the operation of the arrangements mentioned in paragraph 4(2)(d); and |
||
(e) |
(where relevant) the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of the [UK RIE's] facilities. |
||
4(f) |
the resilience of its trading systems; |
||
4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the resilience of trading systems operated by trading venues that enable algorithmic trading] |
|||
4(g) |
the ability to have sufficient capacity to deal with peak order and message volumes; |
||
4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the adequacy of capacity of trading systems operated by trading venues that enable algorithmic trading] |
|||
4(h) |
the ability to ensure orderly trading under conditions of severe market stress; |
||
4(i) |
the effectiveness of business continuity arrangements to ensure the continuity of the [UK RIE’s] services if there is any failure of its trading systems including the testing of the [UK RIE’s] systems and controls; |
||
4(j) |
the ability to reject orders that exceed predetermined volume or price thresholds or which are clearly erroneous; |
||
4(k) |
the ability to ensure algorithmic trading systems cannot create or contribute to disorderly trading conditions on trading venues operated by the [UK RIE]; |
||
4(l) |
the ability to ensure disorderly trading conditions which arise from the use of algorithmic trading systems, including systems to limit the ratio of unexecuted orders to transactions that may be entered into the [UK RIE’s] trading system by a member or participant are capable of being managed; |
||
[Note:MiFID RTS 9 contains requirements on the ratio of unexecuted orders to transactions to be taken into account by a trading venue that operates electronic continuous auction order book, quote-driven or hybrid trading systems] |
|||
4(m) |
the ability to ensure the flow of orders is able to be slowed down if there is a risk of system capacity being reached; |
||
4(n) |
the ability to limit and enforce the minimum tick size which may be executed on its trading venues; and |
||
4(o) |
the requirement for members and participants to carry out appropriate testing of algorithms. |
||
4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the appropriate testing of algorithms to ensure that trading systems, when they enable algorithmic trading, cannot create or contribute to disorderly trading conditions] |
|||
4(3) |
For the purposes of sub-paragraph 2(c), the [UK RIE] must - |
||
4(a) |
establish and maintain effective arrangements and procedures including the necessary resource for the regular monitoring of the compliance by members or participants with its rules; and |
||
4(b) |
monitor orders sent including cancellations and the transactions undertaken by its members or participants under its systems in order to identify infringements of those rules, disorderly trading conditions or conduct that may indicate behavior that is prohibited under the market abuse regulation or system disruptions in relation to a financial instrument. |
||
4(4) |
For the purpose of sub-paragraph (2)(o) the [UK RIE] must provide environments to facilitate such testing. |
||
4(5) |
The [UK RIE] must be adequately equipped to manage the risks to which it is exposed, to implement appropriate arrangements and systems to identify all significant risks to its operation, and to put in place effective measures to mitigate those risks. |
||
4Paragraph 3A – Market making arrangements |
|||
4(1) |
The [UK RIE] must - |
||
4(a) |
have written agreements with all investment firms pursuing a market making strategy on trading venues operated by it (“market making agreements”); |
||
4(b) |
have schemes, appropriate to the nature and scale of a trading venue, to ensure that a sufficient number of investment firms enter into such agreements which require them to post firm quotes at competitive prices with the result of providing liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis; |
||
4(c) |
monitor and enforce compliance with the market making agreements; |
||
4(d) |
inform the FCA of the content of its market making agreements; and |
||
4(e) |
provide the FCA with any information it requests which is necessary for the FCA to satisfy itself that the market making agreements comply with paragraphs (c) and (d) of this sub-paragraph and sub-paragraph 2. |
||
4(2) |
A market making agreement must specify- |
||
4(a) |
the obligations of the investment firm in relation to the provision of liquidity; |
||
4(b) |
where applicable, any obligations arising from the participation in a scheme mentioned in sub-paragraph (1)(b); |
||
4(c) |
any incentives in terms of rebates or otherwise offered by the [UK RIE] to the investment firm in order for it to provide liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis; and |
||
4(d) |
where applicable, any other rights accruing to the investment firm as a result of participation in the scheme referred to in sub-paragraph (1)(b). |
||
4(3) |
For the purposes of this paragraph, an investment firm pursues a market making strategy if - |
||
4(a) |
the firm is a member or participant of one or more trading venues; |
||
4(b) |
the firm’s strategy, when dealing on own account, involves posting firm, simultaneous two-way quotes of comparable size at competitive prices relating to one or more financial instruments on a single trading venue, across different trading venues; and |
||
4(c) |
the result is providing liquidity on a regular and frequent basis to the overall market. |
||
4Paragraph 3B – Halting trading |
|||
4(1) |
The [UK RIE] must be able to - |
||
4(a) |
temporarily halt or constrain trading on any trading venue operated by it if there is a significant price movement in a financial instrument on such a trading venue or a related trading venue during a short period; and |
||
4(b) |
in exceptional cases be able to cancel, vary, or correct any transaction. |
||
4(2) |
For the purposes of sub-paragraph (1), the [UK RIE] must ensure that the parameters for halting trading are appropriately calibrated in a way which takes into account - |
||
4(a) |
the liquidity of different asset classes and subclasses; |
||
4(b) |
the nature of the trading venue market model; and |
||
4(c) |
the types of users, |
||
4to ensure the parameters are sufficient to avoid significant disruptions to the orderliness of trading. |
|||
4(3) |
The [UK RIE] must report the parameters mentioned in sub-paragraph (2) and any material changes to those parameters to the FCA in a format to be specified by the FCA. |
||
4(4) |
If a trading venue operated by the [UK RIE] is material in terms of liquidity of the trading of a financial instrument and it halts trading in the United Kingdom6 in that instrument it must have systems and procedures in place to ensure that it notifies the FCA. |
||
4[Note:MiFID RTS 12 contains requirements for when a regulated market is material in terms of liquidity in a financial instrument for purposes of trading halt notifications] |
|||
4Paragraph 3C – Direct electronic access |
|||
4Where the [UK RIE] permits direct electronic access to a trading venue it operates, it must - |
|||
4(1) |
(a) |
ensure that a member of, or participant in that trading venue is only permitted to provide direct electronic access to the venue if the member or participant - |
|
4(i) |
an investment firm which has permission under Part 4A of the Act to carry on a regulated activity which is any of the investment services or activities;6 |
||
4(ii) |
a qualifying credit institution that has Part 4A permission to carry on the regulated activity of accepting deposits;6 |
||
4(iii) |
is a person who falls within regulation 30(1A) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Markets in Financial Instruments) Regulations 2017 and has permission under Part 4A of the Act to carry on a regulated activity which is any of the investment services or activities;6 |
||
4(iv) |
is a third country firm providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under Article 46.1 (general provisions) 6of the markets in financial instruments regulation; |
||
4(v) |
is a third country firm and the provision of the direct electronic access by that firm is subject to the exclusion in Article 72 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001; or |
||
4(vi) |
is a third country firm which does not come within paragraph (iv) or (v) and is otherwise permitted to provide the direct electronic access under the Act; |
||
4(b) |
ensure that appropriate criteria are set and applied for the suitability of persons to whom direct electronic access services may be provided; |
||
4(c) |
ensure that a member of, or participant in, the trading venue retains responsibility for adherence to the requirements of any provisions of the law of the United Kingdom relied on by the United Kingdom before IP completion day to implement6 the markets in financial instruments directive in respect of orders and trades executed using the direct electronic access service, as those provisions have effect on IP completion day, in the case of rules made by the FCA under the Act, and as amended from time to time, in all other cases6; |
||
4(d) |
set appropriate standards regarding risk controls and thresholds on trading through direct electronic access; |
||
4(e) |
be able to distinguish and if necessary stop orders or trading on that trading venue by a person using direct electronic access separately from - |
||
4(i) |
other orders; or |
||
4(ii) |
trading by the member or participant providing the direct electronic access; and |
||
4(f) |
have arrangements in place to suspend or terminate the provision to a client of direct electronic access to that trading venue by a member of, or participant in, the trading venue in the case of non-compliance with this paragraph. |
||
4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on direct electronic access permitted through a trading venue’s systems] |
|||
4Paragraph 3D – Co-location services |
|||
4(1) |
The [UK RIE’s] rules on colocation services must be transparent, fair and nondiscriminatory. |
||
4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements to ensure co-location services are transparent, fair and non-discriminatory] |
|||
4Paragraph 3E – Fee structures |
|||
4(1) |
The [UK RIE’s] fee structure, for all fees it charges including execution fees and ancillary fees and rebates it grants, must - |
||
4(a) |
be transparent, fair and non-discriminatory; |
||
4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements to ensure fee structures are transparent, fair and non-discriminatory] |
|||
4(b) |
not create incentives to place, modify or cancel orders, or execute transactions, in a way which contributes to disorderly trading conditions or market abuse; and |
||
4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements concerning prohibited fee structures] |
|||
4(c) |
impose market making obligations in individual shares or suitable baskets of shares for any rebates that are granted. |
||
4(2) |
Nothing in sub-paragraph (1) prevents the [UK RIE] from - |
||
4(a) |
adjusting its fees for cancelled orders according to the length of time for which the order was maintained; |
||
4(b) |
calibrating its fees to each financial instrument to which they apply; |
||
4(c) |
imposing a higher fee - |
||
4(i) |
for placing an order which is cancelled than an order which is executed; |
||
4(ii) |
on participants placing a high ratio of cancelled orders to executed orders; or |
||
4(iii) |
on a person operating a high-frequency algorithmic trading technique, |
||
4in order to reflect the additional burden on system capacity. |
|||
4Paragraph 3F – Algorithmic trading |
|||
4(1) |
The [UK RIE] must require members of and participants in trading venues operated by it to flag orders generated by algorithmic trading in order for it to be able to identify the - |
||
4(a) |
the different algorithms used for the creation of orders; and |
||
4(b) |
the persons initiating those orders. |
||
4Paragraph 3G – Tick size regimes |
|||
4(1) |
Subject to paragraph 1A, the8 [UK RIE] must adopt tick size regimes in respect of trading venues operated by it in - |
||
4(a) |
shares, depositary receipts, exchange-traded funds, certificates and other similar financial instruments traded on each trading venue; and |
||
4[Note:MiFID RTS 11 contains requirements on the tick size regime for shares, depositary receipts, exchange traded funds and certificates5] |
|||
4(b) |
any financial instrument for which technical standards are adopted by FCA under paragraphs 24 and 25 of Part 2 of Schedule 3 to6 the markets in financial instruments regulation8 which is traded on that trading venue. |
||
[Note:MiFID RTS 11] |
|||
8(1A) |
The application of tick sizes shall not prevent the [UK RIE] from matching orders that are large in scale (as determined in accordance with Article 4 of the markets in financial instruments regulation) at the mid-point within the current bid and offer prices. |
||
[Note:MiFID RTS 11] |
|||
4 (2) |
The tick size regime must - |
||
4(a) |
be calibrated to reflect the liquidity profile of the financial instrument in different markets and the average bid-ask spread taking into account desirability of enabling reasonably stable prices without unduly constraining further narrowing of spreads; and |
||
4(b) |
adapt the tick size for each financial instrument appropriately. |
||
4(3) |
The tick size regime must comply with Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/588 of 14 July 2016 supplementing Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards on the tick size regime for shares, depositary receipts and exchange-traded funds6. |
||
4[Note:MiFID RTS 11] |
|||
4Paragraph 3H – Syncronisation of business clocks |
|||
4(1) |
The [UK RIE] must synchronise the business clocks it uses to record the date and time of any reportable event in accordance with Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/574 of 7 June 2016 supplementing Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards for the level of accuracy of business clocks6. |
||
4[Note:MiFID RTS 25] |
|||