Related provisions for GEN 1.1.2
101 - 120 of 601 items.
The guidance in COND 2 explains each FCA1threshold condition in Schedule 6 (threshold conditions) to the Act and indicates1 how the FCA1 will interpret it in practice. This guidance is not, however, exhaustive and is written in very general terms. A firm will need to have regard to the obligation placed upon the FCA1 under section 55B (The threshold conditions) of the Act; that is, the FCA1 must ensure that the firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the FCA1threshold conditions
1When assessing the FCAthreshold conditions, the FCA may have regard to any person appearing to be, or likely to be, in a relevant relationship with the firm, in accordance with section 55R of the Act (Persons connected with an applicant). For example, a firm'scontrollers, its directors or partners, other persons with close links to the firm (see COND 2.3), and other persons that exert influence on the firm which might pose a risk to the firm's satisfaction of the FCAthreshold
(1) For ease of reference, the FCA1threshold conditions in or under Schedule 6 to the Act have been quoted in full in COND 2. (1A) 1Paragraphs 2A and 3A of Schedule 6 of the Act have not been quoted. These set out the application of the FCAthreshold conditions to firms which do not carry on, or are not seeking to carry on, a PRAregulated activity and firms which carry on, or are seeking to carry on, a PRAregulated activity respectively. This application is summarised in COND
1Paragraph 1A of Schedule 6 to the Act(1) "assets" includes contingent assets;"consolidated supervision" has the same meaning as in section 3M(a);"consumer" has the meaning given by section 425A(b);"financial crime" is to be read with section 1H(3)(c);"functions", in relation to either the FCA or the PRA, means the functions conferred on that regulator by or under this Act;"liabilities" includes contingent liabilities; "relevant directives" has the same meaning as in section 3M;
Sections 292(3) and 292(4) state:
2Section 292(3) |
|
The requirements are that- |
|
(a) |
investors are afforded protection equivalent to that which they would be afforded if the body concerned were required to comply with -4 3 |
4(i) recognition requirements, other than any such requirements which are expressed in regulations under section 286 not to apply for the purposes of this paragraph; and |
|
4(ii) requirements contained in any directly applicable Community regulation made under the markets in financial instruments directive or markets in financial instruments regulation; |
|
(b) |
there are adequate procedures for dealing with a person who is unable, or likely to become unable, to meet his obligations in respect of one or more market contracts connected with the [ROIE] 3 |
(c) |
the applicant is able and willing to co-operate with the[FCA]3by the sharing of information and in other ways; and 3 |
(d) |
adequate arrangements exist for co-operation between the[FCA]3and those responsible for the supervision of the applicant in the country or territory in which the applicant's head office is situated. 3 |
Section 292(4) |
|
In considering whether it is satisfied as to the requirements mentioned in subsections (3)(a) and (b), the[FCA]3is to have regard to- 3 |
|
(a) |
the relevant law and practice of the country or territory in which the applicant's head office is situated; |
(b) |
the rules and practices of the applicant. |
Regulations 49 and 50 place restrictions on an AIFMmarketing an AIF. These regulations provide that the following types of AIFM may not market the following types of an AIF in the UK unless the conditions summarised below are met.(1) The conditions that need to be met vary depending on whether the AIF falls within regulation 57(1) or not. An AIF falls within this regulation if it is: (a) a feeder AIF that is a UK AIF, a Gibraltar AIF or an EEA AIF, the master AIF of which is
(1) The terms 'offering' or 'placement' are not defined in the AIFMD UK regulation but, in our view, an offering or placement takes place for the purposes of the AIFMD UK regulation when a person seeks to raise capital by making a unit of share of anAIF available for purchase by a potential investor. This includes situations which constitute a contractual offer that can be accepted by a potential investor in order to make the investment and form a binding contract, and situations
An AIFM or an investment firm that acts in contravention of the marketing restrictions in regulations 49 to 51, or an AIFM that acts in contravention of a provision of the SEF regulation or the RVECA regulation3, is deemed to have been carrying out "unlawful marketing" under regulations 52 and 53. The consequences of carrying out unlawful marketing vary, depending on whether the AIFM or investment firm concerned is an authorised person or an unauthorised person.(1) If the AIFM
(1) Regulation 46 (Application of the financial promotion and scheme promotion restrictions) provides that where a person may market an AIF under regulation 49, 50 or 51:(a) to the extent that such marketing falls within section 21(1) (restrictions on financial promotion) or 238(1) (restrictions on promotion) of the Act, the person may market the AIF to a retail client only if the person does so without breaching the restriction in that section; and(b) to the extent that any activity
(1) The UK provisions which implemented the prospectus directive were not amended by the UK provisions which implemented the2AIFMD and closed-ended AIFs that are making an offer of securities to the public as defined in the prospectus directive need to comply with the requirements under the UK provisions which implemented2 both Directives.(2) However, where the AIF is required to publish a prospectus under section 85 of the Act2, only information referred to in FUND 3.2.2 R and
Under section 33(2) of the Act (Withdrawal of authorisation), if the appropriate regulator cancels a firm'sPart 4A permission,1 and as a result there is no regulated activity for which the firm has permission, the regulator authorising that firm1 is required to give a direction withdrawing the firm's status as an authorised person.111
1If the FCA concludes that it should grant an FCA-authorised person's application for cancellation of permission and end its authorisation, the FCA will:(1) cancel the firm'sPart 4A permission under section 55H(3) of the Act;(2) withdraw the firm'sauthorised status under section 33(2) of the Act by giving the firm a direction in writing; and(3) update the firm's entry in the Financial Services Register to show it has ceased to be authorised.
(1) In particular, this section sets out the FCA’s policies about varying conditional approvals at the request of a firm, as required by section 63ZD of the Act (Statement of policy relating to conditional approval and variation). (2) This section does not deal with the FCA’s policies on varying a condition on its own initiative. DEPP 8 deals with that. However this section gives a short description of the FCA’s powers to impose such variations.2
Under section 61(5) of the Act (Determination of applications), as applied by section 63ZA(8) of the Act (Variation of senior manager’s approval at request of 2authorised person), the firm may withdraw an application only if it also has the consent of:(1) the approved person; and(2) the person by whom the approved person is employed if this is not the firm making the application.
Under section 63ZB of the Act (Variation of senior manager's approval on initiative of regulator), the FCA may vary an approval given by the FCA or the PRA for the performance of a designated senior management function if the FCA considers that it is desirable to do so to advance one or more of its operational objectives.
An ROIE1 is required to notify the FCA1 of certain events and give information to it on a regular basis and when certain specified events occur. Section 295 of the Act (Notification: overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses) requires each ROIE1 to provide the FCA1 with a report (at least once a year) which contains:111(1) a statement as to whether any events have occurred which are likely to affect the FCA's assessment of whether it is satisfied that the ROIE
The period covered by a report submitted under section 295(1) of the Act starts on the day after the period covered by its last report or, if there is no such report, after the making of the recognition order recognising theROIE1 as such, and ends on the date specified in the report or, if no date is specified, on the date of the report. 1
1Work done or commissioned by the firm does not fetter the FCA's ability to use its statutory powers, for example to require a skilled person’s report under section 166 of the Act or to carry out a formal enforcement investigation; nor can a report commissioned by the firm be a substitute for formal regulatory action where this is needed or appropriate. But even if formal action is needed, it may be that a report could be used to help the FCA decide on the appropriate action to
1The FCA is not able to require the production of “protected items”, as defined in the Act, but it is not uncommon for there to be disagreement with firms about the scope of this protection. Arguments about whether certain documents attract privilege tend to be time- consuming and delay the progress of an investigation. If a firm decides to give a report to the FCA, then the FCA considers that the greatest mutual benefit is most likely to flow from disclosure of the report itself
1This does not mean that information provided to the FCA is unprotected. The FCA is subject to strict statutory restrictions on the disclosure of confidential information (as defined in section 348 of the Act), breach of which is a criminal offence (under section 352 of the Act). Reports and underlying materials provided voluntarily to the FCA by a firm, whether covered by legal privilege or not, are confidential for these purposes and benefit from the statutory protections.
1Even in circumstances where disclosure of information would be permitted under the “gateways” set out in the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Disclosure of Confidential Information) Regulations, the FCA will consider carefully whether it would be appropriate to disclose a report provided voluntarily by a firm. The FCA appreciates that firms feel strongly about the importance of maintaining confidentiality, and that firms are more likely to volunteer information to the
A decision to: (1) revoke a recognition order under section 297 of the Act (Revoking recognition)6; or3(2) make a direction under section 296 (FCA's4powers to give directions)6; or43(3) refuse to make a recognition order under section 290 (Recognition orders) or 290A (Refusal of recognition on ground of excessive regulatory provision)6;23is a serious one and section 298 of the Act (Directions and revocation: procedure) sets6 out procedures 4(see REC 4.8.9 G) which the FCA will
In considering whether it would be appropriate to exercise the powers under section 296 or section 297 of the Act6, the FCA4 will have regard to all relevant information and factors including:34(1) its guidance to recognised bodies;(2) the results of its routine supervision of the body concerned;(3) the extent to which the failure or likely failure to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements31may affect the statutory objectives.
Before exercising its powers under section 296 or section 297 of the Act6, the FCA4 will usually discuss its intention, and the basis for this, with the members of the management body5 or other appropriate representatives of the recognised body. It will usually discuss its intention not to make a recognition order with appropriate representatives of the applicant.34
1Under
section 312B of the Act, the FCA5 may
prohibit an EEA market operator from
making or, as the case may be, continuing arrangements in the United Kingdom, to facilitate access to,
or use of, a regulated market,6multilateral trading facility or organised trading facility6 operated by the operator if:5(1) the FCA5 has clear and demonstrable grounds for believing that the operator
has contravened a relevant requirement;6 and5(2) the FCA5 has first complied with sections 312B(3)
3For supervisory notices (as defined in section 395(13)) which have taken effect, decision notices and final notices, section 391 of the Act requires the FCA to publish, in such manner as it considers appropriate, such information about the matter to which the notice relates as it considers appropriate. Section 391 prevents the FCA from publishing warning notices, but the FCA may publish such information about the matter to which a warning notice falling within section 391(1ZB)
3The FCA may publish information about warning notices which fall within section 391(1ZB) of the Act. These are essentially disciplinary warning notices, for example, where the FCA is proposing to censure, fine, or impose a suspension, restriction, condition or limitation on1 a firm or individual. The power to publish information does not apply, for example, to warning notices which only propose to prohibit an individual, withdraw the approval of an individual or cancel the permission
3The FCA will take the following initial steps in considering whether it is appropriate to exercise this power: (1) It will consider whether it is appropriate to publish details of the warning notice in order to enable consumers, firms and market users to understand the nature of the FCA’s concerns. The FCA will consider the circumstances of each case but expects normally to consider it appropriate to publish these details. (2) Where the FCA considers it is appropriate to publish
3However, as required by the Act (see paragraph 6.2.1 above), the FCA will not publish information if publication of it would, in its opinion, be unfair to the person in respect of whom the action is taken or prejudicial to the interests of consumers, or detrimental to the stability of the UK financial system. It may make that decision where, for example, publication could damage market confidence or undermine market integrity in a way that could be damaging to the interests of
Section 213(3)(b) of the Act requires the appropriate regulator to make rules to enable the FSCS to impose levies on authorised persons, and on recognised investment exchanges that are operating a multilateral trading facility or operating an organised trading facility,13 in order to meet its expenses. These expenses include in particular expenses incurred, or expected to be incurred, in paying compensation, borrowing or insuring risks.
Section 224F of the Act enables the appropriate regulator to make rules to enable the FSCS to impose levies on authorised persons (or any class of authorised persons) in order to meet its management expenses incurred if, under Part 15A of the Act, it is required by HM Treasury to act in relation to relevant schemes. But those rules must provide that the FSCS can impose a levy only if the FSCS has tried its best to obtain reimbursement of those expenses from the manager of the
The9 provisions on the allocation of levies to classes9122 meet9 a requirement of section 213(5) of the Act that the FCA12, in making rules to enable the FSCS to impose levies, must take account of the desirability of ensuring that the amount of the levies imposed on a particular class of authorised person reflects, so far as practicable, the amount of claims made, or likely to be made, in respect of that class of person.22229999
Section 223 of the Act (Management expenses) prevents the FSCS from recovering, through a levy, any management expenses attributable to a particular period in excess of the limit set in COMP as applicable to that period. 'Management expenses' are defined in section 223(3) to mean expenses incurred or expected to be incurred by the FSCS in connection with its functions under the Act, except:(1) expenses incurred in paying compensation;5(2) expenses incurred as a result of the FSCS
The FCA9 is concerned to ensure that every actuary appointed by a firm under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 6,9 has the necessary skill and experience to provide the firm with appropriate actuarial advice from a conduct perspective9. SUP 4.3.9 R to SUP 4.3.10 G set out the FCA’s9 rules and guidance aimed at achieving this.11
Before a firm applies for approval of the person it proposes to appoint as an actuary under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 69, it must take reasonable steps to ensure that the actuary:11(1) has the required skill and experience to perform his functions under the regulatory system; and(2) is a Fellow of the Institute of Actuaries or of the Faculty of Actuaries.
A firm must not appoint under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act or for the purposes of9 rule 6.1 of the PRA9 Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business,9 an actuary who is disqualified by the FCA10 under section 345 of the Act (Disciplinary measures: FCA) or the PRA under section 345A of the Act (Disciplinary measures: PRA10) from acting as an actuary either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm. 1181010
If it appears to the FCA9 that an actuary1 has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it has9 the power to and10 may disqualify him under section 3459 of the Act. A list of actuaries who are disqualified may be found on the FCA10 website (http://www.fca.org.uk10).101011055110101010
1A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that an actuary who is to be, or has been, appointed under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 69:8(1) does not perform the function of chairman or chief executive of the firm, or does not, if he is to perform the with-profits actuary function, become a member of the firm's governing body; and(2) does not perform any other function on behalf
Under section 23 of the Act (Contravention of the general prohibition or section 20 (1) or (1A)5), a person commits a criminal offence if he carries on activities in breach of the general prohibition in section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) . An authorised person also commits a criminal offence if he carries on a credit-related regulated activity in the UK, or purports to do so, otherwise than in accordance with his permission (unless the person is an appointed representative
Another consequence of a breach of the general prohibition is that certain agreements could be unenforceable (see sections 26 to 29 of the Act). This applies to agreements entered into by persons who are in breach of the general prohibition. It also applies to any agreement entered into by an authorised person if the agreement is made as a result of the activities of a person who is in breach of the general prohibition.
Any person who is concerned that his proposed activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form in the decision tree in PERG 2 Annex 1 G):(1) Will I be carrying on my activities by way of business (see PERG 2.3)?(2) Will I be managing the assets of an occupational pension scheme (see PERG 2.3.2G (3))?(3) If the answer is 'Yes' to (1)
1The FCA will also take into account the potentially more serious consequences that a disapplication of an exemption will have for the member concerned compared with the consequences of a prohibition of a particular individual engaged in exempt regulated activities. However, the FCA may consider it appropriate in some cases to disapply an exemption where it decides that the member concerned is not fit and proper to carry out exempt regulated activities in accordance with section
1When it decides whether to exercise its power to disapply an exemption from the general prohibition in relation to a member, the FCA will take into account all relevant circumstances which may include, but are not limited to, the following factors: (1) Disciplinary or other action taken by the relevant designated professional body, where that action relates to the fitness and propriety of the member concerned: where the FCA considers that its concerns in relation to the fitness
1Where the FCA is considering making a disapplication order against a member as a result of a breach of rules made by the FCA under section 323(1) of the Act, it will take into account any proposed application by the member concerned for authorisation under the Act. The FCA may refrain from making a disapplication order pending its consideration of the application for authorisation.
For a person (P) who is an approved person, COCON applies to the conduct of P in relation to the performance by P of functions relating to the carrying on of activities (whether or not regulated activities) by the firm (Firm A)12 on whose application approval was given to P.[Note:sections 64A(4) and (5)(a) of the Act (Rules of conduct)]
9(1) For a person (P) subject to COCON who is not an approved person, COCON applies to the conduct of P in relation to the performance by P of functions relating to the carrying on of activities (whether or not regulated activities) by P’s employer (Firm A).129(2) This rule does not apply where COCON 1.1.6A applies.129[Note: sections 64A(4)129and (5)(b) of the Act (Rules of conduct)]
The FCA interprets the phrase ‘dealing with’ in COCON 1.1.10R as including having contact with customers and extending beyond ‘dealing’ as used in the phrase ‘dealing in investments’. ‘Dealing in’ is used in Schedule 2 to the Act to describe, in general terms, the regulated activities which are specified in Part II of the Regulated Activities Order.
A firm authorised under Part 4A8 of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part 4A permission8 granted by the FCA or the PRA. A firm'sPart 4A permission8 specifies all or some of the following elements (see PERG 2 Annex 2 (Regulated activities and the permission regime) and the information online at the FCA and PRA websites):8888338(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified investments involved;
8If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission to:(1) add a regulated activity, other than a PRA-regulated activity; or(2) remove a regulated activity from those to which the permission relates; or(3) vary the description of a regulated activity to which the permission relates; or(4) cancel the permission;it can apply to the FCA under section 55H of the Act (Variation by FCA at request of authorised person).
8If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission, by adding to the regulated activities to which the permission relates one or more regulated activities, which include a PRA-regulated activity, it can apply to the PRA under section 55I of the Act (Variation by PRA at request of authorised person). The PRA can determine such an application only with the consent of the FCA.
(1) Under section 55B(3) of the Act3, in giving or varying a Part 4A permission,3 imposing or varying any requirement or giving consent3, the FCA3 must ensure that the firm concerned will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the FCA3threshold conditions in relation to all of the regulated activities for which it has or will have permission.(2) [deleted]43333333
(1) If, among other things, a firm is failing to satisfy any of the FCA3threshold conditions, or is likely to fail to do so, the FCA3 may exercise its own-initiative powers under either section 55J (Variation or cancellation on initiative of regulator) or section 55L (Imposition of requirements by FCA) of the Act3. Use of the FCA's own-initiative powers3 is explained in SUP 7 (Individual requirements), and EG 8 (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FCA's3 own initiative
(1) Under section 185 of the Act (Assessment: general) the FCA may, subject to consultation with the PRA where the conditions in section 187B of the Act are satisfied, object to an acquisition of an FCA-authorised person if there are reasonable grounds to do so on the basis of the matters set out in section 186 of the Act (Assessment: criteria) or if the information provided by the section 178 notice giver is incomplete. Section 186(d) of the Act (Assessment: criteria) specifies
Rights under an agreement for qualifying credit are a controlled investment.Qualifying credit is defined in paragraph 10 of Schedule 1 to the Financial Promotion Order (Controlled activities) as credit provided pursuant to an agreement under which:(1) the lender is a person who carries on the regulated activity of entering into a regulated mortgage contract (whether or not he is an authorised or exempt person under the Act); and(2) the obligation of the borrower to repay is secured
Arranging qualifying credit is a controlled activity under paragraph 10A of Schedule 1 to the Financial Promotion Order; that is, making arrangements:(1) for another person to enter as borrower into an agreement for qualifying credit; or(2) for a borrower under a regulated mortgage contract entered into on or after 31 October 2004 or a borrower under a legacy CCA mortgage contract7 to vary the terms of that contract in such a way as to vary that person’s7 obligations under that
Advising on qualifying credit is8 a controlled activity under paragraph 10B of Schedule 1 to the Financial Promotion Order; that is, advising a person if the advice is:8(1) given to the person in his capacity as a borrower or potential borrower; and(2) advice on the merits of that person’s7 doing any of the following:(a) entering into an agreement for qualifying credit; or(b) varying the terms of a regulated mortgage contract entered into by that person’s7 on or after 31 October
Article 28B (Real time communications: introductions) exempts a real time financial promotion that relates to one or more of the controlled activities about regulated mortgage contracts, as well as home reversion plans, home purchase plans,4regulated sale and rent back agreements3, certain consumer hire agreements and relevant credit agreements4. The exemption is subject to the following conditions being satisfied:224(1) the financial promotion must be made for the purpose of,
Any rule in the Handbook which has the status letter "E" in the margin or heading:(1) is to be taken also to provide that contravention of the rule does not give rise to any of the consequences provided for by provisions of the Act other than section 138C36 (Evidential provisions); and36(2) incorporates the status letter "E" in the margin or heading as part of the rule.
(1) The rules to which section 138C36 of the Act applies ("evidential provisions") are identified in the Handbook by the status letter "E" in the margin or heading.36(2) Other provisions in the Handbook, although also identified by the status letter "E" in the margin or heading, are actually not rules but provisions in codes and GEN 2.2.3 R does not apply to them.17361313
The application of the Interpretation Act 1978 to the Handbook has the effect, in particular, that:(1) expressions in the Handbook used in the Act have the meanings which they bear in the Act, unless the contrary intention appears;(2) where reference is made in the Handbook to an enactment, it is a reference to that enactment as amended and includes a reference to that provision as extended or applied by or under any other enactment, unless the contrary intention appears; and(3)
(1) If a firm, which is a partnership7 or unincorporated association, is dissolved, but its authorisation continues to have effect under section 32 of the Act (Partnerships and unincorporated associations) in relation to any partnership or unincorporated association7 which succeeds to the business of the dissolved firm, the successor partnership or unincorporated association7 is to be regarded as the same firm for the purposes of the Handbook unless the context otherwise requires7.77(2)
In principle, it is possible to view a change of partners7 in a partnership7, or a change in the membership of the unincorporated association, as the formation of a new partnership7 or association. GEN 2.2.18 R reflects section 32 of the Act (Partnerships and unincorporated associations), which provides for the continuing authorisation of partnerships7 and unincorporated associations following a change in partners7 or members if certain conditions are satisfied. GEN 2.2.18 R
An example of a rule20 being interpreted as cut back by GEN 2.2.23R is SYSC 6.1.1R, which requires a firm to maintain adequate policies and procedures to ensure compliance with its obligations under the regulatory system; SYSC 6.1.1R should be interpreted as applied by the FCA in respect of a PRA-authorised person’s compliance with regulatory obligations that are the responsibility of the FCA (for example, in respect of a bank maintaining policies and procedures to ensure compliance
The arrangements which grant rights under alternative debentures are similar to the tax definition of arrangements relating to alternative finance investment bonds at section 48A of the Finance Act 2005 (see www.opsi.gov.uk/acts/acts2007/ukpga_20070011_en_5#pt3-pb9-l1g53). However the purposes of the two provisions are not the same. One of the objectives of the FCA under the Act is consumer protection. Accordingly, secondary legislation made under the Act, like article 77A
As these arrangements might amount to a collective investment scheme (see PERG 9.4.2 GG for a broad description) a consequential amendment to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Collective Investment Scheme) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1062) has been made so that, like conventional bonds, alternative debentures are excluded from the definition of collective investment scheme.
The specified investment category of units in a collective investment scheme includes units in a unit trust scheme or authorised contractual scheme10, shares in open-ended investment companies and rights in respect of most limited partnerships and all limited partnership schemes10. Shares in or securities of an open-ended investment company are treated differently from shares in other companies. They are excluded from the specified investment category of shares. This does not
There are no exclusions in the Regulated Activities Order for this specified investment category. This is because 'collective investment scheme' is defined in section 235 of the Act (Collective investment schemes) for the purposes of the Act generally. But there is a separate power to provide for exemptions from that definition and the Treasury have exercised it (see the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Collective Investment Schemes) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1062). The result
4All contracts in this category are cash-settled instruments (as opposed to being settled by way of delivering something other than cash). Many would be unenforceable as gaming contracts were it not for section 412 of the Act (Gaming contracts). Examples of instruments that count as specified investments under this category are spread bets and interest rate swaps.