Related provisions for SUP 18.2.59D
41 - 60 of 204 items.
The FCA4 will consider the full circumstances of each case when determining whether or not to take action for a financial penalty or public censure. Set out below is a list of factors that may be relevant for this purpose. The list is not exhaustive: not all of these factors may be applicable in a particular case, and there may be other factors, not listed, that are relevant.4(1) The nature, seriousness and impact of the suspected breach, including:(a) whether the breach was deliberate
In addition to the general factors outlined in DEPP 6.2.1 G, there are some additional considerations that may be relevant when deciding whether to take action against an individual under6section 66 of the Act. This list of those considerations is non-exhaustive. Not all considerations below may be relevant in every case, and there may be other considerations, not listed, that are relevant.(1) The individual's6 position and responsibilities. The FCA4 may take into account the
When deciding how to proceed in such cases, the FCA4 will examine the circumstances of the case, and consider, in the light of the relevant investigation, disciplinary and enforcement powers, whether it is appropriate for the FCA4 or another authority to take action to address the breach. The FCA4 will have regard to all the circumstances of the case including whether the other authority has adequate powers to address the breach in question.444
(1) 4Unless required to do so under the regulatory system, a firm must ensure that neither it nor anyone acting on its behalf claims, in a public statement or to a client, expressly or by implication, that its affairs, or any aspect of them, have the approval or endorsement of the FCA6 or another competent authority.(1A) 7Paragraph (1) does not apply to a firm to the extent that it is incompatible with 8obligations under article 44(8) of the MiFID Org Regulation. (2) Paragraph
(1) 1The purpose of this chapter is to implement articles 57 and 58 of MiFID by setting out the necessary directions, rules and guidance.(2)
In particular, this chapter sets out the FCA’s requirements in respect of provisions derived from2:(a) articles 57(1) and 57(6) of MiFID, which require it2 to establish limits, on the basis of a methodology determined by ESMA, on the size of a net position which a person can hold, together with those held on the person’s behalf at an aggregate
(1) The scope of this chapter is as follows:
In respect of position limit requirements in MAR 10.2, a commodity derivative position limit established by the FCA in accordance with MAR 10.2.2D(1) applies regardless of the location of the person at the time of entering into the position and the location of execution.
[Note: article 57(14)(a) of MiFID](2) In respect of position management controls requirements:(a) the requirements contained or referred to in MAR 10.3 apply to persons
Breaching Principle 11, or the rules in this chapter, makes a firm liable to regulatory sanctions, including discipline under Part XIV of the Act (Disciplinary Measures), and may be relevant to the use of the appropriate regulator's other powers, including the statutory information gathering and investigation powers (see further PRIN 1.1.7 G to PRIN 1.1.9 G). But, unlike a breach of a requirement imposed under the statutory powers listed in SUP 2.1.5 G, a breach of Principle 11
2The FCA may apply to the court for an injunction if it appears that a person, whether authorised or not, is reasonably likely to breach a relevant requirement12, or engage in market abuse. It can also apply for an injunction if a person has breached one of those requirements or has engaged in market abuse and is likely to continue doing so. 12 Under section 380(6)(a) and (7)(a), a 'relevant requirement' in relation to an application by the appropriate regulator means a requirement:
2The FCA may consider taking disciplinary1 action using a range of powers1 as well as seeking restitution, if a person has breached a relevant requirement13 of the Act or onshored regulation3, or has engaged in1market abuse. 13 Under section 204A(2), a 'relevant requirement' in relation to an application by the appropriate regulator means a requirement: which is imposed by or under the Act or by a qualifying 3provision specified, or of a description specified, for the purpose
In discharging its obligations under CASS 6.3.1 R,6 a firm should also consider, as appropriate,6 together with any other relevant matters:6(1) the third party's performance of its services to the firm;6(2) the arrangements that the third party has in place for holding and safeguarding the safe custody asset;22(2A) market practices related to the holding of the safe custody asset that could adversely affect clients’ rights.8(3) current industry standard reports, for example "Assurance
(1) 8Under CASS 6.3.6AR(1)(b)(i) a security interest, lien or right of set-off may be regarded as being required by applicable law in a third country for example where:(a) because of applicable law it is mandatory for such a security interest, lien or right of set-off to be given in order for the safe custody assets to be held in that third country; or(b) (i) in the context of the service being provided for the firm’sclient the applicable law of that third country requires the
3For
the purpose of this Statement of Principle,
regulators in addition to the FCA and
the PRA are those which have
recognised jurisdiction in relation to regulated
activities and a power to call for information from the approved person in connection with their 1accountable function or (in the case of
an individual performing an accountable higher management function)1 in connection with the business for which they are1 responsible.
This may include an exchange or an oversea
1Where the approved person is, or is one of the approved persons who is, responsible within the APER employer2 for reporting matters to the regulator concerned (as defined in APER 4.4.4G), failing promptly to inform the regulator concerned of information of which they are aware and which it would be reasonable to assume would be of material significance to the regulator concerned, whether in response to questions or otherwise, falls within APER 4.4.3G.
(1) 2A firm other than:55(a) a credit union; or5(b) an FCA-authorised person with permission to carry on only credit-related regulated activity;5must submit any notice under6SUP 15.5.1R, SUP 15.5.4Rand10SUP 15.5.5 R3 by submitting the form in SUP 15 Ann 3R online at the FCA's4 website.101010(2) A credit union or an FCA-authorised person with permission to carry on only credit-related regulated activity (other than a firm with only an interim permission to which the modifications
2If a firm requires employees who are not subject to a qualification 7 requirement in TC7 to pass a relevant examination from the list of appropriate qualifications 8maintained by the FCA8, the appropriate regulator will take that into account when assessing whether the firm has ensured that the employee satisfies the knowledge component of the competent employees rule.78878778
2An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme3 must (for each scheme it manages) ensure that: (1) a single depositary is appointed; and (2) the assets of the UCITS scheme3 are entrusted to the depositary for safekeeping in accordance with COLL 6.6B.18R and COLL 6.6B.19R.3[Note: article 22(1) and (5) of the UCITS Directive]
Under section 138A(4) of the Act, the appropriate regulator10 may not give a waiver unless it is satisfied that:1010(1) compliance by the firm with the rules, or with the rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome, or would not achieve the purpose for which the rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not adversely affect the advancement of, in the case of the PRA, any of its objectives and, in the case of the FCA, any of its operational objectives.1010
1This chapter applies to every firm and with respect to every regulated activity, except that:(1) [deleted]7(2) [deleted]7(3) [deleted]72(4) [deleted]752(5) only GEN 4.1 (Application) and5GEN 4.5 (Statements about authorisation and regulation by the appropriate regulator)9 apply5 in relation to MiFID or equivalent third country business and only where that MiFID or equivalent third country business is not business falling within paragraph 2 (Transactions between an MTF operator
(1) Business plan failure in the context of reverse stress testing should be understood as the point at which the market loses confidence in a firm and this results in the firm no longer being able to carry out its business activities. Examples of this would be the point at which all or a substantial portion of the firm's counterparties are unwilling to continue transacting with it or seek to terminate their contracts, or the point at which the firm's existing shareholders are
(1) The FSAappropriate regulator may request a firm to submit the design and results of its reverse stress tests and any subsequent updates as part of its ARROW risk assessment. (2) In the light of the results of a firm's reverse stress tests, the FSAappropriate regulator may require the firm to implement specific measures to prevent or mitigate the risk of business failure where that risk is not sufficiently mitigated by the measures adopted by the firm in accordance with SYSC
(1) In assessing whether a penalty would cause an individual serious financial hardship, the FCA3 will consider the individual’s ability to pay the penalty over a reasonable period (normally no greater than three years). The FCA's3 starting point is that an individual will suffer serious financial hardship only if during that period his net annual income will fall below £14,000 and his capital will fall below £16,000 as a result of payment of the penalty. Unless the FCA3 believes
(1) The FCA3 will consider reducing the amount of a penalty if a firm will suffer serious financial hardship as a result of having to pay the entire penalty. In deciding whether it is appropriate to reduce the penalty, the FCA3 will take into consideration the firm’s financial circumstances, including whether the penalty would render the firm insolvent or threaten the firm’s solvency. The FCA3 will also take into account its statutory objectives3, for example in situations where
(1) The authorised fund manager may, with the prior agreement of the depositary, and must without delay, if the depositary so requires, temporarily1 suspend the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of units in an authorised fund (referred to in this chapter as "dealings in units"), where due to exceptional circumstances it is in the interest of all the unitholders in the authorised fund. Where an authorised fund is a regulated money market fund, the authorised fund manager
2Where:(1) an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme which is a master UCITS or a qualifying master scheme3temporarily suspends the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of its units, whether at its own initiative or at the request of the FCA; or(2) an operator of an EEA UCITS scheme which is a master UCITS or a qualifying master scheme3temporarily suspends the issue, cancellation, sale or redemption of its units, whether at its own initiative or at the request of its Home
5A UK UCITS management company must ensure that the procedures it establishes under DISP 1.3.1 R for the reasonable and prompt handling of complaints require that13unitholders are allowed to file complaints in any of the official languages of the Home State of the UCITS scheme or a scheme which, immediately before IP completion day15, was an13EEA UCITS scheme or of any EEA State to which a notification was13 transmitted by the competent authority of the scheme’sHome State in accordance
416These procedures should, taking into account the nature, scale and complexity of the respondent's business, ensure that lessons learned as a result of determinations by the Ombudsman are effectively applied in future complaint handling, for example by:(1) relaying a determination by the Ombudsman to the individuals in the respondent who handled the complaint and using it in their training and development;(2) analysing any patterns in determinations by the Ombudsman concerning
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 7B
2(1) |
The [UK RIE] must make transparent and non-discriminatory rules, based on objective criteria, governing access to, or membership of, its facilities. |
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(2) |
In particular those rules must specify the obligations for users or members of its facilities arising from - |
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(a) |
the constitution and administration of the [UK RIE]; |
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(b) |
rules relating to transactions on its trading venues4; |
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(c) |
its professional standards for staff of any investment firm or qualifying credit institution5 having access to or membership of a financial market operated by the [UK RIE]; |
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(d) |
conditions established under sub-paragraph (3)(c) for access to or membership of a trading venue4 operated by the [UK RIE] by persons other than investment firms or qualifying credit institutions5; and |
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(e) |
the rules and procedures for clearing and settlement of transactions concluded on a trading venue4 operated by the [UK RIE]. |
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(3) |
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[Note: see paragraph 9ZC below, replacing paragraph 7B(3)]4 |
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(4) |
[deleted]5 |
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| 4 | |||
by the competent authority of another EEA State (including a branch established in the United Kingdom of such a firm or institution) to have direct or remote access to or membership of, any trading venue4 operated by the [UK RIE] on the same terms as a UK firm. |
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(5) |
The [UK RIE] must make arrangements regularly to provide the [FCA]3 with a list of users or members of its facilities. 3 |
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(6) |
This paragraph is without prejudice to the generality of paragraph 4. |
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Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 7C
2(1) |
This paragraph applies to [a UK RIE] which provides central counterparty, clearing or settlement facilities. |
(2) |
The [UK RIE] must make transparent and non-discriminatory rules based on objective criteria, governing access to those facilities. |
(3) |
[deleted] 5 |
(4) |
The [UK RIE] may refuse access to those facilities on legitimate commercial grounds. |