Related provisions for IPRU-INV 4.2.2

PERG 5.1.7G01/04/2013

This guidance is issued under section 139A of the Act (Guidance). It is designed to throw light on particular aspects of regulatory requirements, not to be an exhaustive description of a person's obligations. If a person acts in line with the guidance and the circumstances contemplated by it, then the FCA will proceed on the footing that the person has complied with aspects of the requirement to which the guidance relates.

PERG 5.1.8G01/04/2013

Rights conferred on third parties cannot be affected by guidance given by the FCA. This guidance represents the FCA's view, and does not bind the courts, for example, in relation to the enforceability of a contract where there has been a breach of the general prohibition on carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom without authorisation (see sections 26 to 29 of the Act (Enforceability of Agreements)).

PERG 5.1.9G01/07/2005

A person reading this guidance should refer to the Act and the various Orders that are referred to in this guidance. These should be used to find out the precise scope and effect of any particular provision referred to in this guidance. A person may need to seek his own legal advice.

PERG 8.6.1G01/04/2013

The word ‘communicate’ is extended under section 21(13) of the Act and includes causing a communication to be made. This means that a person who causes the communication of a financial promotion by another person is also subject to the restriction in section 21. Article 6(d) of the Financial Promotion Order also states that the word ‘communicate’ has the same meaning when used in exemptions in the Order. Article 6(a) also states that the word ‘communication’ has the same meaning

PERG 8.6.7AG01/10/2005

1The position of an unauthorised person (‘U’) who, in the course of business, causes an authorised person to communicate a financial promotion is somewhat different. This is because the authorised person (‘A’) is not subject to section 21 of the Act and so will not necessarily be communicating the financial promotion in circumstances in which an exemption would apply. To avoid any doubt about the application of section 21 to U, a specific exemption is provided in article 17A of

PERG 8.6.9G01/07/2005

Section 21(1) of the Act refers only to the communication of an invitation or inducement. It says nothing about communications being 'made to' or 'directed at' persons or about who the 'recipient' of a communication will be. These facts are determined by the following sequence:(1) section 21(13) of the Act indicates that communications are 'made';(2) article 6 of the Financial Promotion Order (Interpretation: communications) indicates that communications are made by being 'addressed

SUP 11.2.1G29/06/2018

Part XII of the Act (Control Over Authorised Persons6) places an obligation on the controllers and proposed controllers of those UK domestic firms not listed in SUP 11.1.1 R (1) to SUP 11.1.1R(8)4 to notify the appropriate regulator6 of changes in control, including acquiring, increasing or reducing control or ceasing to have control over a firm.3 Furthermore, those persons are required to obtain the appropriate regulator's approval6 before becoming a controller or increasing

SUP 11.2.3G01/04/2013

As the approval of the appropriate regulator6 is not required under the Act for a new controller of an overseas firm, the notification rules on such firms are less prescriptive than they are for UK domestic firms. Nevertheless, the appropriate regulator6 still needs to monitor such an overseas firm's continuing satisfaction of the threshold conditions, which normally includes consideration of a firm's connection with any person, including its controllers and parent undertakings

SUP 11.2.5G01/04/2013

Similarly, the appropriate regulator6 needs to monitor a firm's continuing satisfaction of the6threshold conditions6 set out in paragraphs 3B, 4F and 5F of Schedule 6 to the Act (as applicable) (in relation to threshold conditions for which the FCA is responsible,6 see COND 2.32), which requires that a firm's close links are not likely to prevent the appropriate regulator's6 effective supervision of that firm. Accordingly the appropriate regulator6 needs to be notified of any

COLL 12.4.1R01/07/2013

(1) This section applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager of an AUT, ACS1 or ICVC;(b) any other director of an ICVC; and(c) an ICVC;which is a UCITS scheme whose units may be marketed in another EEA State (the Host State).(2) The marketing of units of a UCITS scheme in the Host State may not commence until the FCA has, in accordance with paragraph 20B(5) (Notice of intention to market) of Schedule 3 to the Act, notified the authorised fund manager, in response to the application

COLL 12.4.4R28/02/2014

(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme whose units are being marketed in the Host State must ensure that:(a) its instrument constituting the fund,2 its prospectus and, where appropriate, its latest annual report and any subsequent half-yearly report; and2(b) its key investor information document;together with their translations (wherever necessary), are kept up to date.(2) The authorised fund manager must notify any amendments to the documents referred to in (1) to

COLL 12.4.8R01/04/2013

(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme whose units are being marketed in a Host State must ensure that an electronic copy of each document referred to in COLL 12.4.4 R (1) is made available on: (a) the website of the UCITS scheme or the authorised fund manager; or(b) another website designated by the authorised fund manager in the notification letter submitted to the FCA under paragraph 20B of Schedule 3 to the Act or any updates to it. (2) Any document that is made

PERG 1.5.1G01/10/2018

General guidance on the perimeter is also contained in various FCA documents (mainly fact sheets and frequently asked questions) that are available on the FCA website at www.fca.org.uk.These documents, and the URL on which they may be accessed, include:(1) [deleted]612446(2) [deleted]212(3) [deleted](4) [deleted]313(5) [deleted]313(6) [deleted]313(7) guidance about the position under the Insurance Mediation Directive and the Regulated Activities Order of the company appointed

PERG 1.5.2G01/04/2013

Any person who, having read relevant general guidance and, where appropriate, taken legal advice, remains uncertain about whether his activities amount to regulated activities or his communications will be subject to the restriction in section 21 of the Act, may seek individual guidance from the FCA. Requests for individual guidance should be made in line with SUP 9.

PERG 1.5.3G01/11/2015

In addition, the FCA has established a team to provide general assistance and guidance to persons generally about the scope of the Act. Enquiries of this kind may be made:(1) by authorised firms, to either the Contact Centre (email firm.queries@fca.org.uk, Tel 0300 500 05977) or their normal supervisory contact; or77(2) by individuals or non-authorised firms, to the Consumer Contact Centre (email ccc@fca.org.uk, Tel 0800 111 6768 ).8

SUP 13A.5.3G07/03/2016

(1) Before an EEA firm (other than7 an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)3 exercises an EEA right to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the Act requires it to satisfy the service conditions, as set out in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. 1(2) For the purposes of paragraph 14(1)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be contained in the regulator's notice has been prescribed

SUP 13A.5.4G01/10/2018

(1) Unless the EEA firm3(other than7 an EEA firm that received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)331is passporting under the IDD8, if the appropriate UK regulator9 receives a regulator's notice or, where no notice is required , is informed of the EEA firm's intention to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the appropriate UK regulator9 will, under paragraphs 14(2) and 14(3) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, notify the EEA firm of the

SUP 13A.5.4-AG21/12/2015

6When the FCA receives a consent notice from the EEA firm'sHome State regulator in respect of a firm within paragraph 5(i) of Part I of Schedule 3 to the Act, it will, under paragraph 14(3ZA), use the information received from the EEA firm'sHome State regulator to enter the necessary information into the Financial Services Register.

SUP 3.1.1R29/06/2018

(1) Except as provided for in (2), this chapter applies to:35(a) every firm within a category listed in column (1) of the table in SUP 3.1.2 R; and35(b) the external auditor of such a firm (if appointed under SUP 3.3 or appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act);35(2) This chapter does not apply in relation to a firm’sbenchmark activities.352

SUP 3.1.1AG06/04/2007

9For the avoidance of doubt, this chapter does not apply to the following firms if they do not hold client money or client assets and do not appoint an auditor under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act: (1) authorised professional firms;(2) energy market participants, including oil market participants to whom IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply;(3) exempt insurance intermediaries;(4) insurance intermediaries not subject to SUP 3.1.2 R(10);(5) investment management

SUP 3.1.2R01/04/2019

Applicable sections (see SUP 3.1.1 R)

This table and the provisions in SUP 3 should be read in conjunction with GEN 2.2.23 R to GEN 2.2.25 G. In particular, the PRA does not apply any of the provisions in SUP 3 in respect of FCA-authorised persons. SUP 3.10 and SUP 3.11 are applied by the FCA only.41

(1) Category of firm		(2) Sections applicable to the firm	(3) Sections applicable to its auditor
(1)	Authorised professional firm which is required by IPRU(INV) 2.1.2R to comply with chapters 3, 519 or 13 of IPRU(INV) and which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act 9 (Notes 1 and 6)23 23 19 23 23	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10 19
(2)	Authorised professional firm not within (1) to which the custody chapter or client money chapter applies22 17 22 23	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.11	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10
(3)	Authorised professional firm not within (1) or (2) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8
(4)	Bank, building society or dormant account fund operator 21which in each case carries on designated investment business 21(Notes 2A and 6)23 23	SUP 3.1-SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10
(5)	Bank, building society or a dormant account fund operator which in each case does not carry on designated investment business 21 (Note 2A) 21	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8
(5A)	Credit union	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.824
27(5B)30	CASS debt management firm unless subject to a requirement imposed under section 55L of the Act stating that it must not hold client money or such a requirement to the same effect30	SUP 3.1 SUP 3.10 SUP 3.11	SUP 3.1 SUP 3.10
33(5C)	CASS 7 loan-based crowdfunding firm	SUP 3.1-3.7, SUP 3.11	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10
36(5D)	A CASS 13 claims management firm	SUP 3.1- 3.7, 3.11	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10
(6)	Insurer, the Society of Lloyd's, underwriting agent or members' adviser, UK ISPV 11 (Note 5)7	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8
(7)	Investment management firm, (other than an exempt CAD firm),16 personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm) 15,28 securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm 20)15 or collective portfolio management firm that is an external AIFM 28 which, in each case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act 9(Notes 3 and 623)17 23 9 28 17 23	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10 19
9(7A)	Investment management firm (other than an exempt CAD firm)20, personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm 15),28 securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm 15 or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm 20) or collective portfolio management firm that is an external AIFM 28 not within (7) to which the custody chapter or client money chapter applies22 23 28 17 22	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.1025
32 25
9(7B)	Collective portfolio management firm that is a 28 UCITS firm 13or an internally managed AIF 28 (Note 6)23 13	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10 19
13(7C)	UK MiFID investment firm, which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act (Notes 3B and 6)23 20 20 23	SUP 3.1 - 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.1014
17(7D)	Sole trader or partnership that is a UK 20 MiFID investment firm (other than an exempt CAD firm) (Notes 3C and 6)23 20 20 23	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10
(8)	Small personal investment firm or service company which, in either case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8
(9)8	Home finance provider 10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act 9 10	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.78	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88
(10)8	Insurance intermediary (other than an exempt insurance intermediary) to which the insurance client money chapter 17 (except for CASS 5.2 (Holding money as agent)) applies (see Note 4)8 17	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.78, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.108
(11)8	Exempt insurance intermediary and insurance intermediary not subject to SUP 3.1.2 R(10) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.78	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88
(12)8	Home finance intermediary 10 or home finance administrator 10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act. 10 10	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.78	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88
Note 1 = This chapter applies to an authorised professional firm in row (1) (and its auditor) as if the firm were of the relevant type in the right-hand column of IPRU(INV) 2.1.4R.
Note 2 [deleted]23 17 17 23
Note 2A = For this purpose, designated investment business does not include either or both: (a) dealing which falls within the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc) (or agreeing to do so); and (b) dealing in investments as principal (or agreeing to do so): (i) by a firm whose permission to deal in investments as principal is subject to a limitation to the effect that the firm, in carrying on this regulated activity, is limited to entering into transactions in a manner which, if the firm was an unauthorised person, would come within article 16 of the Regulated Activities Order (Dealing in contractually based investments); and (ii) in a manner which comes within that limitation; having regard to article 4(4) of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified activities: general23). 18
Note 3 = This note applies in relation to an oil market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply and in relation to an energy market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply. In SUP 3: (a) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.7 are applicable to such a firm; and (b) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 are applicable to its auditor; and, in each case, only if it has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act.
17Note 3A [deleted]23 23
20Note 3B = UK MiFID investment firms include exempt CAD firms. An exempt CAD firm that has opted into MiFID can benefit from the audit exemption for small companies in the Companies Act legislation if it meets is an exempt investment firm as defined by article 8 of the MiFI Regulations.31 If a firm does so benefit then SUP 3 will not apply to it. For further details about exempt CAD firms, see PERG 13, Q58.
17Note 3C20 = A sole trader or a partnership that is a UK MiFID investment firm 20 to which the custody chapter 22 or client money chapter applies22 20 must have its annual accounts audited. 20 20 22 22
Note 4 = The client money audit requirement in SUP 3.1.2 R(10) therefore applies to all insurance intermediaries except:8 • those which do not hold client money or other client assets in relation to insurance distribution activities 34; or 8 • those which only hold up to, but not exceeding, £30,000 of client money under a statutory trust arising under CASS 5.3.8 Insurance intermediaries which, in relation to insurance distribution activities 34, hold no more than that amount of client money only on a statutory trust are exempt insurance intermediaries.8
Note (5) = In row (6):7
(a)7	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7 applies to a managing agent in respect of its own business and in respect of the insurance business of each syndicate which it manages; and7
(b)7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 apply to the auditors of a managing agent and the auditors of the insurance business of each syndicate which the managing agent manages.1 2 3 4 5 6 7
23Note 6 = Where SUP 3.11 applies to a firm, and SUP 3.10 applies to the auditor of that firm, those sections apply whether or not that firm's permission prevents it from holding client money or custody assets and whether or not it holds client money or custody assets.A collective portfolio management firm that is an internally managed AIF is required to appoint an auditor under FUND 3.3.6R (2) (Annual report of an AIF) because the AIFM is also an AIF.28

COLL 7.4A.1G01/07/2013

(1) 1This section deals with the circumstances and manner in which an ACS is to be wound up or a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme is to be terminated otherwise than by the court as an unregistered company under the Insolvency Act 1986 or the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (further rules regarding schemes of arrangement are found in COLL 7.6 (Schemes of arrangement)).(2) An ACS may be wound up under this section only if it is solvent. Under section 261W of the Act (Requests

COLL 7.4A.3G01/07/2013

This table belongs to COLL 7.4A.1G (5) (Explanation of COLL 7.4A)

Summary of the main steps in winding up an ACS or terminating a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme under FCA rules Notes: N = Notice to be given to the FCA under section 261Q of the Act in a section 261Q case. R = Request to wind up the scheme under section 261W of the Act in a section 261W case. E = commencement of winding up or termination W/U = winding up FAP = final accounting period
Step number	Explanation	When	COLL rule, (unless stated otherwise)
1	Commence preparation of solvency statement	N-28 days or R-28 days	7.4A.5R(2)
2	Send audited solvency statement to the FCA with copy to depositary.	By N + 21 days or by R + 21 days	7.4A.5R(4) and (5)
3	In a section 261Q case: - the authorised contractual scheme manager receiving FCA approval; - or one month having passed after submitting the requisite notice under section 261Q of the Act without the authorised contractual scheme manager or depositary having received from the FCA a warning notice under section 261R in respect of the proposal. In a section 261W case, the authorised contractual scheme manager or depositary receives an indication from the FCA that, subject to there being no change in any relevant factor, on the conclusion of the winding up of the ACS, the FCA will agree to the request to wind up the ACS.	N + one month or R + one month	Section 261Q of the Act (in a section 261Q case) 7.4A.4R(3)(c) to (e) (in a section 261W case)
4	Normal business ceases; notify unitholders	E	7.4A.4R
5	Depositary to realise and distribute proceeds	ASAP after E	7.4A.6R(1)-(5)
6	Send annual long report of authorised contractual scheme manager, depositary and auditor to the FCA	Within 4 months of FAP	7.4A.9R(7)
7	Request FCA to revoke relevant authorisation order	On completion of W/U	7.4A.6R(6)

COLL 7.4A.4R30/09/2019

(1) Upon the happening of any of the matters or dates referred to in (3), and subject to the requirement of (4) being satisfied, and not otherwise:(a) COLL 6.2 (Dealing), COLL 6.3(Valuation and pricing), COLL 6.6.20R to COLL 6.6.24G (Assessment of value)3 and COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers) cease to apply to the ACS or to the units and scheme property in the case of a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme; (b) the depositary must cease to issue and cancelunits, except in

COLL 7.4A.5R01/07/2013

(1) Either before notice is given under section 261Q of the Act or before a request is made under section 261W of the Act in relation to the proposals referred to in COLL 7.4A.4R (4), the authorised contractual scheme manager must make a full inquiry into the ACS's (or, in the case of the termination of a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme, the sub-fund's) affairs, business and property to establish whether the ACS or the sub-fund will be able to meet all its liabilities.(2) The

PR 3.4.1UK01/04/2013

Section 87G of the Act provides that:

(1)	Subsection (2) applies if, during the relevant period, there arises or is noted a significant new factor, material mistake or inaccuracy relating to the information included in a prospectus approved by the [FCA].
(2)	The person on whose application the prospectus was approved must, in accordance with prospectus rules, submit a supplementary prospectus containing details of the new factor, mistake or inaccuracy to the [FCA] for its approval.
(3)	The relevant period begins when the prospectus is approved by the [FCA] and ends –
	(a)	with the closure of the offer of the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates; or
	(b)	when trading in those securities on a regulated market begins.
4(3A)	But where the prospectus relates both to an offer of transferable securities to the public and the admission of those securities to trading on a regulated market, subsection (3) does not apply and the relevant period beings when the prospectus is approved and ends with the later of -
	(a)	the closure of the offer to the public to which the prospectus relates; or
	(b)	the time when trading in those securities on a regulated market begins.
(4)	"Significant" means significant for the purposes of making an informed assessment of the kind mentioned in section 87A(2).
(5)	Any person responsible for the prospectus who is aware of any new factor, mistake or inaccuracy which may require the submission of a supplementary prospectus in accordance with subsection (2) must give notice of it to –
	(a)	the issuer of the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates, and
	(b)	the person on whose application the prospectus was approved.
(6)	A supplementary prospectus must provide sufficient information to correct any mistake or inaccuracy which gave rise to the need for it.
(7)	Subsection (1) applies also to information contained in any supplementary prospectus published under this section.

PR 3.4.2R01/07/2012

A supplementary prospectus must also if necessary include an amendment or supplement to the summary, and any translations of the summary, to take into account the new information. [ Note: article 16.1 PD ]Note:Sections 87Q(4) and (5) of the Act set4 out the rights of investors to withdraw their acceptances after a supplementary prospectus is published.4

PR 3.4.3R01/04/2013

1In the event that a requirement for a supplement is triggered, then as soon as practicable after the new factor, mistake or inaccuracy arises or is noted, a3person referred to in section 87G(2) of the Act must submit a supplementary prospectus referred to in that section to the FCA for approval.33

COLL 7.7.2G01/07/2011

(1) The effect of COLL 7.7.1 R, and in particular the narrow Glossary definition of domestic UCITS merger which is drafted in accordance with article 2.1(r) of the UCITS Directive, is that this section will not apply to a merger in the United Kingdom between two or more UCITS schemes unless one of them has been the subject of a UCITS marketing notification.(2) For arrangements to constitute a cross-border UCITS merger, at least two of the relevant UCITS must be:(a) established

COLL 7.7.6G26/07/2013

(1) The requirements and the process which must be followed to give effect to a proposal for a UCITS merger as specified by Chapter VI of the UCITS Directive (see articles 37 to 48) have been implemented in the United Kingdom by the provisions of Part 4 of the UCITS Regulations 2011. The main features of the regime as set out in those provisions include:(a) the different types of merger operation that will be recognised for a UCITS merger;(b) the need for the FCA to give prior

COLL 7.7.10R26/07/2013

(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a merging UCITS or a receiving UCITS in a proposed UCITS merger must ensure that a document containing appropriate and accurate information on the merger is provided to the unitholders of that scheme so as to enable them to:(a) make an informed judgment about the impact of the proposal on their investment;(b) exercise their rights under regulation 12 (Right of redemption) of the UCITS Regulations 2011; and(c) where applicable,

COLL 7.7.21G01/04/2013

(1) In a domestic UCITS merger, the effective date of the merger will be the date specified by the FCA in its order authorising the proposed merger in accordance with regulation 9 of the UCITS Regulations 2011.(2) For a UCITS scheme which is the receiving UCITS in a cross-border UCITS merger, the effective date of the merger will be the date agreed by the FCA and the merging UCITS'Home State regulator.(3) For a UCITS scheme which is the receiving UCITS in a domestic UCITS merger

PR 5.3.1UK01/04/2013

Sections 87H and 87I of the Act provide:

Prospectus approved in another EEA State
87H	(1)	A prospectus approved by the competent authority of an EEA State other than the United Kingdom is not an approved prospectus for the purposes of section 85 unless that authority has notified ESMA and provided the competent authority with -3
		(a)	a certificate of approval;
		(b)	a copy of the prospectus as approved; and
		(c)	if requested by the [FCA], a translation of the summary of the prospectus.
	(2)	A document is not a certificate of approval unless it states that the prospectus -
		(a)	has been drawn up in accordance with the prospectus directive; and
		(b)	has been approved, in accordance with that directive, by the competent authority providing the certificate.
	(3)	A document is not a certificate of approval unless it states whether (and, if so, why) the competent authority providing it authorised, in accordance with the prospectus directive, the omission from the prospectus of information which would otherwise have been required to be included.
	3(3A)	The competent authority must publish on its website a list of certificates of approval provided to it in accordance with this section.
	3(3B)	The list referred to in subsection (3A) must -
		(a)	be kept up-to-date;
		(b)	retain items on it for a period of at least 12 months; and
		(c)	include hyperlinks to any certificate of approval and prospectus published on the website of -
			(i)	the competent authority of the EEA State which provided the certificate;
			(ii)	the issuer; or
			(iii)	the regulated market where admission to trading is sought.
	(4)	"Prospectus" includes a supplementary prospectus.

Provision of information to host Member State
87I	(1)	The [FCA] must, if requested to do so, supply the competent authority of a specified EEA State with –
		(a)	a certificate of approval;
		(b)	a copy of the specified prospectus (as approved by the [FCA]); and
		(c)	a translation of the summary of the specified prospectus (if the request states that one has been requested by the other competent authority).2
	(1A)2	If the competent authority supplies a certificate of approval to the competent authority of the specified EEA State, it must also supply a copy of that certificate to -
		(a)	the person who made the request under this section; and
		(b)	ESMA.
	(2)	Only the following may make a request under this section –
		(a)	the issuer of the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates;
		(b)	a person who wishes to offer the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates to the public in an EEA State other than (or as well as) the United Kingdom;
		(c)	a person requesting the admission of the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates to a regulated market situated or operating in an EEA State other than (or as well as) the United Kingdom.
	(3)	A certificate of approval must state that the prospectus –
		(a)	has been drawn up in accordance with this Part and the prospectus directive; and
		(b)	has been approved, in accordance with those provisions, by the [FCA].
	(4)	A certificate of approval must state whether (and, if so, why) the [FCA] authorised, in accordance with section 87B, the omission from the prospectus of information which would otherwise have been required to be included.
	(5)	The [FCA] must comply with a request under this section –
		(a)	if the prospectus has been approved before the request is made, within 3 working days beginning with the date the request is received2; or 2
		(b)	if the request is submitted with an application for the approval of the prospectus, on the first working day after the date on which it approves the prospectus.
	(6)	“Prospectus” includes a supplementary prospectus.
	(7)	“Specified” means specified in a request made for the purposes of this section.

PR 5.3.2R24/03/2016

(1) This rule applies to a request by a person to the FCA to supply information referred to in section 87I of the Act to the competent authority of a relevant Host State.(2) The request must be in writing and must include:(a) the relevant prospectus as approved (if it has already been approved); and(b) a translation of the summary if required by the competent authority of a relevant host State.4[Note: See PR 3.1.-1EU for the additional requirements where a request is made prior

PR 5.3.4G01/04/2013

If the FCA receives information referred to in section 87H from another competent authority it will as soon as practicable give notice on the FCA website that it has received the information.11

SUP 15.2.1G07/03/2016

A firm is required to provide the FCA2 with a wide range of information to enable the FCA2 to meet its responsibilities for monitoring the firm's compliance with requirements imposed by or under the Act. Some of this information is provided through regular reports, including those set out in SUP 16 (Reporting requirements) and SUP 17 (Transaction reporting). In addition, other chapters in the Handbook set out specific notification and reporting requirements. Principle 11 includes

SUP 15.2.2G13/01/2018

This chapter sets out:(1) guidance on the type of event or change in condition which a firm should consider notifying in accordance with Principle 11; the purpose of this guidance is to set out examples and not to give comprehensive advice to firms on what they should notify in order to be in compliance with Principle 11;(2) rules on events and changes in condition that a firm must notify; these are the types of event that the FCA2 must be informed about, usually as soon as possible,

SUP 15.2.5G10/12/2018

3SUP 15.11 (Notification of COCON breaches and disciplinary action) provides rules and guidance on notifications to the FCA by an SMCR firm where the SMCR firm8 takes disciplinary action in relation to any conduct rules staff and the reason for taking that action is a reason specified in rules made by the FCA. This is a requirement imposed4 under section4 64C of the Act.4

EG 8.2.201/03/2016

1The FCA will proceed on the basis that a firm (together with its directors and senior management) is primarily responsible for ensuring the firm conducts its business in compliance with the Act, the Principles and other rules.

EG 8.2.301/03/2016

1In the course of its supervision and monitoring of a firm or as part of an enforcement action, the FCA may make it clear that it expects the firm to take certain steps to meet regulatory requirements. In the vast majority of cases the FCA will seek to agree with a firm those steps the firm must take to address the FCA’s concerns. However, where the FCA considers it appropriate to do so, it will exercise its formal powers under sections 55J or 55L of the Act to vary a firm's

EG 8.2.601/03/2016

1Examples of circumstances in which the FCA will consider varying a firm'sPart 4A permission because it has serious concerns about a firm, or about the way its business is being or has been conducted include where: (1) in relation to the grounds for exercising the power under section 55J(1)(a) or section 55L(2)(a) of the Act, the firm appears to be failing, or appears likely to fail, to satisfy the threshold conditions relating to one or more, or all, of its regulated activities,

EG 7.1.103/07/2016

3Financial penalties, suspensions, restrictions, conditions, limitations, disciplinary prohibitions,2 and public censures are important regulatory tools. However, they are not the only tools available to the FCA, and there will be many instances of non-compliance which the FCA considers it appropriate to address without the use of formal disciplinary sanctions. Still1, the effective and proportionate use of the FCA's powers to enforce the requirements of the Act, the rules, COCON1

EG 7.1.203/07/2016

3The FCA has the following powers to impose sanctions2.(1) It may publish a statement: (a) against an approved person or conduct rules staff1 under section 66 of the Act; (b) against an issuer under section 87M of the Act; (c) against a sponsor under section 88A of the Act; (ca) against a primary information provider under section 89Q of the Act; (d) where there has been a contravention

EG 7.1.301/03/2016

3Section 415B of the Act requires the FCA to consult with the PRA before it takes certain enforcement action in relation to a PRA-authorised person or someone who has a qualifying relationship (as defined in section 415B(4) of the Act) with a PRA-authorised person. Further detail on when the FCA is required to consult the PRA, and when it has agreed to notify the PRA of certain matters, is set out in the Memorandum of Understanding between the PRA and the FCA.

PERG 9.6.3G01/04/2013

Section 236(3) of the Act states clearly that the investment condition must be met 'in relation to BC'. In the FCA's view, this means that the investment condition should not be applied rigidly in relation to specific events such as particular issues of shares or securities or in relation to particular points in time. The requirements of the investment condition must be satisfied in relation to the overall impression of the body corporate itself, having regard to all the circ

PERG 9.6.5G01/10/2009

Certain matters are to be disregarded in determining whether the investment condition is satisfied. Section 236(4) of the Act states that, for these purposes, no account is to be taken of any actual or potential redemption or repurchase of shares or securities under:(1) Chapters 3 to 71 of Part 181 of the Companies Act 2006;1or1(2) [deleted]11(3) corresponding provisions in force in another EEA State; or(4) provisions in force in a country or territory other than an EEA State

PERG 9.6.7G01/04/2013

The FCA's views on the following three elements of the investment condition are explained separately:(1) the 'reasonable investor' (see PERG 9.7 (The investment condition: the 'reasonable investor'));(2) the 'expectation' test (see PERG 9.8 (The investment condition: the 'expectation test' (section 236(3)(a) of the Act))); and(3) the 'satisfaction' test (see PERG 9.9 (The investment condition: the 'satisfaction test' (section 236(3)(b) of the Act)).

PERG 4.12.1G01/07/2005

Section 39 of the Act makes provision exempting appointed representatives from the need to obtain authorisation. An appointed representative is a person who is a party to a contract with an authorised person which permits or requires the appointed representative to carry on certain regulated activities. SUP 12 (Appointed representatives) contains guidance relating to appointed representatives.

PERG 4.12.2G01/04/2014

Unless a person has only a limited permission for certain credit-related regulated activities, a1person who is an authorised person cannot be an appointed representative (see section 39(1) of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives)).1

PERG 4.12.5G01/07/2005

Where a person is already an appointed representative (in relation to any non-mortgage activities) and he proposes to carry on any regulated mortgage activities, he will need to consider the following matters.(1) He must become authorised if his proposed mortgage activities include either entering into a regulated mortgage contract or administering a regulated mortgage contract. These activities may not be carried on by appointed representatives and the Act does not permit any

BIPRU 9.3.9G01/04/2013

1In the event that the appropriate regulator decides that the possible reduction in risk weighted exposure amounts which the originator would achieve by the securitisation referred to in BIPRU 9.3.7R is not justified by a commensurate transfer of credit risk to third parties, it will use its powers under section 55J of the Act (Variation etc on the Authority's own initiative) to require the firm to increase its risk weighted exposure amount to an amount commensurate with the appropriate

BIPRU 9.3.12G01/04/2013

1BIPRU 1.3.10 G sets out the appropriate regulator's approach to the granting of waivers. The conditions in BIPRU 9.3.11D are minimum requirements. Satisfaction of those does not automatically mean the appropriate regulator will grant the relevant waiver. The appropriate regulator will in addition also apply the tests in section 138A (Modification or waiver of rules) of the Act.

BIPRU 9.3.21G01/04/2013

1Subject to BIPRU 9.3.22G, BIPRU 9.15.9R and BIPRU 9.15.10R, where the originator or sponsor of a securitisation fails to meet any of the requirements in BIPRU 9.3.18R to BIPRU 9.3.20R (disclosure requirements) in any material respect by reason of its negligence or omission, the appropriate regulator will use its powers under section 55J (Variation etc on the Authority's own initiative) of the Act to impose an additional risk weight of no less than 250% (capped at 1250%) of the

COND 1.2.2G01/04/2013

(1) Under section 55B(3) of the Act3, in giving or varying a Part 4A permission,3 imposing or varying any requirement or giving consent3, the FCA3 must ensure that the firm concerned will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the FCA3threshold conditions in relation to all of the regulated activities for which it has or will have permission.(2) If, however, the applicant for permission is an incoming firm seeking top-up permission, or variation of top-up permission, under Part 4A3

COND 1.2.3G01/04/2013

(1) If, among other things, a firm is failing to satisfy any of the FCA3threshold conditions, or is likely to fail to do so, the FCA3 may exercise its own-initiative powers under either section 55J (Variation or cancellation on initiative of regulator) or section 55L (Imposition of requirements by FCA) of the Act3. Use of the FCA's own-initiative powers3 is explained in SUP 7 (Individual requirements), and EG 8 (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FCA's3 own initiative

COND 1.2.5G01/04/2013

(1) Under section 185 of the Act (Assessment: general) the FCA may, subject to consultation with the PRA where the conditions in section 187B of the Act are satisfied, object to an acquisition of an FCA-authorised person if there are reasonable grounds to do so on the basis of the matters set out in section 186 of the Act (Assessment: criteria) or if the information provided by the section 178 notice giver is incomplete. Section 186(d) of the Act (Assessment: criteria) specifies

BIPRU 12.9.9G01/04/2013

Consistent with Principle 11 (Relations with regulators), the appropriate regulator will expect a firm to notify it if the firm does not propose to follow its individual liquidity guidance. The appropriate regulator will expect any such notification to be accompanied by a clear account of the firm's reasons for considering the individual liquidity guidance to be inappropriate. The appropriate regulator will expect to receive any such notification within one month from the date

BIPRU 12.9.15G01/04/2013

As part of the appropriate regulator's enquiry into the reasons for a firm's deviation, or expected deviation, from its individual liquidity guidance or, as the case may be, its simplified buffer requirement, the appropriate regulator may ask for further assessments and analyses of a firm's liquidity resources and the risks faced by the firm. The appropriate regulator may consider the use of its powers under section 166 of the Act to assist in such circumstances.

BIPRU 12.9.21G01/04/2013

If agreement through discussion with the appropriate regulator cannot be reached as to the necessary actions and timescales to remedy deviation from that guidance, the appropriate regulator will consider using its powers under the Act (for example, its power under section 55J to vary, on its own initiative, a firm'sPart 4A permission or its power of intervention under section 196) so as to require the firm to take such actions as the appropriate regulator considers are necessary

PERG 2.4.1G01/07/2005

Section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) provides that the requirement to be authorised under the Act only applies in relation to activities that are carried on 'in the United Kingdom'. In many cases, it will be quite straightforward to identify where an activity is carried on. But when there is a cross-border element, for example because a client is outside the United Kingdom or because some other element of the activity happens outside the United Kingdom, the question

PERG 2.4.3G27/07/2012

Section 418 of the Act (Carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom) takes this one step further. It extends the meaning that 'in the United Kingdom' would ordinarily have by setting out five additional cases. The Act states that, in these five cases, a person who is carrying on a regulated activity but who would not otherwise be regarded as carrying on the activity in the United Kingdom is, for the purposes of the Act, to be regarded as carrying on the activity in

PERG 2.4.5G01/07/2005

A person who is based outside the United Kingdom but who sets up an establishment in the United Kingdom must therefore consider the following matters. First, he must not, unless he is authorised, carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom. Second, unless he is authorised, the day-to-day management of the carrying on of the regulated activity must not be the responsibility of the UK establishment. This may, for example, affect those UK establishments that in the context

Related provisions for IPRU-INV 4.2.2

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