Related provisions for CONC 7.17.9

21 - 40 of 119 items.
Results filter

Search Term(s)

Filter by Modules

Filter by Documents

Filter by Keywords

Effective Period

Similar To

To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

MCOB 10A.1.5RRP
If an MCD regulated mortgage contract contains a fixed borrowing rate in relation to the initial period of at least five years, at the end of which a negotiation on the borrowing rate must take place to agree on a new fixed rate for a further material period, the calculation of the additional, illustrative APRC disclosed in the ESIS must:(1) cover only the initial fixed-rate period; and(2) be based on the assumption that, at the end of the fixed borrowing rate period, the capital
MCOB 10A.1.6RRP
If an MCD regulated mortgage contract:(1) allows for variations in the borrowing rate; and(2) it does not fall within MCOB 10A.1.5 R,the ESIS must contain an additional APRC which illustrates the possible risks linked to a significant increase in the borrowing rate. Where the borrowing rate is not capped, this information must be accompanied by a warning highlighting that the total cost of the credit to the consumer, shown by the APRC, may change.[Note: article 17(6) of the M
CASS 7.19.25RRP
The records maintained under this section, including the sub-pool disclosure documents, are a record of the firm that must be kept in a durable medium for at least five years following the date on which client money was last held by the firm for a sub-pool to which those records or the sub-pool disclosure document applied.
DISP App 3.9.2GRP
In assessing redress, the firm should consider whether there are any other further losses that flow from its breach or failing or from its failure to disclose commission (as applicable), 1 that were reasonably foreseeable as a consequence of the firm's breach or failing or of its failure to disclose commission,1 for example, where the payment protection contract's cost or rejected claims contributed to affordability issues for the associated loan or credit which led to arrears
DISP App 3.9.3GRP
Where, for single premium policies, there were previous breaches or failings or previous failures to disclose commission1 (see DISP App 3.2.7 G) the redress to the complainant should address the cumulative financial impact.
CONC 7.19.4RRP
Where a default sum becomes payable under a P2P agreement by the borrower, the firm must give notice to the borrower within 35 days of a default sum becoming payable by the borrower.
CONC 7.19.5RRP
The notice required by CONC 7.19.4 R must contain:(1) a form of wording to the effect that it relates to default sums and is given in compliance with FCArules;(2) the date of the notice;(3) a description of the agreement sufficient to identify it;(4) the firm's name, telephone number, postal address and, where appropriate, any other address;(5) the amount and nature of each default sum payable under the agreement which has not been the subject of a previous notice of default sums;(6)
CONC 4.5.3RRP
A credit broker must disclose to a customer in good time before a credit agreement or a consumer hire agreement is entered into, the existence of any commission or fee or other remuneration payable to the credit broker by the lender or owner or a third party in relation to a credit agreement or a consumer hire agreement, where knowledge of the existence or amount of the commission could actually or potentially:(1) affect the impartiality of the credit broker in recommending a
CONC 4.5.4RRP
At the request of the customer, a credit broker must disclose to the customer, in good time before a regulated credit agreement or a regulated consumer hire agreement is entered into, the amount (or if the precise amount is not known, the likely amount) of any commission or fee or other remuneration payable to the credit broker by the lender or owner or a third party.[Note: paragraph 3.7i (box) of CBG]
COBS 2.3.2RRP
A firm will satisfy the disclosure obligation under this section if it:(1) discloses the essential arrangements relating to the fee, commission or non-monetary benefit in summary form;(2) undertakes to the client that further details will be disclosed on request; and(3) honours the undertaking in (2).[Note:12article 29(2) of the UCITS implementing Directive]7
COBS 2.3.11GRP
(1) 1If a firm enters into an arrangement with another firm under which it makes or receives a payment of commission in relation to the sale of a packaged product that is increased in excess of the amount disclosed to the client, the firm is likely to have breached the rules on disclosure of charges, remuneration and commission (see COBS 6.4) and, where applicable, the rule on inducements in COBS 2.3.1R (2)(b), unless the increase is attributable to an increase in the premiums
CONC 8.5.1RRP
A firm must ensure that a financial statement sent to a lender on behalf of a customer: (1) is accurate and realistic and must present a sufficiently clear and complete account of the customer's income and expenditure, debts and the availability of surplus income; [Note: paragraph 3.24 of DMG](2) state any fees or charges being made by the firm; (3) is sent only after having obtained the customer's consent to send the statement and the customer's confirmation as to the accuracy
COLL 6.3.6GRP

Table: This table belongs to COLL 6.3.2 G (2) (a) and COLL 6.3.3 R (Valuation)1.

Valuation and pricing

1

The valuation of scheme property

(1)

Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review.

(2)

For some or all of the investments comprising the scheme property, different prices may quoted according to whether they are being bought (offer prices) or sold (bid prices). The valuation of a single-priced authorised fund should reflect the mid-market value of such investments. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the issue basis of the valuation will be carried out by reference to the offer prices of investments and the cancellation basis by reference to the bid prices of those same investments. The prospectus should explain how investments will be valued for which a single price is quoted for both buying and selling.1

1

3(2A)

Schemes investing in approved money-market instruments5should value such instruments on an amortised cost basis on condition that:5

55

[Note:CESR's UCITS eligible assets guidelines with respect to article 4(2) of the UCITS eligible assets Directive]

(2B)

[deleted]12

7

12

7

(3)

Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation).

(4)

For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should, in the case of a single-priced authorised fund,2 be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, any such payments should be added to the issue basis of the valuation, or subtracted from the cancellation basis of the valuation, as appropriate. Alternatively, the prospectus of a dual-priced authorised fund may prescribe any other method of calculating unitprices that ensures an equivalent treatment of the effect of these payments.2

(5)

Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that:

it should value an investment at a price which, in its opinion, reflects a fair and reasonable price for that investment (the fair value price);

(6)

The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include:

  • no recent trade in the security concerned; or
  • the occurrence of a significant event since the most recent closure of the market where the price of the security is taken.
In (b), a significant event is one that means the most recent price of a security or a basket of securities is materially different to the price that it is reasonably believed would exist at the valuation point had the relevant market been open.

(7)

In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration:

4(7A)

Where the authorised fund manager, the depositary or the standing independent valuer have reasonable grounds to believe that the most recent valuation of an immovable does not reflect the current value of that immovable, then, unless COLL 6.3.6G(1)(7B) applies,14 the authorised fund manager should consult and agree with the standing independent valuer a fair and reasonable value for the immovable.

14(7B)

Where the authorised fund manager decides that an immovable must be sold quickly to meet redemption requests as they fall due, it should consult and agree with the standing independent valuer a fair and reasonable price for the immovable to reflect a rapid sale, to extent that the prospectus states that it may do so.

(8)

The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly.

(9)

Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing.

2

The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager

(1)

An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices.

(2)

The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that:

  • asset prices are accurate and up to date;
  • investment 1transactions are accurately and promptly reflected in valuations;
  • the components of the valuation (including stock, cash, and units in issue1), are regularly reconciled to their source or prime records and any reconciling items resolved promptly and debtors reviewed for recoverability;
  • the sources of prices not obtained from the main pricing source are recorded and regularly reviewed;
  • compliance with the investment and borrowing powers is regularly reviewed;
  • dividends are accounted for as soon as securities1 are quoted ex-dividend (unless it is prudent to account for them on receipt):
  • fixed interest dividends, interest and expenses are accrued at each valuation point1;
  • tax positions are regularly reviewed and adjusted, if necessary;
  • reasonable tolerances are set for movements in the key elements of a valuation and movements outside these tolerances are investigated;5
  • the fund manager regularly reviews the portfolio valuation for accuracy5; and5
  • the valuation of OTC derivatives is accurate and up to date and in compliance with the methods agreed with the depositary.5

(3)

In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the authorised fund1or the materiality of any effect on the price.

(4)

Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained.

(5)

Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult.

(6)

Where the pricing1function is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply.

3

The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls

(1)

This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing1 functions to one or more third parties5.

5

(2)

A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them.

(3)

A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation.

(4)

A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory.

(5)

Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue1, securities prices (and in particular the prices of OTC derivatives,5unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor.

(6)

A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved.

4

The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing

(1)

An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable.

(2)

In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FCA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FCA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only.

(3)

A depositary should also report to the FCA immediately any instance of incorrect pricing1where the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager.

(4)

In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FCA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing1 during a particular period.

5

The rectification of pricing breaches

(1)

COLL 6.6.3R(3)(c)10(Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing1, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance.

(2)

A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricing1is of minimal significance if:

(3)

In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing1 is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately.

(4)

If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate).

(5)

The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing1 are accurately and promptly calculated and paid.

(6)

If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FCA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units.

(7)

It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price.

(8)

In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid.

COBS 4.6.2RRP
A firm must ensure that information that contains an indication of past performance of relevant business, a relevant investment or a financial index, satisfies the following conditions:(1) that indication is not the most prominent feature of the communication;(2) the information includes appropriate performance information which covers the6 preceding five years, or the whole period for which the investment has been offered, the financial index has been established, or the service
MCOB 12.3.4RRP
Before: (1) entering into a regulated mortgage contract with a customer; or(2) making a further advance on an existing regulated mortgage contract; or (3) changing all or part of a regulated mortgage contract from one interest rate to another;1a firm must disclose to the customer:(a) in the illustration provided in accordance with MCOB 5, MCOB 7.6.7 R, MCOB 7.6.18 R, MCOB 7.6.22 R, MCOB 7.6.31 R, or MCOB 9; and(b) in the illustration provided as part of the offer document in accordance
CONC 8.7.4RRP
A firm must:(1) in good time before entering into a contract with the customer, disclose the existence of any commission or incentive payments relevant to the service provided to the customer between the firm and any third party and at any time, if the customer requests, disclose the amount of any such commission or incentive payment; [Note: paragraph 3.34b and c of DMG](2) send a revised financial statement in the same format as that required under CONC 8.5.1 R to the customer'slenders
MCOB 12.5.3GRP
When determining whether a charge is excessive, a firm should consider:(1) the amount of its charges for the services or products in question compared with charges for similar products or services on the market; (2) the degree to which the charges are an abuse of the trust that the customer has placed in the firm; and (3) the nature and extent of the disclosure of the charges to the customer.