Related provisions for BIPRU 12.4.11A
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(1) The aim of the dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code is to ensure that firms have risk-focused remuneration policies, which are consistent with and promote effective risk management and do not expose them to excessive risk. It expands upon the general organisational requirements in SYSC 4.(2) The dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code implements the main provisions of the CRD which relate to remuneration. In applying the rules in the dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code,
For the purposes of regulated mortgage activities, sections 418(2), (4), (5), (5A) and (6) are relevant, as follows:(1) Section 418(2) refers to a case where a UK-based person carries on a regulated activity in another EEA State in the exercise of rights under a Single Market Directive. The only Single Market Directives which are relevant to mortgages are the CRD and the MCD.44(2) Section 418(4) refers to the case where a UK-based person carries on a regulated activity and the
The Principles are a general statement of the fundamental obligations of firms and the other persons to whom they apply14 under the regulatory system. This includes provisions which implement the Single Market Directives.5 They derive their authority from the FCA’s11 rule-making powers as set out in the Act, including as applied by the Payment Services Regulations and the Electronic Money Regulations,14 and reflect the statutory objectives.3
Section 34 of the Act states that an incoming EEA firm no longer qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act if it ceases to be an incoming EEA firm as a result of:(1) having its EEA authorisation withdrawn by its Home State regulator; or(2) ceasing to have an EEA right in circumstances in which EEA authorisation is not required; this is relevant to a financial institution that is a subsidiary of a credit institution (of the kind mentioned in Article 345of the CRD5)
7When PERG 2.5.7G applies, the product is only treated as falling within the definition of the specified investment concerned if (in relation to that product):(1) one of the following persons:(a) a MiFID investment firm; or(b) a third country investment firm; or(c) a CRD credit institution; or(d) a credit institution that would qualify to be a CRD credit institution if its registered or head office were in the EEA;provides or performs investment services and/or activities on a
(1) The ICVC or depositary of an AUT or ACS4 (on the instructions of the authorised fund manager4) may, in accordance with this rule and COLL 5.5.5 R (Borrowing limits), borrow money for the use of the authorised fund on terms that the borrowing is to be repayable out of the scheme property.44(2) Paragraph (1) is subject to the obligation of the authorised fund to comply with any restriction in the instrument constituting the fund.55(3) The ICVC or depositary of an AUT or ACS4
1A firm4 must have:(1) transparent4 rules and procedures for fair and orderly trading;[Note: articles 18(1) and 19(1)4of MiFID](2) objective criteria for the efficient execution of orders which are established and implemented in non-discretionary rules4; [Note: articles 18(1) and 19(1)4 of MiFID](2A) arrangements for the sound management of the technical operations of the facility, including the establishment of effective contingency arrangements to cope with the risks of systems
6Paragraph 2B(1) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 7(1)(d) of the UCITS Directive, paragraphs 2B(1) to 2B(23) of Schedule 6 to the Act implement article 5(4) of MiFID, paragraph 2B(4) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 2(1)(10) of the IDD7 and paragraph 2B(7) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 8(1)(e) of AIFMD, although the Act extends the threshold condition set out in paragraph 2B of Schedule 6 of the Act to authorised persons that are not PRA-authorised
A firm may only make use of the exemptions provided in this section where the following conditions are met:(1) the specific nature of the exposure, the counterparty or the relationship between the firm and the counterparty eliminate or reduce the risk of the exposure; and(2) any remaining concentration risk can be addressed by other equally effective means, such as the arrangements, processes and mechanisms in article 81 of CRD (Concentration risk).[Note: article 400(3) of the
A UK firm17 cannot establish a branch in another EEA State for the first time under an EEA right unless the relevant13 conditions in paragraphs 19(2), (4) and (5)12 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act are satisfied. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to contravene this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act). These conditions are that:913121213(1) the UKfirm has given the appropriate UK regulator,20 in accordance with the
(1) On qualifying for authorisation, subject to SUP 13A.3.1C G (1),6 an EEA firm (except for an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)7 will have permission to carry on each permitted activity (see (3) below) which is a regulated activity.6(2) 6[deleted](3) The permitted activities of an EEA firm (except for an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)7 are those activities identified in the
A firm which permits direct electronic access to an MTF it operates must:(1) not permit members or participants of the MTF to provide such services unless they are: (a) investment firms authorised under MiFID; or(b) CRD credit institutions; or(c) third country firms providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under article 46.1 of MiFIR; or(d) third country firms providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under article