Related provisions for MCOB 13.3.4C
41 - 60 of 1113 items.
(1) The FCA may require a primary information provider to provide specified information or specified documents to the FCA.(2) The primary information provider must as soon as practicable provide to the FCA any information or documents it has been required to provide under (1).(3) This rule applies only to information or documents reasonably required by the FCA in connection with the performance of its functions in relation to a primary information provider.
Situations when the FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a primary information provider can provide include (but are not limited to) where it appears to the FCA that:(1) the primary information provider's ability to satisfy its obligations in DTR 8.4 would be likely to be compromised; or(2) the primary information provider is proposing to make changes to its systems and controls or operations which would be likely to prevent it from satisfying any of its
A request by a primary information provider for its approval as a primary information provider to be suspended must be in writing and must include:(1) the primary information provider's name;(2) a clear explanation of the background and reasons for the request;(3) the date on which the primary information provider requests the suspension to take effect; and(4) the name and contact details of the person at the primary information provider with whom the FCA should liaise in relation
A request by a primary information provider for its approval as a primary information provider to be cancelled must be in writing and must include:(1) the primary information provider's name; (2) a clear explanation of the background and reasons for the request;(3) the date on which the primary information provider requests the cancellation to take effect; and(4) the name and contact details of the person at the primary information provider with whom the FCA should liaise in relation
The FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a primary information provider can provide or suspend a primary information provider's approval if the FCA considers it desirable to do so in order to advance one or more of its operational objectives.[Note: A statutory notice may be required under section 89V of the Act. Where this is the case, the procedure for giving a statutory notice is set out in DEPP.]
A full credit institution to which regulation 105 of the Payment Services Regulations applies must notify the FCA if it refuses a request for access to payment account services from:(1) a person falling within paragraphs (1)(a) to (e) (excluding (1)(d)) of the Glossary definition of payment service provider; or(2) an applicant for authorisation or registration as such a payment service provider.
Unless the FCA directs otherwise, a notification required by regulation 105(3) of the Payment Services Regulations and SUP 15.14.3D must be submitted by the full credit institution to the FCA: (1) in the form specified in SUP 15 Annex 9D;
(2) by electronic means made available by the FCA; and(3) at the same time as it informs the person referred to in SUP 15.14.3D(1) or (2) of its refusal.
The direction in SUP 15.14.6D will not apply if the FCA gives a different direction to a specific credit institution, in the light of the particular circumstances surrounding a refusal of access to payment account services, about how to notify the FCA. The FCA is likely to be minded to do so where a credit institution decides to withdraw access to a large number of persons falling within paragraphs (1)(a) to (e) (excluding (1)(d)) of the Glossary definition of payment service
Credit institutions are reminded of the general notification requirements in SUP 15.3, including the obligation to notify the FCA as soon as they become aware of any matter (including a matter which may occur in the foreseeable future) which could affect their ability to continue to provide adequate services to their customers and which could result in serious detriment to a customer of the credit institution (SUP 15.3.1R(3)).
A notification required by regulation 71(8)(c) of the Payment Services Regulations and SUP 15.14.10D must be submitted by the account servicing payment service provider to the FCA: (1) in the form specified in SUP 15 Annex 10(2) by electronic means made available by the FCA; and (3) immediately after the first occasion on which it denies the account information service provider or the payment initiation service provider in question access to a payment account.
Where an account servicing payment service provider has already submitted a notification in accordance with regulation 71(8)(c) of the Payment Services Regulations and SUP 15.14.10D and continues to deny access to a payment account, it is not required to notify the FCA of a consecutive denial of access that happens after the original notification was sent if it: (1) is in respect of the same account information service provider or payment initiation service provider; and(2) arises
An account servicing payment service provider that has previously submitted a notification in accordance with regulation 71(8)(c) of the Payment Services Regulations and SUP 15.14.10D must notify the FCA if it subsequently restores access to the payment account for the account information service provider or payment initiation service provider that was the subject of the original notification, unless it indicated in the first notification that it intended to immediately restore
A notification required under SUP 15.14.15D must be submitted by the account servicing payment service provider to the FCA:(1) in the form specified in SUP 15 Annex 10; (2) by electronic means made available by the FCA; and (3) immediately after it restores access to the payment account(s) for the account information service provider or payment initiation service provider.
Regulation 99(1) of the Payment Services Regulations provides that, if a payment service provider becomes aware of a major operational or security incident, the payment service provider must, without undue delay, notify the FCA. The purpose of this section is to direct the form and manner in which such notifications must made and the information they must contain, in exercise of the power in regulation 100(2) of the Payment Services Regulations.
The EBA has issued Guidelines on incident reporting under the Payment Services Directive that specify the criteria a payment service provider should use to assess whether an operational or security incident is major and needs to be reported to the FCA. These Guidelines also specify the format for the notification and the procedures the payment service provider should follow.
In particular, a notification required by regulation 99(1) of the Payment Services Regulations must be submitted by the payment service provider to the FCA:(1) within the timescales and at the frequencies specified in the EBA’s Guidelines on incident reporting under the Payment Services Directive;(2) in writing on the form specified in SUP 15 Annex 11D; and(3) by such electronic means as the FCA may specify.
Where the electronic means of submission of notifications is known not to be available or operated at the time the incident is first detected, the notification should be sent to the FCA as soon as the electronic means of submission becomes available and operational again. Unless the FCA has informed a specific payment service provider that electronic means of submission are also available to it and operated at other times, the electronic means of submission are available and operated
Payment service providers are reminded that regulation 142 of the Payment Services Regulations (Misleading the FCA or the Payment Systems Regulator) makes it an offence for a person to knowingly or recklessly provide the FCA with information which is false or misleading in a material particular in purported compliance with the directions given in this section or any other requirement imposed by or under the Payment Services Regulations.
73A firm which manages the assets of an occupational pension scheme must notify the FCA20 as soon as reasonably practicable if it receives any request or instruction from a trustee which it:20(1) knows; or(2) on substantial grounds:(a) suspects; or(b) has cause reasonably to suspect;is at material variance with the trustee's duties.1
(1) An insurer must notify the FCA20in respect of any firm (the "intermediary") as soon as reasonably practicable if:20(a) any amount of commission due from the intermediary to the insurer in accordance with an indemnity commission clawback arrangement remains outstanding for four months after the date when the insurer gave notice to the intermediary that the relevant premium had not been paid; or(b) any amount of commission due from the intermediary to the insurer as a result
(1) 467In accordance with regulation 2317 of the Money Laundering Regulations, with effect from 26 June 201717 , a firm is required to notify the FCA:201111111120(a) before it begins or within 28 days of it beginning11; and(b) immediately11 after it ceases;11to operate a money service business or a trust or company service provider.1111(2) The notification referred to in (1) should be made in accordance with the requirements in SUP 15.7 (Form and method of notification)
467A firm which is already operating a money service business or a trust or company service provider11 immediately before 26 June 201717 is required by the Money Laundering Regulations to notify the FCA20 of that fact within 30 days17 and should do so in the manner specified in SUP 15.8.4 G(2)17.1111112011
(1) 9If a firm begins or ceases to hold itself out as acting as a CTF provider, it must notify the FCA20 as soon as reasonably practicable that it has done so.20(2) A firm that acts as a CTF provider must provide theFCA,20 as soon as reasonably practicable, with details of:20(a) any third party administrator that it engages;(b) details of whether it intends to offer HMRC allocated CTFs12; and12(c) whether it intends to provide its own stakeholder CTF account.
18A full credit institution which:(1) prior to 13 January 2018, started to provide a service which, if provided on or after 13 January 2018, would have constituted an account information service or a payment initiation service; and(2) continues to provide an account information service or a payment initiation service on 13 January 2018,
must notify the FCA that it is providing account information services or payment initiation services by 10 February 2018.
The power in regulation 5A of the RAP Regulations to impose a civil penalty
or publish a statement adds to the FCA's2 other supervisory powers in relation to RAPs (see REC 4) and
its power to impose penalties on an RAP under
the Money Laundering Regulations.
The FCA2 will
use this power under the RAP Regulations where
it is appropriate to do so and with regard to the relevant factors listed
in DEPP 6.2.1 G.
In deciding between a civil penalty or a public statement, the FCA2 will
The FCA2 will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed
officers to carry out an investigation under either or both the RAP Regulations or the Money
Laundering Regulations and the reasons for the appointment,
unless notification is likely to prejudice the investigation or otherwise
result in it being frustrated. The FCA2 expects to carry out a scoping visit early on in the enforcement
process in most cases.22
The FCA2 will also have regard to whether the person followed any of the FCA's2 guidance
and will not take action under regulation 5A where there are reasonable grounds
for it to be satisfied that the person took all reasonable steps and exercised
all due diligence to ensure that the requirement was complied with.22
When the FCA2 proposes or decides to take action against an RAP in
exercise of its power in regulation 5A of the RAP
Regulations, it must give the RAP a warning notice or a decision
notice respectively. Those notices must state the amount of
the penalty or set out the terms of the statement, as applicable. On receiving
a warning notice, the RAP has a right to make representations
on the FCA's2 proposed
decision.22
Where the FCA2 is proposing or deciding to publish a statement censuring an RAP or impose a penalty on the RAP under regulation 5A of the RAP Regulations, the FCA's2 decision maker will be the RDC.
This is to ensure that the FCA's2 power to censure or impose a penalty on an RAP has
the same layer of separation in the decision making process, and is exercised
consistently with, similar penalty and censure powers of the FCA2 under other legislation. The RDC will
make its decisions
LR 8.4.2 R to LR 8.4.4 G2 apply in relation to an application for admission of securities11 to premium listing65if an applicant does not have securities11 already admitted to premium listing ,68 the conditions in LR 6.1.1R(1), LR 6.1.1R(2), LR 21.2.5R(1), LR 21.2.5R(2), LR 21.6.13R(1) or LR 21.6.13R(2)11 do not apply and8, in connection with the application, the applicant is required to publish a document under article 1(4)(f) or (g) or (5)(e) or (f) of the Prospectus Regulation
A sponsor must not submit to the FCA an application on behalf of an applicant, in accordance with LR 3, unless it has come to a reasonable opinion, after having made due and careful enquiry, that:(1) the applicant has satisfied all requirements of the listing rules relevant to an application for admission to listing;(2) the applicant has satisfied all applicable requirements set out in the prospectus rules unless the home Member State of the applicant is not, or will not be, the
A sponsor must:(1) submit a completed Sponsor's Declaration on an Application for Listing to the FCA either:2(a) on the day the FCA is to consider the application for approval of the prospectus and prior to the time the prospectus is approved; or(b) at a time agreed with the FCA, if the FCA is not approving the prospectus13;1(2) submit a completed Shareholder Statement or Pricing Statement, as applicable, to the FCA by 9 a.m. on the day the FCA is to consider the application;(3)
A sponsor must not submit to the FCA an application on behalf of an applicant, in accordance with LR 3 (Listing applications), unless it has come to a reasonable opinion, after having made due and careful enquiry, that:(1) the applicant has satisfied all requirements of the listing rules relevant to an application for admission to listing;(2) the applicant has satisfied all applicable requirements set out in the prospectus rules unless the home Member State of the applicant is
A sponsor must:(1) submit a completed Sponsor's Declaration on an Application for Listing to the FCA either:(a) on the day the FCA is to consider the application for approval of the prospectus and prior to the time the prospectus is approved; or11(b) at a time agreed with the FCA if the FCA is not approving the prospectus or if it is determining whether a document is an equivalent document1;(2) submit a completed Shareholder Statement or Pricing Statement, as applicable, to the
LR 8.4.12 R to LR 8.4.13 R apply in relation to transactions involving an issuer with 5 a premium listing411that is required to submit to the FCA for approval8:545(1) a class 1 circular; or48(2) a circular that proposes a reconstruction or a re-financing which does not constitute a class 1 transaction; or8(3) a circular for the proposed purchase of own shares:88(a) which does not constitute a class 1 circular; and(b) is required by LR 13.7.1R (2) to include a working capital
A sponsor must not submit to the FCA, on behalf of a listed company, a circular regarding a transaction set out in LR 8.4.11 R for approval8, unless the sponsor has come to a reasonable opinion, after having made due and careful enquiry, that:8(1) the listed company has satisfied all requirements of the listing rules relevant to the production of a class 1 circular or other circular;(2) the transaction will not have an adverse impact on the listed company's ability to comply with
A sponsor acting on a transaction falling within LR 8.4.11 R must:(1) submit a completed Sponsor's Declaration for the Production of a Circular to the FCA on the day the circular is to be approved by the FCA and prior to the time the circular is approved;(2) submit a completed Pricing Statement, if applicable, to the FCA by 9 a.m on the day the FCA is to consider the application; and(3) ensure that all matters known to it which, in its reasonable opinion, should be taken into
In relation to a proposed transfer under LR 5.4A, if a sponsor is appointed6 in accordance with LR 8.2.1A R, it6 must:6(1) submit a letter to the FCA setting out how the issuer satisfies each listing rule requirement relevant to the category of listing to which it wishes to transfer, by no later than when the first draft of the circular or announcement required under LR 5.4A is submitted;(2) submit a completed Sponsor’s Declaration for a Transfer of Listing7 to the FCA for the
A sponsor must not submit to the FCA on behalf of an issuer a final circular or announcement for approval or a Sponsor’s Declaration for a Transfer of Listing7, unless it has come to a reasonable opinion, after having made due and careful enquiry, that:7(1) the issuer satisfies all eligibility requirements of the listing rules that are relevant to the new category to which it is seeking to transfer;(2) the issuer has satisfied all requirements relevant to the production of the
6A sponsor acting on a reverse takeover where the issuer decides to make a disclosure announcement under LR 5.6.15 G must:(1) submit to the FCA under LR 5.6.17 R a completed Sponsor’s Declaration for a Reverse Takeover Announcement7;(2) not submit to the FCA the Sponsor’s Declaration for a Reverse Takeover Announcement7 unless it has come to a reasonable opinion, after having made due and careful enquiry, that it is reasonable for the issuer to provide the declarations described
The issuer must send to the FCA annual written confirmation of compliance with Regulations 16 (sums derived from the issue of regulated covered bonds) and 17 (general requirements on the issuer in relation to the asset pool) of the RCB Regulations in the form set out in RCB 3 Annex 1D (annual confirmation of compliance).
1Where possible, the director or senior manager who signs the annual confirmation should be the same director or senior manager who has verified the application for registration under RCB 2.2.6 D. If the director or senior manager is different to the director or senior manager who verified the application for registration, the issuer should notify the FCA at least one month before sending the confirmation to the FCA.
(1) The owner must ensure that a duly authorised representative signs the confirmation and confirms on the FCA's form that the owner has obtained the appropriate third party advice or reports required by this section.(2) The owner must obtain appropriate advice in the same manner as set out in RCB 3.2.2 D and must provide a copy of the asset pool monitor's report to the FCA as set out in RCB 3.2.4B D.1
1The FCA expects the inspection by the asset pool monitor of the compliance of the issuer or owner (as the case may be) with the relevant requirements in the RCB Regulations to address at least the matters to be checked and due diligence procedures set out in RCB 2.3.18 G. The FCA expects that the inspection will be conducted on an agreed-upon-procedures basis.
1As required under Regulation 17A of the RCB Regulations, if it appears to the asset pool monitor that the issuer or owner (as the case may be) has failed to comply with the requirements set out in Regulations 17 or 24 of the RCB Regulations, or has not provided all relevant information or explanations, the asset pool monitor must report that to the FCA in writing as soon as possible.
1It also imposes obligations on registered firms to comply with conduct requirements set out in the Schedule to the MCDO, retain relevant information and to deal with the FCA in an open and co-operative manner. The FCA also has the power to give directions to a registered firm to secure compliance with the requirements set out in the Schedule. In addition, the FCA has investigation and sanctioning powers in relation to the framework.
1The FCA's approach to taking enforcement action under the MCDO will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. It will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate and responsive to the issue and consistent with its publicly stated policies. It will also seek to ensure fair treatment when exercising its enforcement powers. Finally, it will aim to change the behaviour of the person who is the subject of its action,
1Article 23 of the MCDO applies many of the provisions of the Act in relation to the FCA’s investigation and information-gathering powers in respect of a registered firm. The effect of this is to apply the same procedures under the Act for appointing investigators and requiring information when investigating contraventions of the MCDO.
1For example, the FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed investigators to carry out an investigation under the MCDO and the reasons for the appointment, unless notification is likely to result in the investigation being frustrated. In most cases, the FCA expects to carry out a scoping visit early on in the enforcement process. The FCA's policy in regulatory investigations under the MCDO is to use powers to compel information, in the same way as
1The RDC is the FCA’s decision maker for some decisions which require warning notices or decision notices to be given under the MCDO as set out in DEPP 2 Annex 1G. The RDC will make its decisions following the procedure set out in DEPP 3.2 or, where appropriate, DEPP 3.3, and DEPP 3.4 applies for urgent notices under article 16(1)(a).
1Article 18(3) applies sections 393 and 394 of the Act to warning notices and decision notices given under the MCDO and so require the FCA to give third party rights and to give access to material as set out under the Act. Article 24(1) applies the procedural provisions of Part 9 of the Act, in respect of matters that can be referred to the Tribunal, and article 24(2) applies Part 26 of the Act to warning and decision notices given under the MCDO.
1 When determining whether to take action to impose a penalty or to issue a public censure under the MCDO, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6.2 and DEPP 6.4. When determining the level of financial penalty, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6.5, DEPP 6.5A, DEPP 6.5D and DEPP 6.7.
1When determining whether to take action to impose a suspension under the MCDO, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6A.2 and 6A.4. When determining the length of the period of suspension, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6A.3.
If a reason for taking disciplinary action as referred to in section 64C of the Act (Requirement for authorised persons to notify regulator of disciplinary action)5 is any action, failure to act or circumstance that amounts to a breach of COCON, then the SMCR firm5 is required to notify the FCA of the disciplinary action.4
4The effect of section 64C of the Act and SUP 15.11.6R is that the reporting obligation in section 64C of the Act and in this section: (1) only applies to SMCR firms; and5(2) only covers persons who are subject to COCON (who are called conduct rules staff in the FCA Handbook) rather than to the whole workforce of an SMCR firm.5
A firm should make a separate notification about a person under section 64C of the Act where:(1) it has made a notification to the FCA about the5person pursuant to SUP 15.3.11R(1)(a) because of a breach of COCON2; and(2) it subsequently takes disciplinary action against the person for the action, failure to act, or circumstance, that amounted to a breach of COCON.
If, after a firm has made a notification for a person (A) pursuant to section 64C of the Act,2 it becomes aware of facts or matters which cause it to change its view that A has breached COCON, or cause it to determine that A has breached a provision of COCON other than the provision to which the notification related, the firm should inform the FCA of those facts and matters and its revised conclusion in line with a firm’s obligation to comply with Principle 11, SUP 15.6.4R and,
(1) If a firm takes disciplinary action as a result of a conduct breach (see SUP 15.11.6R) against an employee but the employee has appealed or plans to appeal, the firm should still report the disciplinary action under section 64C of the Act but should include the appeal in the notification.5(2) The firm should update the FCA on the outcome of any appeal.52
(1) A firm must make any notifications required pursuant to section 64C of the Act relating to conduct rules staff other than SMF managers4in accordance with SUP 15.11.13R to SUP 15.11.15R.3(2) That notification must be made annually.3(3) Each notification must:3(a) cover;63(i) 6(in the case of a firm falling within SYSC 23 Annex 1
6.7R (credit firms with limited permission)) its annual
financial reporting period ending on its accounting
reference date; or(ii) 6(for any other
(1) A firm other than a credit union must make each notification pursuant to SUP 15.11.13R (notifications about section 64C of the Act relating to conduct rules staff other than SMF managers4) by submitting it online through the FCA’s website using the electronic system made available by the FCA for this purpose.3(2) A firm must use the version of Form H (named REP008 – Notification of Disciplinary Action) 4made available on the electronic system referred to in (1), which is based
(1) 3If the information technology systems used by the FCA fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FCA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that:(a) online submission is unavailable; and(b) the alternative methods of submission in SUP 15.11.15R apply.(2) Where SUP 15.11.14R(3) applies to a firm, GEN 1.3.2R (Emergency) does not apply.
1The Immigration Regulations (as amended by the Immigration Act 2014 (Current Accounts) (Excluded Accounts and Notification Requirements) Regulations 2016)2 give the FCA investigation and sanctioning powers in relation to the contravention of sections 40, 40A, 40B and 40G2 of the Immigration Act 2014 (as amended by the Immigration Act 2016)2 (the Immigration Act), as well as the contravention of requirements imposed by, or under, the Immigration Regulations.
1The FCA's approach to taking enforcement action under the Immigration Regulations will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. It will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate and responsive to the issue and consistent with its publicly stated policies. It will also seek to ensure fair treatment when exercising its enforcement powers. Finally, it will aim to change the behaviour of the person who is
1The FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed investigators to carry out an investigation under the Immigration Regulations and the reasons for the appointment, unless notification is likely to result in the investigation being frustrated. In most cases, the FCA expects to carry out a scoping visit early on in the enforcement process. The FCA's
policy in civil investigations under the Immigration Regulations is to use powers to
1When determining whether to take action to impose a penalty or to issue a public censure under the Immigration Regulations, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6.2 and DEPP 6.4. When determining the level of financial penalty, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6.5 to DEPP 6.5B, DEPP 6.5D and DEPP 6.7.
1When determining whether to take action to impose a suspension or restriction under the Immigration Regulations, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6A.2 and 6A.4. When determining the length of the period of suspension or restriction, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6A.3.
1The Referral Fees Regulations give the FCA investigation and sanctioning powers in relation to the contravention of the rules against referral fees contained in sections 56 to 60 of the Legal Aid, Sentencing and Punishment of Offenders Act 2012 (the LASPO Act), as well as the contravention of requirements imposed by, or under, the Referral Fees Regulations.
1The FCA's approach to taking enforcement action under the Referral Fees Regulations will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. It will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate and responsive to the issue and consistent with its publicly stated policies. It will also seek to ensure fair treatment when exercising its enforcement powers. Finally, it will aim to change the behaviour of the person who
1The FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed investigators to carry out an investigation under the Referral Fees Regulations and the reasons for the appointment, unless notification is likely to result in the investigation being frustrated. In most cases, the FCA expects to carry out a scoping visit early on in the enforcement process. The FCA's
policy in civil investigations under the Referral Fees Regulations is to use powers
1When determining whether to take action to impose a penalty or to issue a public censure under the Referral Fees Regulations, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6.2 and DEPP 6.4. When determining the level of financial penalty, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6.5 to 6.5B, DEPP 6.5D and DEPP 6.7.
1When determining whether to take action to impose a suspension or restriction under the Referral Fees Regulations, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6A.2 and 6A.4. When determining the length of the period of suspension or restriction, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6A.3. However, the FCA does not have the power to suspend an authorised person’spermission under the Referral Fees Regulations.
1The FCA, together with several other UK authorities, has powers under Part 8 of the Enterprise Act to enforce breaches of consumer protection law. Where a breach has been committed, the FCA will liaise with other authorities, particularly the Competition and Markets Authority (the CMA), to determine which authority is best placed to take enforcement action. The FCA would generally expect to be the most appropriate authority to deal with breaches by authorised firms in relation
1The Community legislation falling within the FCA's scope under the Enterprise Act is: the Unfair Terms in Consumer Contracts Directive;17the Comparative and Misleading Advertising Directive;18the E-Commerce Directive;19the Distance Marketing Directive;20the Unfair Commercial Practices Directive; 21andthe Consumer Credit Directive.2217 Directive 93/13/EEC18 Directive 97/55/EC19 Directive 2000/31/EC20 Directive 2002/65/EC21 Directive 2005/29/EC22 Directive 2008/48/EC
1The FCA has powers under Part 8 of the Enterprise Act both as a “designated enforcer” in relation to domestic and Community infringements and as a “CPC enforcer” which gives the FCA and other CPC enforcers additional powers in relation to Community infringements so that they can meet their obligations as “competent authorities” under Regulation (EC) No.2006/2004 on co-operation between national authorities responsible for enforcement of consumer protection laws (the CPC Regulation).
1As a designated enforcer, the FCA has the power to apply to the courts for an enforcement order which requires a person who has committed a domestic or Community infringement or, as to the latter, is likely to commit such an infringement: (1) not to engage, including through a company and, as to a domestic infringement, whether or not in the course of business, in the conduct which constituted, or is likely to constitute, the infringement; (2) to publish the order and/or a corrective
1The FCA may also apply, if necessary without notice, for interim enforcement orders where immediate temporary prohibition of the relevant conduct is expedient pending full consideration by the court. Such interim orders can also be sought pre-emptively in relation to Community infringements, but again only preventing conduct in the course of business.
1The FCA’s investigative powers in support of its Enterprise Act enforcement powers are set out in Schedule 5 to the CRA. The FCA can, under Schedule 5, require any person to provide it with information which will enable it to (i) exercise or consider exercising its functions as an enforcer; or (ii) determine whether a person is complying with an enforcement order, an interim enforcement order or an undertaking given as described below. If the FCA requires a person to provide
1Before the FCA may apply for an enforcement order, including an interim enforcement order, it must: (1) give notice to the CMA of its intention to apply for an enforcement order; and (2) unless the application relates to breach of an undertaking given to the court (other than one to provide information), consult the person against whom the enforcement order would be made.
1The aim of consultation is to ensure that any action taken is necessary and proportionate, and to ensure that businesses are given a reasonable opportunity to put things right before the courts become involved. The consultation period starts when the person receives the FCA's request for consultation and runs whether or not that person agrees to be consulted and/or is available for consultation.
1In addition to its powers as a designated enforcer under the Enterprise Act, the FCA also has powers, in its capacity as a “CPC enforcer” and, therefore, only in respect of Community infringements, to enter commercial premises with or without a warrant. The FCA must give at least two working days’ notice of its intention to enter such premises without a warrant unless that is not reasonably practicable. If the FCA cannot give a notice in advance, it must produce the notice on
1The FCA anticipates that its powers under the Act will be adequate to address the majority of breaches which it would also be able to enforce under the Enterprise Act and that there will therefore be limited cases in which it would seek to use its powers as an Enterprise Act enforcer. Where the FCA does use its powers under the Enterprise Act, it will have regard to the enforcement guidelines which are published on the CMA’s website.2323www.gov.uk/governmentorganisations
1The FCA may apply for such an order where a criminal investigation has been started or where proceedings have started but not concluded; in either case there must be reasonable cause to believe that the defendant has benefited from criminal conduct. In this context, a person benefits from criminal conduct if he obtains property or a pecuniary advantage as a result of or in connection with conduct that would be an offence if it took place in England or Wales, regardless of whether
The FCA expects that an IPRE rating system will only be compliant if a firm is able to demonstrate the following in respect of its treatment of cash flows (except where the firm can demonstrate that this is not an appropriate risk driver):(1) the difference in deal ratings when tenant ratings are altered is intuitive;(2) the transformation of ratings into non-rent payment probability is intuitive. Even where tenants are rated by the firm the PD will not usually represent a direct
The FCA expects that an IPRE rating system will only be compliant if a firm is able to demonstrate the following in respect of its treatment of interest-rate risk (IRR):(1) IRR is included as a relevant risk driver (unless the portfolio is exclusively hedged);(2) the way in which IRR is included in the deal rating is intuitive with respect to model philosophy. For example, a 'point in time' rating should consider the current interest rate and likely change over a one-year time
The FCA expects that firms will not be compliant with the calibration requirements relating to use of a long-run default rate, unless it can demonstrate that:(1) the internal data series is the longest relevant and accurate data series, on a EU CRR compliant definition of default, that is available;(2) the determination of long-run default rate includes reference to an appropriate source of downturn data (this may require the use of external data);(3) the relevance of any external
The FCA expects that a firm will only be compliant with the calibration requirements relating to model philosophy if it can demonstrate that:(1) the model philosophy is clearly articulated and justified. Justification should include analysis of the performance of assets, and the corresponding ratings assigned, over a change in economic conditions (ie, as long as period as possible); and(2) in addition to encapsulating this information in a coherent way in the calibration, the
The FCA considers that, to meet the requirements referred to in IFPRU 4.11.1 G, it will be necessary for firms to demonstrate that a firm has a good understanding of PD models that are constructed theoretically and that the parameter estimates reflect a one-year PD. In addition, even if empirical data were not used to determine the PD estimate it should, where available, be used to back-test the estimates.
The FCA expects that, as most models of this type will be able to produce one-year estimates of PD that correspond closely to point-in-time estimates, firms should conduct robust back-testing of such estimates by comparing them with realised default rates. Firms would need to demonstrate that the results of such back-testing meet pre-defined and stringent standards in order for the FCA to be satisfied that the IRB requirements are met.
Because assumptions in the model build process are likely to materially impact the resulting PDs, the FCA would expect these choices to be clearly justified in the model documentation and to have been independently reviewed. To be satisfied that a firm is complying with article 176(1)(d) of the EU CRR, the FCA expects a firm to support justification for all assumptions with analysis of the sensitivity of the model outputs to changes in the assumptions.
The FCA expects that a firm will be compliant with the validation requirements only where1it can demonstrate, in respect of discriminatory power, that:11(1) appropriate minimum standards that the rating system is expected to reach are defined, together with reasoning behind the adoption of such standards and that the factors considered when determining the tests are clearly documented;(2) an objective rank-ordering metric, measured using an appropriate time horizon (eg, using
The FCA expects that a firm will be compliant with the validation requirements only where1it can demonstrate in respect of the calibration that:11(1) observed default rate versus PD is considered at grade level and across a range of economic environments (ie, as long as period as possible);(2) where the PD does not relate to a pure point-in-time estimate, either the PD or the observed default rate is transformed such that comparison between the two is meaningful. This transformation
The FCA also expects that a firm will be compliant with the validation requirements only where1it can demonstrate that:11(1) appropriate stability metrics should be considered across a range of economic environments (ie, longest period possible including most recent data);(2) the tolerances for the degree of divergence, and associated actions for what should happen when they are not met, is pre-defined; and(3) subsections of portfolios by characteristics affecting risk profile,
The FCA expects that a firm will1 be able to comply with certain other EU CRR requirements only where it can1demonstrate that:11(1) in relation to article 144(1)(e) of the EU CRR, where more than one model is used, the rationale, and the associated boundary issues, is clearly articulated and justified and the criteria for assigning an asset to a rating model are objective and clear;(2) in relation to article 173(1)(c) of the EU CRR, the firm has a process in place to ensure valuations
The disaster recovery provider sets up and maintains a range of IT and related facilities (PABX etc). The disaster recovery contracts so far considered by the FCA give the recipient, subject to certain conditions including an up front payment, priority access to all or a specified part of these facilities if a 'disaster' causes the failure of a similar business system on which the recipient relies. The provider sells access to the same facilities to a number of different recipients,
However, the disaster recovery contracts considered by the FCA had two key features.(1) Priority access to facilities in the event of a disaster was expressed to be on a 'first come, first served' basis. The contracts provided expressly that if the facilities needed by recipient A were already in use, following an earlier invocation by recipient B, the provider's obligation to recipient A was reduced to no more than an obligation of 'best endeavours' to meet A's requirements.
An important part of the conclusion in PERG 6.7.5 G was that, although the provider assumed a risk at the outset of the contract, looking at the contract as a whole and interpreting the common law in the context of the FCA objectives (see PERG 6.5.2 G and PERG 6.5.3 G) there was no relevant assumption of risk.(1) The presence or absence of an assumption of risk is an important part of the statutory rationale for the prudential regulation of insurance.(2) In Medical Defence Union
The FCA is unlikely to classify a contract containing a simple manufacturer's or retailer's warranty as a contract of insurance, if the FCA is satisfied that the warranty does no more that crystallise or recognise obligations that are of the same nature as a seller's or supplier's usual obligations as regards the quality of the goods or services.
It follows from PERG 6.7.10 G that the FCA is unlikely to be satisfied that an obligation in a contract of sale or supply is of the same nature as the seller's or supplier's usual obligations as regards the quality of goods or services, if that obligation has one or more of the following features:(1) it is assumed by a person other than the seller or supplier (a 'third party'); or(2) it is significantly more extensive in content, scope or duration than a seller's usual obligations
Other things being equal, the FCA is likely to classify a contract of sale containing a warranty that has one or more of the features in PERG 6.7.11 G as a contract of insurance. The features in PERG 6.7.11 G (1) and (2) typically distinguish a 'third party' warranty and an 'extended warranty' from a 'simple' manufacturer's or retailer's warranty.
If a warranty is provided by a third party, the FCA will usually treat this as conclusive of the fact that there are different transactions and an assumption or transfer of risk. This conclusion would not usually depend on whether the provider is (or is not) a part of the same group of companies as the manufacturer or retailer. But it will be the third party (who assumes the risk) that is potentially effecting a contract of insurance.
A manufacturer or retailer may undertake a warranty obligation to his customer in a separate contract with the customer, distinct from the contract of sale or supply of goods or services. The FCA will examine the separate contract to see if it is a contract of insurance. But the mere existence of a separate warranty contract is unlikely to be conclusive by itself.
A manufacturer or retailer may undertake an obligation to ensure that the customer becomes a party to a separate contract of insurance in respect of the goods sold. This would include, for example, a contract for the sale of a freezer, with a simple warranty in relation to the quality of the freezer, but also providing insurance (underwritten by an insurer and in respect of which the customer is the policyholder) covering loss of frozen food if the freezer fails. The FCA is unlikely
The FCA distinguishes the contract in PERG 6.7.15 G from a contract under which the manufacturer or retailer assumes the obligation to provide the customer with an indemnity against loss or damage if the freezer fails, but takes out insurance to cover the cost of having to provide the indemnity to the customer. The obligation to indemnify is of a different nature from the seller's or supplier's usual obligations as regards the quality of goods or services and is an insurance obligation.
The following are examples of typical warranty schemes operated by motor dealers. Provided that, in each case, the FCA is satisfied that the obligations assumed by the dealer are not significantly more extensive in content, scope or duration that a dealer's usual obligations as to the quality of motor vehicles of that kind, the FCA would not usually classify the contracts embodying these transactions as contracts of insurance.(1) The dealer gives a verbal undertaking to the purchaser
Some providers argued that these schemes amount to nothing more than a 'manufacturer's warranty' of their own work, within the scope of PERG 6.7.7 G (Example 3: manufacturers' and retailers' warranties). However, HM Revenue and Customs is expected to make a significant number of random checks of self-assessment forms, irrespective of the quality of the work done by the provider. These random checks are also covered by the schemes. The FCA concluded, therefore, that these schemes
If, however, a contract of this kind were structured so that the recipient was charged at a commercial rate for any legal services in fact provided, the FCA's approach will be to treat the arrangement as non-insurance. This is principally because, by taking on obligations of this kind, the provider does not assume a relevant risk (see PERG 6.7.6 G). The position might be different if the solicitor carries the additional obligation to pay for alternative legal services to be provided
The appointment of a skilled person to produce a report under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons) is one of the FCA's5 regulatory tools. The tool may be used:66(1) for diagnostic purposes, to identify, assess and measure risks; (2) for monitoring purposes, to track the development of identified risks, wherever these arise;(3) in the context of preventative action, to limit or reduce identified risks and so prevent them from crystallising or increasing; and (4)
The decision by the FCA5 to require a report by a skilled person under section 166 of the Act5 (Reports by skilled persons) 6will normally be prompted by a specific requirement for information, analysis of information, assessment of a situation,4 expert advice or recommendations or by a decision to seek assurance in relation to a regulatory return4. It may4 be part of the risk mitigation programme applicable to a firm, or the result of an event or development relating or relevant
6The decision by the FCA5 to require the collection or updating of information by a skilled person under section 166A of the Act (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) will be prompted where the FCA5 considers there has been a breach of a requirement by a firm to collect, and keep up to date, information of a description specified in the FCA's5rules.
When making the decision to require a report by a skilled person under section 166 (Reports by skilled persons) or the collection or updating of information by a skilled person under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act, the FCA5 will have regard, on a case-by-case basis, to all relevant factors. Those are likely to include:66(1) circumstances relating to the firm;(2) alternative tools available, including other statutory powers;(3)
The FCA5 will have regard to circumstances relating to the firm, for example:66(1) attitude of the firm: whether the firm is being cooperative;(2) history of similar issues: whether similar issues have arisen in the past and, if so, whether timely corrective action was taken;(3) quality of a firm's systems and records: whether the FCA5 has confidence that the firm has the ability to provide the required information;66(4) objectivity: whether the FCA5 has confidence in the firm's
The FCA5 will have regard to alternative tools that may be available, including for example:66(1) obtaining what is required without using specific statutory powers (for example, by a visit by staff5 of the FCA5 or a request for information on an informal basis); 66(2) requiring information from firms and others, including authorising an agent to require information, under section 165 of the Act (Power6 to require information);6(3) appointing investigators to carry out general
The FCA5 will have regard to legal and procedural considerations including:66(1) statutory powers: whether one of the other available statutory powers is more appropriate for the purpose than the power in section 166 (Reports by skilled persons) or section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act;66(2) subsequent proceedings: whether it is desirable to obtain an authoritative and independent report for use in any subsequent proceedings;
The FCA5 will have regard to the objectives of its enquiries, and the relative effectiveness of its available powers to achieve those objectives. For example:66(1) historic information or evidence: if the objectives are limited to gathering historic information, or evidence for determining whether enforcement action may be appropriate, the FCA's5 information gathering and investigation powers under sections 165 (Power to require information), 167 (Appointment of investigator
In accordance with its general policy the FCA5 will have regard to the question of cost, which is particularly pertinent in relation to skilled persons because:66(1) if the FCA5 uses the section 166 power (Reports by skilled persons) or the section 166A power (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information), either 6the firm will appoint, and will have to pay for the services of, the skilled person, or the FCA5 will appoint, and will require under FEES 3.2.7
In having regard to the cost implications of using the section 166 power (Reports by skilled persons) or the section 166A power (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) 6alternative options (such as visits) or other powers, the FCA5 will take into account relevant factors, including:66(1) whether the firm may derive some benefit from the work carried out and recommendations made by the skilled person, for instance a better understanding of its business
The FCA5 will have regard to FCA5-related considerations including:6666(1) FCA5 expertise: whether the FCA5 has the necessary expertise; and6666(2) FCA5 resources: whether the resources required to produce a report or to make enquiries or to appoint a skilled person itself6 are available within the FCA5, or whether the exercise will be the best use of the FCA's5 resources at the time.666666
An applicant for recognised
body status needs to demonstrate to the FCA5 that it is able to meet the recognised body requirements31before a recognition
order can be made. Once it has been recognised, a recognised body has to comply with the recognised
body requirements31at all times. (Guidance on
the recognised
body requirements3 applicable to UK
recognised bodies (and applicants) is given in REC 2 and REC 2A).35333
In addition, under section 290A
of the Act (Refusal of recognition
on ground of excessive regulatory provision), the FCA5 must refuse to make a recognition
order in relation to a body applying for recognition as a UK RIE if it appears to the FCA5 that an existing or proposed regulatory
provision of the applicant in connection with the applicant's
business as an investment exchange or the provision by the applicant of clearing facilitation services5 imposes, or will impose, an
(1) There
is no standard application form. A prospective applicant should contact the
Markets Division at the FCA5 at an early stage for advice on the preparation, scheduling and
practical aspects of its application.5(2) It
is very important, if an application is to be processed smoothly and in a
reasonable time, that it is comprehensively prepared and based on a well-developed
and clear proposal.
An application should:(1) be
made in accordance with any directions the FCA5 may make under section 287 (Application by an investment exchange) of the Act or (for RAPs)
regulation 2 of the RAP regulations;353355(2) in
the case of an application under section5 287 of the Act, 3be accompanied by the applicant's regulatory
provisions and
in the case of an application under section 287 of the Act information
required pursuant to sub-sections 287(3)(c), (d) and (e) of the Act (see
Under section 289 of the Act (Applications: supplementary) or (for an RAP applicant)
regulation 2 of the RAP regulations,3 the FCA5 may
require the applicant to provide additional information, and may require the
applicant to verify any information in any manner. In view of their likely
importance for any application, the FCA5 will normally wish to arrange for its own inspection of an applicant's
information technology systems.55
1In
the case of an application to become a UK
RIE or an RAP3, under subsection 290(1B) of the Act and
(for an RAP applicant) regulation
2(8) of the RAP regulations3, the application must be determined by the FCA5 before the end of the period of six months beginning
with the date on which it receives the completed application.5
(1) The FCA5 will
keep the applicant informed of the progress of the application.5(2) It
may be necessary to ask the applicant to clarify or amplify some aspects of
its proposals. The FCA5 may wish to discuss various aspects of the application and may
invite the applicant to attend one or more meetings for that purpose. When
requested to do so, the FCA5 will explain the nature of the information which it has asked
an applicant to supply in connection with its application.55
Where the FCA5 considers that it is unlikely to make a recognition
order it will discuss its concerns with
the applicant as early as possible with a view to enabling the applicant to
make changes to its rules or guidance, or other parts of the application (see REC 5.2.7 G).
If the FCA5 decides
that it will not make a recognition order,
it will follow the procedure set out in section 298 of the Act (Directions
and revocation: procedure) or
(in the case of an RAP) regulation
5 of
Information and supporting documentation (see REC 5.2.4 G).
(1) |
Details of the applicant's constitution, structure and ownership, including its memorandum and articles of association (or similar or analogous documents ) and any agreements between the applicant, its owners or other persons relating to its constitution or governance (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1. An applicant for RAP status must provide details of the relationship between the governance arrangements in place for the UK RIE and the RAP.3 |
(2) |
Details of all business to be conducted by the applicant, whether or not a regulated activity (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1. |
(3) |
Details of the facilities which the applicant plans to operate, including details of the trading platform or (for an RAP) auction platform,3 settlement arrangements, clearing facilitation services5 and custody services which it plans to supply. An applicant for RAP status must provide details on the relationship between the auction platform and any secondary market in emissions auction products4 which it operates or plans to operate.3 54 |
(4) |
Copies of the last three annual reports and accounts and, for the current financial year, quarterly management accounts. |
(5) |
Details of its business plan for the first three years of operation as a UK recognised body (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1. |
(6) |
A full organisation chart and a list of the posts to be held by key individuals (with details of the duties and responsibilities) and the names of the persons proposed for these appointments when these names are available (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1. |
(7) |
Details of its auditors, bankers, solicitors and any persons providing corporate finance advice or similar services (such as reporting accountants) to the applicant. |
(8) |
Details of any relevant functions to be outsourced or delegated, with copies of relevant agreements. |
(9) |
Details of information technology systems and of arrangements for their supply, management, maintenance and upgrading, and security. |
(10) |
Details of all plans to minimise disruption to operation of its facilities in the event of the failure of its information technology systems. |
(11) |
Details of internal systems for financial control, arrangements for risk management and insurance arrangements to cover operational and other risks. |
(12) |
Details of its arrangements for managing any counterparty risks. 5 |
(13) |
Details of internal arrangements to safeguard confidential or privileged information and for handling conflicts of interest. |
(14) |
Details of arrangements for complying with the notification rules and other requirements to supply information to the FCA5. 5 |
(15) |
Details of the arrangements to be made for monitoring and enforcing compliance with its rules and with its clearing, settlement and default arrangements. |
(16) |
A summary of the legal due diligence carried out in relation to ascertaining the enforceability of its rules (including default rules) and the results and conclusions reached. 5 |
(17) |
Details of the procedures to be followed for declaring a member in default, and for taking action after that event to close out positions, protect the interests of other members and enforce its default rules. |
(18) |
Details of membership selection criteria, rules and procedures, including (for an RAP) details of how the rules of the UK RIE will change in order to reflect RAP status.3 |
(19) |
Details of arrangements for recording transactions effected by, or cleared through, its facilities. |
(20) |
Details of arrangements for detecting financial crime and market abuse , including arrangements for complying with money laundering law. |
(21) |
Details of criteria, rules and arrangements for selecting specified investments to be admitted to trading on (or cleared by) an RIE and, where relevant, details of how information regarding specified investments will be disseminated to users of its facilities. 5 |
(22) |
Details of arrangements for cooperating with the FCA5 and other appropriate authorities, including draft memoranda of understanding or letters. 5 |
(23) |
Details of the procedures and arrangements for making and amending rules, including arrangements for consulting on rule changes. |
(24) |
Details of disciplinary and appeal procedures, and of the arrangements for investigating complaints. |
A firm (other than the Society or8 an MTF or OTF8 operator in relation to its MTF or OTF8 business5) must notify to the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA) the value (as at the valuation date specified in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR6) of each element of business on which the periodic fee payable by the firm is to be calculated.15
A firm (other than the Society) must send to the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA)15 in writing the information required under FEES 4.4.1 R as soon as reasonably practicable, and in any event within two months, after the date specified as the valuation date in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR in relation to 9 fees payable to the FCA6 (or FEES 4.2.7B R where applicable) unless FEES 4.4.2AR applies9.15151527
In most cases a firm will provide the information required by this section as part of its compliance with the provisions of SUP. To the extent that the FCA6 does not obtain sufficient, or sufficiently detailed, information it 6 may seek this by using the general information gathering powers (see SUP 2 (Information gathering by the FCA or PRA6 on its own initiative)).14141414141414
3A fee-paying payment service provider and a fee-paying electronic money issuer4 must notify to the FCA the value (as at the valuation date specified in Part 4 of FEES 4 Annex 11) of each element of business on which the periodic fee (other than a flat fee)4 payable by the firm under 1 R4 is to be calculated, including any payment services carried on by its agents from an establishment in the United Kingdom. 4
15A UK MiFID investment firm is also required to notify the FCA of changes to a branch or tied agent in accordance with: (1) article 7 (Information to be notified concerning the change of branch or tied agent particulars) of MiFID RTS 3A; (2) article 18 (submission of the change of branch particulars notification) of MiFID ITS 4A; and(3) article 19 (submission of the change of the tied agent particulars notification) of MiFID ITS 4A.
(1) 11If a UKfirm has exercised an EEA right under AIFMD and established a branch in another EEA State, the UKfirm must not make a material change in the requisite details of the branch or the identity of the AIFs it manages in the EEA State in which it has established a branch (see SUP 13 Annex 1), unless: (a) it has complied with regulation 17A(4) for a planned change; or(b) it has complied with regulation 17A(5) for a unplanned change.(2) The requirements in regulation 17A(4)
(1) 13A UK firm which has exercised an EEA right deriving from the MCD to establish a branch, must not make any material changes to the requisite details of the branch unless it has complied with the requirements in regulation 17(B)(2).(2) The requirements in regulation 17(B)(2) are that(a) the UK firm has given notice to the FCA stating the details of the proposed change; and(b) the period of one month beginning with the day on which the UK firm gave notice has elapsed.(3) Paragraph
17Where the PRA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the FCA before deciding whether to give consent to a change (or proposed change) and where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the PRA before deciding whether to give consent in relation to a UK firm whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.
(1) When the FCA15 receives a notice from a UK MiFID investment firm (see SUP 13.6.5BG (1)), it is required by regulation 11A(3) to inform the relevant Host State regulator of the proposed change as soon as reasonably practicable.15(2) The FCA is required to use the forms in Annex XI, Annex XII or Annex XIII of MiFID ITS 4A, as applicable.15(3) The firm in question may make the change once the period of one month beginning with the day on which it gave notice has elapsed.1571
(1) 11When the FCA receives a notice from an AIFM (see SUP 13.6.9C G) for a planned change and such change means the AIFM no longer complies with AIFMD, the FCA must inform the AIFM without undue delay that:(a) the FCA objects to the change, including reasons for its decision; and(b) the AIFM must not implement the change.In these circumstances the AIFM may refer the matter to the Tribunal.(2) If a planned change is implemented or an unplanned change takes place and results in
13When the FCA receives a notice from a UK firm exercising an EEA right under the MCD it will, under regulation 17(B)(3), inform the relevant Host State regulator of the proposed change as soon as reasonably practicable. The UK firm in question may make the change once a period of one month has elapsed beginning with the day on which it gave notice.
Where the FCA1 requires a report by a skilled person under section 166 of the Act1 (Reports by skilled persons), the FCA1 will send a notice in writing requiring the person in SUP 5.2.1 G to provide a report by a skilled person, or notifying the person in SUP 5.2.1 G in writing of the FCA's1 appointment of a skilled person to provide a report,2 on any matter if it is reasonably required in connection with the exercise of its functions conferred by or under the Act. The FCA1
2Where the FCA1 requires the updating or collection of information by a skilled person under section 166A of the Act (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information), the FCA1 will send a notice in writing requiring the firm to appoint a skilled person, or notifying the firm of the FCA's1 appointment of a skilled person, to collect or update the relevant information.
As part of the decision making process the FCA1 will normally contact the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or in SUP 5.2.2 G2 to discuss its needs before finalising its decision to require a report or the updating or collection of information by a skilled person. This will provide an opportunity for discussion about the appointment, whether an alternative means of obtaining the information would be better, what the scope of a report should be, who should be appointed, who should appoint,
The FCA1 will give written notification to the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G2 of the purpose of the report or collection or updating of information,2 its scope, the timetable for completion and any other relevant matters. The FCA1 will state the matters which the report is to contain, or the information which is to be collected or updated,2 as well as any requirements as to the report's format. For example, a report on controls may be required to address key risks, key
The written notification in SUP 5.4.3 G may be preceded or followed by a discussion of the FCA's1 requirements and the reasons for them. This may involve the FCA1 the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or in SUP 5.2.2 G2 and the person who has been, or is expected to be, appointed as the skilled person. The FCA1 recognises that there will normally be value in holding discussions involving the skilled person at this stage. These discussions may include others if appropriate. 222222
A skilled person must appear to the FCA1 to have the skills necessary to make a report on the matter concerned or collect or update the relevant information.2 A skilled person may be an accountant, lawyer, compliance consultant,2actuary or person with relevant business, technical or technological skills.22
When considering whether to nominate, approve or appoint a skilled person to make a report or collect or update information, the FCA1 will have regard to the circumstances of the case, including whether the proposed skilled person appears to have:22(1) the skills necessary to make a report on the matter concerned or collect or update the relevant information;2(2) the ability to complete the report or collect or update the information within the time expected by the FCA1; 22(3)
In appropriate circumstances, it may be cost effective for the FCA1 to nominate or approve the appointment of, or appoint itself,2 a skilled person who has previously acted for, or advised, the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G.2 For example, the FCA1 may nominate or approve the appointment of, or appoint,2 the auditor of a person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G2 to prepare a report or collect or update the information2 taking into account, where relevant, the considerations
Where the skilled person is appointed by the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G, the FCA1 will normally require the skilled person to be appointed to report to the FCA1 through that person. In the normal course of events the FCA1 expects that the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G2 will be given the opportunity to provide written comments on the report or the collection of the relevant information prior to its submission to the FCA1. 222222222
The FCA1 may enter into a dialogue with the skilled person, and is ready to discuss matters relevant to the report or the collection or updating of the relevant information2 with that person1, during the preparation of the report or the collection or updating of the relevant information.2 Such discussions may2 involve or be through the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G.2222
The FCA1 will normally specify a time limit within which it expects the skilled person to deliver the report or collect or update the relevant information. Where the skilled person is appointed by the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G, the2skilled person should, in complying with its contractual duty under SUP 5.5.1 R, take reasonable steps to achieve delivery by that time. If the skilled person becomes aware that the report may not be delivered, or collection or updating
1The FCA has investigation and sanctioning powers in relation to both criminal and civil breaches of the Electronic Money Regulations. The Electronic Money Regulations impose requirements including, amongst other things, various provisions regulating the rights and obligations of electronic money institutions.
1The FCA's approach to enforcing the Electronic Money Regulations will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. It will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate, responsive to the issue, and consistent with its publicly stated policies. It will also seek to ensure fair treatment when exercising its enforcement powers. Finally, it will aim to change the behaviour of the electronic money
1The Electronic Money Regulations, for the most part, mirror the FCA's investigative, sanctioning and regulatory powers under the Act. The FCA has decided to adopt procedures and policies in relation to the use of those powers akin to those it has under the Act. Key features of the FCA's approach are described below.
1The FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed investigators to carry out an investigation under the Electronic Money Regulations and the reasons for the appointment, unless notification is likely to prejudice the investigation or otherwise result in it being frustrated. The FCA's
policy in civil investigations under the Electronic Money Regulations is to use powers to compel information in the same way as it would in the course
1The RDC is the FCA's decision maker for some of the decisions under the Electronic Money Regulations as set out in DEPP 2 Annex 1G. The RDC will make its decisions following the procedure set out in DEPP 3.2 or, where appropriate, DEPP 3.3 and 3.4. DEPP 3.4 applies for urgent notices under regulation 11(6), (9) and (10)(b) (including as applied by regulation 15).
1When determining whether to suspend the authorisation or, as the case may be, the registration of an electronic money
institution or limit or otherwise restrict the carrying on of electronic money issuance or payments services business by an electronic money
issuer the FCA's
policy will have regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6A.
1As with cases under the Act, the FCA may settle or mediate appropriate cases involving civil breaches of the Electronic Money Regulations to assist it to exercise its functions under the Regulations in the most efficient and economic way. See DEPP 5, DEPP 6.7 and EG 5 for further information on the settlement process and the settlement discount scheme.
1The Electronic Money Regulations apply section 169 of the Act which requires the FCA to publish a statement of policy on the conduct of certain interviews in response to requests from overseas regulators. For the purposes of the Electronic Money Regulations the FCA will follow the procedures described in DEPP 7.
An FCA-approved person's job may change from time to time as a result, for instance, of a change in personal job responsibilities or a firm'sregulated activities. Where the changes will involve the person performing one or more FCA controlled functions different from those for which approval has already been granted, then an application must be made to the FCA for approval for the person to perform those FCA controlled functions. The firm must take reasonable care to ensure that
If:7(1) a firm is applying for approval for someone to perform a controlled function under this chapter; and 7(2) that person is also ceasing to perform FCA controlled functions or a PRA controlled function in relation to the same firm or in relation to a firm in the same group;7the firm should generally use Form E. Further details can be found in SUP 10A.14.4D.75555
If it is proposed that an FCA-approved person will no longer be performing an FCA controlled function under an arrangement entered into by the appointed representative of one principal7, but will be performing the same or a different FCA controlled function under an arrangement entered into by the appointed representative of a new principal7, the new principal7 will be required to make a fresh application for the performance of the FCA controlled function by that person. This
(1) A firm must submit to the FCA a completed Form C (SUP 10C Annex 5R)5 no later than ten4 business days after an FCA-approved person ceases to perform an FCA controlled function.2(2) If:2(a) the firm is also making an application for approval for that approved person to perform a controlled function in relation to7 the same firm or to a firm in the same7group; and2(b) ceasing to perform the FCA controlled function in (1) has triggered a requirement to make that application for
(1) A firm must notify the FCA as soon as practicable after it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that it will submit a qualified Form C in respect of an FCA-approved person.(2) Form C is qualified if the information it contains:(a) relates to the fact that the firm or the appointed representative7 has dismissed, or suspended, the FCA-approved person from its employment; or(b) relates to the resignation by the FCA-approved person while under investigation
Notification under SUP 10A.14.10 R may be made by telephone, email or fax and should be made, where possible, within one business day of the firm becoming aware of the information. If the firm does not submit Form C, it should inform the FCA in due course of the reason. This could be done using Form D, if appropriate.
A firm can submit Form C or Form E 6to the FCA in advance of the cessation date. When a person ceases the arrangement under which they perform4 an FCA controlled function, they4 will automatically cease to be an FCA-approved person in relation to that FCA controlled function. A person can only be an FCA-approved person in relation to a specific FCA controlled function. Therefore, a person is not an FCA-approved person during any period between ceasing to perform one FCA controlled
If a firm becomes aware of information which would reasonably be material to the assessment of an FCA-approved person's, or a FCA candidate's, fitness and propriety (see FIT), it must inform the FCA on Form D, or (if it is more practical to do so and with the prior agreement of the FCA) by e-mail or fax, as soon as practicable.
(1) If, in relation to a firm which has completed the relevant Form A (SUP 10C Annex 3D7), any of the details relating to arrangements and FCA controlled functions are to change, the firm must notify the FCA on Form D (SUP 10C Annex 6R5). (2) The notification under (1) must be made as soon as reasonably practicable after the firm becomes aware of the proposed change.(3) This also applies in relation to an FCA controlled function for which an application was made using Form E.(4)