Related provisions for FEES 13.2.10
221 - 240 of 610 items.
1Examples of circumstances in which the FCA will consider varying a firm'sPart 4A permission because it has serious concerns about a firm, or about the way its business is being or has been conducted include where: (1) in relation to the grounds for exercising the power under section 55J(1)(a) or section 55L(2)(a) of the Act, the firm appears to be failing, or appears likely to fail, to satisfy the threshold conditions relating to one or more, or all, of its regulated activities,
(1) A firm must use Form E (SUP 10C Annex 7D6) where an approved person:6(a) is both ceasing to perform one or more controlled functions; and6(b) needs to be approved in relation to one or more FCA-designated senior management function;6within the same firm or group.(2) A firm must not use Form E if the approved person has never before been approved to perform for any firm:(a) an FCA controlled function that is a significant-influence function8;(b) an FCA-designated senior management
Under section 60A of the Act, before a firm makes an application for approval, it should be satisfied that the candidate is a fit and proper person to perform the function to which the application relates. In deciding that question, the firm should have particular regard to whether the candidate, or any person who may perform a function on the candidate's behalf:(1) has obtained a qualification; (2) has undergone, or is undergoing, training; (3) possesses a level of competence;
Before investing in the qualifying master scheme, the authorised fund manager of the feeder NURS must:(1) be satisfied on reasonable grounds
that the authorised fund manager can
obtain from the qualifying master scheme all
the information necessary to comply on an ongoing basis with the rules in COLL;(2) having consulted with the depositary of the feeder
NURS, be satisfied on reasonable grounds that the depositary of the feeder
NURS can obtain from the qualifying
master scheme,
(1) Where the operator of
a qualifying master scheme or
the authorised fund manager of
a qualifying master scheme imposes
any charge which is, or is equivalent in effect to, a preliminary
charge or redemption charge on
the feeder NURS for the acquisition
or disposal of units in the qualifying master scheme, the authorised fund manager of the feeder NURS must pay to the feeder NURS an amount equal to such charge within four business
days following the relevant acquisition or disposal.(2)
3Financial penalties, suspensions, restrictions, conditions, limitations, disciplinary prohibitions,2 and public censures are important regulatory tools. However, they are not the only tools available to the FCA, and there will be many instances of non-compliance which the FCA considers it appropriate to address without the use of formal disciplinary sanctions. Still1, the effective and proportionate use of the FCA's powers to enforce the requirements of the Act, the rules, COCON1
3The FCA has the following powers to impose sanctions2.(1) It may publish a statement: (a) against an approved person or conduct rules staff1 under section 66 of the Act;
(b) against an issuer under section 87M of the Act;
(c) against a sponsor under section 88A of the Act;
(ca) against a primary information provider under section 89Q of the Act;
(d) where there has been a contravention
Business and internal control risks vary from firm to firm, according to the nature and complexity of the business. The FCA's assessment of these risks is reflected in how its rules apply to different categories of firm as well as in the use of its other regulatory tools. One of the tools the FCA has available is to give a firm individual guidance on the application of the requirements or standards under the regulatory system in the firm's particular circumstances.
The FCA6 may give individual guidance to a firm on its own initiative if it considers it appropriate to do so. For example:6(1) the FCA6 may consider that general guidance in the Handbook does not appropriately fit a firm's particular circumstances (which may be permanent or temporary) and therefore decide to give additional individual guidance to the firm;6(2) some of the FCA's6 requirements are expressed in general terms; however, there may be times when the FCA6 will wish to
(1) To improve consumer awareness and to help respondents compare their performance against their peers, the FCA may publish: (a) complaints data about the payment services and electronic money sector as a whole; and(b) respondent level complaints data and information giving context to the complaints data for those respondents that provide appropriate consent in the electronic money and payment services complaints return form at DISP 1 Annex 1AD. (2) Although the complaints data
The firm should also satisfy itself that:(1) the appointed representative is making and retaining records in accordance with the relevant record keeping rules in the Handbook or, in relation to CBTL business, the record keeping requirements in or under Part 3 of the MCD Order, 3if these records are not maintained by the firm;3(2) the appointed representative (other than an introducer appointed representative) is making and retaining records sufficient to disclose with reasonable
Firms are reminded that they should make and retain records in relation to any person who falls within the scope of the rules in TC or who performs a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by a firm or by an appointed representative. See SUP 10A, SUP 10C4and TC for the applicable record keeping rules.
The application of certain rules in this chapter depends upon the ‘CASS firm type’ within which a firm falls. The ‘CASS firm types’ are defined in accordance with CASS 1A.2.7 R. The ‘CASS firm type’ within which a firm falls is also used to determine whether it is required to have the CASS operational oversight function described in CASS 1A.3.1A R and1 whether 4the reporting obligations in SUP 16.14 (Client money and asset return) apply to it4.4
(1) This chapter applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager of an AUT, ACS3 or an ICVC;(b) any other director of an ICVC;(c) a depositary of an AUT, ACS3 or an ICVC; and(d) an ICVC,which is a qualified investor scheme.(2) Where this chapter refers to rules in any other chapter of this sourcebook, those rules and any relevant guidance should be applied as if they referred to qualified investor schemes.
(1) Qualified investor schemes are authorised funds which are intended only for professional clients and for retail clients who are2 sophisticated investors. For this reason, qualified investor schemes are subject to a restriction on promotion under COBS 4.12.3 R. See also COBS 4.12.13 G.22123211(1A) 3The authorised contractual scheme manager of a qualified investor scheme which is4 an ACS must take reasonable care to ensure that subscription in relation to the units of this type
Section 21 precludes the promotion by unauthorised persons of unregulated collective investment schemes unless the financial promotion is approved by an authorised person or is exempt. Section 238 then precludes the promotion of an unregulated collective investment scheme by authorised persons except where:(1) there is an exemption in an order made by the Treasury under section 238(6); or(2) the financial promotion is permitted under rules made by the FCA under section 238(5)
The FCA has made rules under section 238(5) which allow authorisedfirms to communicate or approve a financial promotion for an unregulated collective investment scheme in certain specified circumstances. These circumstances are set out in COBS 4.12.4 R3 To date, the Treasury has not made an order exempting single property schemes under section 239.23
A firm (with the exception of a sole trader who has no employees)21 must:12(1) appoint an individual as MLRO, with responsibility for oversight of its compliance with the FCA'srules on systems and controls against money laundering; and(2) ensure that its MLRO has a level of authority and independence within the firm and access to resources and information sufficient to enable him to carry out that responsibility.
Firms which carry on consumer credit lending or credit broking should comply with all rules which apply to that regulated activity in CONC and other parts of the Handbook. For example, CONC 7 applies to matters concerning arrears, default and recovery (including repossession) and applies generally, including to agreements to which this chapter applies. This chapter sets out specific additional requirements and guidance that apply in relation to credit agreements secured on land
The financial promotion rules in CONC 3 apply to firms'financial promotions concerning credit agreements secured on land, apart from the extent to which a financial promotion or communication concerns qualifying credit. CONC 3.3.1 R requires financial promotions to be clear fair and not misleading; firms should take particular care with respect to explaining the nature of the credit to be provided and the costs of borrowing.
(1) This rule applies to a firm that is unable to comply with the Remuneration Code because of an obligation it owes to a Remuneration Code staffmember under a provision of an agreement made on or before 29 July 2010 (the "provision").(2) A firm must take reasonable steps to amend or terminate the provision referred to in (1) in a way that enables it to comply with the Remuneration Code at the earliest opportunity.(3) Until the provision referred to in (1) ceases to prevent the
(1) 7In addition to the notification requirements in the Remuneration Code7 general circumstances in which the FCA7 expects to be notified by firms of matters relating to their compliance with requirements under the regulatory system are set out in SUP 15.3 (General notification requirements). (2) In particular, in relation to remuneration matters such circumstances should take into account unregulated activities as well as regulated activities and the activities of other members
When considering entering into a first charge regulated mortgage contract2 or varying a first charge regulated mortgage contract2 or home purchase plan, a firm need not apply the rules in MCOB 11.6.2 R to MCOB 11.6.18 R inclusive (as modified by MCOB 11.6.25 R to MCOB 11.6.31 R and MCOB 11.6.33 R to MCOB 11.6.38 R, where applicable) if it has established, acting reasonably, that the following conditions are satisfied:2(1) the customer has: (a) an existing first charge regulated
(1) When considering entering into a first charge regulated mortgage contract which is an interest-only mortgage2 or varying a first charge regulated mortgage contract which is2 an interest-only mortgage, a mortgage lender need not apply the rules in MCOB 11.6.41R (1), MCOB 11.6.49 R, MCOB 11.6.50 R and MCOB 11.6.60R (3) if the conditions in MCOB 11.7.1 R) are satisfied, and if it has established, acting reasonably, that the existing regulated mortgage contract in MCOB 11.7.1R
(1) 1Where a firm has outsourced activities to a third party processor other than advising on life policies3, GEN 4.3.1 R does not apply to that third party processor when acting as such, so long as the outsourcing firm ensures that the third party processor and its employees comply with that rule as if it was the firm and they were employees of the firm.(2) Where an appointed representative has outsourced insurance distribution activities10 other than advising on life policies3
(1) A firm3 must use the template in Part One of SYSC 22 Annex 1R (Template for regulatory references given by SMCR firms2 and disclosure requirements) when giving a reference under this chapter to another firm (A). 2(2) A firm may make minor changes to the format of the template in Part One of SYSC 22 Annex 1R when giving a reference under this chapter, provided that the reference includes all the information required by SYSC 22 Annex 1R. (3) This rule applies even if A is not
28The information regarding the Financial Ombudsman Service,5 required to be provided in responses sent under the complaints time limit rules (DISP 1.6.2 R, DISP 1.6.2AR and DISP 1.6.4 R),5 should be set out clearly, comprehensibly, in an easily accessible way and 410prominently within the text of those responses.3939[Note: article 13 of the ADR Directive]410
(1) This section helps in achieving the statutory objective of securing an appropriate degree of protection for consumers. In accordance with Principle 6, this section is also concerned with ensuring the authorised fund manager pays due regard to its clients' interests and treats them fairly.(2) An authorised fund manager of an AUT, ACS or ICVC7 is responsible for arranging for the issue and the cancellation of units for the authorised fund. An authorised fund manager of an AUT,
(1) The authorised fund manager may require, on agreement with the depositary, or may permit, on the request of the investor, direct issues and cancellations of units by an ICVC or by the depositary of an AUT or ACS7.7(2) If (1) applies:(a) the instrument constituting the fund8 must provide for this; and(b) the prospectus must provide details of the procedure to be followed which must be consistent with the rules in this section.8
(1) On cancellingunits the authorised fund manager must, before the expiry of the fourth business day following the cancellation of the units or, if later, as soon as practicable after delivery to the depositary of the AUT or ACS7 or the ICVC of such evidence of title to the units as it may reasonably require, require the depositary to pay:27(a) 2in the case of a single-priced authorised fund, the price of the units (less any deduction required under 9COLL 6.3.8 R); 10(b) 2in
CREDS sets out rules and guidance that are specific to credit unions. CREDS 10 refers to other more generally applicable provisions of the Handbook that are likely to be relevant to credit unions with Part 4A permission to accept deposits. For details of these provisions, we would expect credit unions to access the full text in the Handbook.
The status of the provisions in CREDS is indicated by icons containing the letters R, G or E. Please refer to 5the Reader's Guide for further explanation about the significance of these icons. The Reader's Guide can be found 8at http://www.fca.org.uk/your-fca/documents/handbook/handbook-readers-guide
If the firm undertook a tracing exercise for the purposes of CASS 6.2.10R(4) (Allocated but unclaimed safe custody assets) before its failure but had not made the charity payment under that rule by the time of its failure then the findings of that exercise may be relied on for the purposes of CASS 6.7.4E(1)(a).
(1) This rule applies where, instead of returning a safe custody asset to a client, a firm (Firm A) is able to transfer the safe custody asset to another person (Firm B) for safekeeping on behalf of the client.(2) Firm A may only effect such a transfer if, in advance of the transfer, it has obtained a contractual undertaking from Firm B that:(a) where regulation 10C(3) of the IBSA Regulations does not apply, Firm B will return the safe custody asset to the client at the client’s