Related provisions for BIPRU 9.6.8

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COCON 4.2.16GRP
The following is a non-exhaustive list of examples of conduct that would be in breach of rule SC2.(1) Failing to take reasonable steps to implement (either personally or through a compliance department or other departments) adequate and appropriate systems of control to comply with the relevant requirements and standards of the regulatory system for the activities of the firm.(2) Failing to take reasonable steps to monitor (either personally or through a compliance department
COCON 4.2.26GRP
SC4 applies to senior conduct rules staff members in addition to rule 3 in COCON 2.1.3R. Although, the rules have some overlap, they are different. Rule 3 normally relates to responses from individuals to requests from the regulator, whereas rule SC4 imposes a duty on a senior conduct rules staff member to disclose appropriately any information of which the appropriate regulator would reasonably expect, including making a disclosure in the absence of any request or enquiry from
COCON 4.2.28GRP
(1) If a senior conduct rules staff member comes across a piece of information that is something of3 which they think the FCA or PRA could reasonably expect notice, they should determine whether that information falls within the scope of their responsibilities.5 For an SMF manager those responsibilities will be set out in that person’sstatement of responsibilities.52(2) If it does, then they should ensure that, if it is otherwise appropriate to do so, it is disclosed to the appropriate
DTR 6.1.9RRP
An issuer of shares must without delay disclose to the public any change in the rights attaching to its various classes of shares, including changes in the rights attaching to derivativesecurities issued by the issuer giving access to the shares of that issuer. [Note: article 16(1) of the TD]
DTR 6.1.10RRP
An issuer of securities other than shares admitted to trading on a regulated market must disclose to the public without delay any changes in the rights of holders of securities other than shares, including changes in the terms and conditions of such securities which could indirectly affect those rights, resulting in particular from a change in loan terms or in interest rates.[Note article 16(2) of the TD]
COBS 8.1.3RRP
(1) A firm must, in good time before a client3 is bound by any agreement relating to designated investment business3 or before the provision of those services, whichever is the earlier, provide that client with:(a) the terms of any such agreement; and(b) the information about the firm and its services relating to that agreement or to those services required by COBS 6.1.4 R, including information on communications, conflicts of interest and authorised status.(2) A firm must provide
COBS 8.1.6GRP
When considering its approach to client agreements, a firm should be aware of other obligations in the Handbook which may be relevant. These include the fair, clear and not misleading rule,3 the rules on disclosure of information to a client before providing services,3 the rules on distance communications (principally in COBS 2.2, 5, 6 and 13) and the provisions on record keeping (principally in SYSC 3, for insurers and managing agents, and SYSC 9, for other firms4.3
LR 7.2.2GRP
Listing Principle 13 is intended to ensure that listed companies have adequate procedures, systems and controls to enable them to comply with their obligations under the listing rules, disclosure requirements4, transparency rules and corporate governance rules.3 In particular, the FCA considers that listed companies should place particular emphasis on ensuring that they have adequate procedures, systems and controls in relation to, where applicable:333(1) identifying whether any
LR 7.2.3GRP
Timely and accurate disclosure of information to the market is a key obligation of listed companies. For the purposes of Listing Principle 13, a listed company should have adequate systems and controls to be able to:3313(1) ensure that it can properly identify information which requires disclosure under the listing rules, disclosure requirements4, transparency rules or corporate governance rules3 in a timely manner; and3(2) ensure that any information identified under (1) is properly
DEPP 7.2.2GRP
Where the FCA3 appoints an investigator in response to a request from an overseas regulator or EEA regulator2 it may, under section 169(7) or section 131FA2 of the Act, direct him to permit a representative of that regulator to attend and take part in any interviews conducted for the purposes of the investigation. The FCA3 may only give a direction under section 169(7) or section 131FA2 if it is satisfied that any information obtained by an overseas regulator or EEA regulator2
DEPP 7.2.3GRP
Part XXIII of the Act contains restrictions on the disclosure of confidential information. The restrictions are subject to exceptions contained in regulations made by the Treasury under section 349.
SUP 5.3.4GRP
The FCA5 will have regard to circumstances relating to the firm, for example:66(1) attitude of the firm: whether the firm is being cooperative;(2) history of similar issues: whether similar issues have arisen in the past and, if so, whether timely corrective action was taken;(3) quality of a firm's systems and records: whether the FCA5 has confidence that the firm has the ability to provide the required information;66(4) objectivity: whether the FCA5 has confidence in the firm's
SUP 5.3.5GRP
The FCA5 will have regard to alternative tools that may be available, including for example:66(1) obtaining what is required without using specific statutory powers (for example, by a visit by staff5 of the FCA5 or a request for information on an informal basis); 66(2) requiring information from firms and others, including authorising an agent to require information, under section 165 of the Act (Power6 to require information);6(3) appointing investigators to carry out general
COBS 2.3.2RRP
A firm will satisfy the disclosure obligation under this section if it:(1) discloses the essential arrangements relating to the fee, commission or non-monetary benefit in summary form;(2) undertakes to the client that further details will be disclosed on request; and(3) honours the undertaking in (2).[Note:12article 29(2) of the UCITS implementing Directive]7
COBS 2.3.11GRP
(1) 1If a firm enters into an arrangement with another firm under which it makes or receives a payment of commission in relation to the sale of a packaged product that is increased in excess of the amount disclosed to the client, the firm is likely to have breached the rules on disclosure of charges, remuneration and commission (see COBS 6.4) and, where applicable, the rule on inducements in COBS 2.3.1R (2)(b), unless the increase is attributable to an increase in the premiums
COBS 2.3.17RRP
(1) A firm must make a record of the information disclosed to the client in accordance with COBS 2.3.1R (2)(b)4 and must keep that record for at least five years from the date on which it was given.4(2) A firm must also 4make a record of each benefit given to another firm which does not have to be disclosed to the client4in accordance with COBS 2.3.1R (2)(b)(ii),4 and must keep that record for at least five years from the date on which it was given.1412
CONC 8.8.1RRP
A firm in relation to a customer with whom it has entered into a debt management plan must: (1) maintain contact with the customer; [Note: paragraph 3.44 of DMG](2) regularly monitor and review the financial position and circumstances of the customer; [Note: paragraph 3.44 of DMG](3) adapt the debt management plan to take into account relevant changes in the financial position and circumstances of the customer;[Note: paragraph 3.44 of DMG](4) inform the customer without delay
CONC 8.8.2GRP
(1) Evidence that there may have been a material change in a customer's financial circumstances is likely to include where a customer who has not previously missed payments under a debt management plan misses such payments. [Note: paragraph 3.45ci of DMG](2) Where the firm informs a customer of the outcome of a review of a debt management plan, it should seek to discuss with the customer any changes to the plan or to the firm's service at the earliest reasonably opportunity. [Note:
SUP 16.20.4RRP

A firm or qualifying parent undertaking must send the information required for a resolution plan to the FCA within three months of the reporting reference dates specified in the table below:

Type of firm or qualifying parent undertaking

First reporting reference date

Ongoing reporting reference date

firm or qualifying parent undertaking in an RRD group that includes an IFPRU 730k firm that is a significant IFPRU firm or does not include an IFPRU 730k firm

30 June 2015

Every two years on the same date as the first reporting reference date.

significant IFPRU firm

30 June 2015

Every two years on the same date as the first reporting reference date.

firm or qualifying parent undertaking in an RRD group that includes an IFPRU 730k firm that is not a significant IFPRU firm (but does not include an IFPRU 730k firm that is a significant IFPRU firm)

31 December 2015

Every three years on the same date as the first reporting reference date.

non-significant IFPRU firm

31 December 2015

Every three years on the same date as the first reporting reference date.

[Note: articles4 4(1)(b), 11(1) and 13(1) of RRD]

SUP 16.20.6RRP
2A firm must submit its recovery plan and the information required for its resolution plan to the FCA online through the appropriate systems accessible from the FCA’s website, using the forms specified in SUP 16 Annex 40R.
CONC 4.1.3RRP
(1) When a firm provides a quotation to a customer in connection with a prospective credit agreement which would or might be secured on the customer's home, the firm must include (or cause to be included) in the quotation a statement that such security would or might be required. [Note: regulation 3a of SI 1999/2725](2) When a firm provides a quotation to a customer (C) in connection with a prospective credit agreement which would or might be secured on C’s home under which, while
CONC 4.1.4RRP
(1) When a firm provides a quotation to a customer in connection with a prospective credit agreement which would or might be secured on the customer's home, the firm must include (or cause to be included) in the quotation a statement that such security would or might be required.[Note: regulation 6 of SI 1999/2725](2) When a firm provides a quotation to a customer (C) in connection with a prospective credit agreement which would or might be secured on C’s home under which, while
BIPRU 11.2.6GRP
A firm which is included within comparable disclosures provided on a consolidated basis by a parent undertaking whose head office is not in an EEA State may apply for a waiver from the relevant disclosure requirements in BIPRU 11.2.2 R - BIPRU 11.2.5 R. The appropriate regulator's approach to granting waivers is set out in the Supervision manual (see SUP 8).[Note: BCD Article 72(3)]
BIPRU 11.2.7GRP
A firm applying for a waiver from one or more of the disclosure requirements in BIPRU 11.2.2 R - BIPRU 11.2.5 R will need to:(1) satisfy the appropriate regulator that it is included within comparable disclosures provided on a consolidated basis by a parent undertaking whose head office is not in an EEA State; and(2) notify the appropriate regulator of the location where the comparable disclosures are provided.
APER 4.1.6GRP
3Deliberately failing to inform, without reasonable cause:(1) a customer; or(2) his firm (or its auditors or an actuary appointed by his firm under SUP 4 (Actuaries)1); or1(3) the FCA or the PRA;66of the fact that their understanding of a material issue is incorrect, despite being aware of their misunderstanding, falls within APER 4.1.2G.
APER 4.1.13GRP
3Deliberately failing to disclose the existence of a conflict of interest in connection with dealings with a client falls within APER 4.1.2 G.
COLL 6.4.3GRP
(1) (a) 3This section deals with matters relating to the register of unitholders of units in an AUT or ACS including its establishment and contents.(b) 3The authorised fund manager or depositary may be responsible for the register.(c) 3In any event, the person responsible for the register must be stated in the trust deed or contractual scheme deed and this section details what his duties are.(d) 3The provisions relating to documents evidencing title to units3are dependent on the
COLL 6.4.4RRP
(1) Either:11(a) the manager or the trustee (as nominated in the trust deed); or1(b) the authorised contractual scheme manager or the depositary of the ACS (as nominated in the contractual scheme deed);1must establish and maintain a register of unitholders as a document in accordance with this section.1(2) The manager or trustee or the authorised fund manager or depositary1 in accordance with their duties under (1) must exercise all due diligence and take all reasonable steps
MAR 1.10.4GRP
Behaviour3conforming with any of the rules of the Takeover Codeabout the timing, dissemination or availability, content and standard of care applicable to a disclosure, announcement, communication or release of information, is unlikely to3, of itself, amount to market abuse, if:1(1) the rule is one of those specified in the table in MAR 1.10.5G3;(2) the behaviour3is expressly required or expressly permitted by the rule in question (the notes for the time being associated
MAR 1.10.5GRP

Table: Provisions of the Takeover Code conformity with which will be unlikely to3, of itself, amount to market abuse (This table belongs to MAR 1.10.4G3):

11

Takeover Code provisions:

Disclosure of information which is not generally available

1(a)

2.1 , 52.7,

52.11,

8

20.1

521.3, 21.4

528.1

530.1, 30.5

555555

Standards of care

2.8 first sentence and note 4

519.1, 19.7

520.6 second sentence

523.1 plus notes

28.1

55

Timing of announcements, documentation and dealings

52.2, 2.6

5.4

6.2(b)

7.1

11.1 note 6 only

17.1

521.2 note 4 only

524.1(a)

525.1(a)

531.6(d), 31.9

533 (in so far as it refers to 31.6(d) and 31.9 only)

555555

Content of announcements

2.4 (a) and (b)

19.31
GEN 4.5.6AGRP
4As well as potentially breaching the requirements in this section, misleading statements by a firm may involve a breach of Principle 7 (Communications with clients) or section Part 7 (Offences relating to financial services) of the Financial Services Act 2012, as well as giving rise to private law actions for misrepresentation.
SUP 18.3.2GRP
Under cooperation agreements between EEA regulators, if it has serious concerns about the proposed transferee, the appropriate regulator3 should inform the regulatory body of the transferor within 3 months of the original request from that regulatory body. The appropriate regulator3 is not obliged to reply, but if it does not, its opinion is taken to be favourable3. Although the protocol does not apply to Switzerland, the appropriate regulator3 is required to cooperate with the
SUP 18.3.3GRP
The information that the regulatory body of the transferor is required to supply will normally be sufficient for the appropriate regulator3 to determine whether the transfer is likely to have a material effect on the transferee.3
DTR 1B.1.3RRP
DTR 7.1 does not apply to:(1) any issuer which is a subsidiary undertaking of a parent undertaking where the parent undertaking is subject to:3(a) DTR 7.1, or to requirements implementing article 39 of the Audit Directive in any other EEA State; and3(b) articles 11(1), 11(2) and 16(5) of the Audit Regulation;3[Note: article 39(3)(a)3 of the Audit Directive](2) any issuer the sole business of which is to act as the issuer of asset-backed securities provided the entity makes a statement
DTR 1B.1.4GRP
The purpose of the requirements in DTR 7.2 is to implement parts of the Accounting Directive4 (including that Directive 4as applied to banking and insurance companies) which require companies to publish a corporate governance statement.
SUP 15.3.7GRP
Principle 11 requires a firm to deal with its regulators in an open and cooperative way and to disclose to the FCA11 appropriately anything relating to the firm of which the FCA11 would reasonably expect notice. Principle 11 applies to unregulated activities as well as regulated activities and takes into account the activities of other members of a group35353535
SUP 15.3.14GRP
A notification under SUP 15.3.11 R should include:(1) information about any circumstances relevant to the breach or offence;(2) identification of the rule or requirement or offence; and(3) information about any steps which a firm or other person has taken or intends to take to rectify or remedy the breach or prevent any future potential occurrence.
SUP 15.3.19GRP
The notifications under SUP 15.3.17 R are required as the FCA11 needs to be aware of the types of fraudulent and irregular activity which are being attempted or undertaken, and to act, if necessary, to prevent effects on consumers or other firms. A notification under SUP 15.7.3 G should provide all relevant and significant details of the incident or suspected incident of which the firm is aware.3535
COLL 6.3.4RRP
(1) An authorised fund must not have fewer than two regular valuation points in any month and if there are only two valuation points in any month, the regular valuation points must be at least two weeks apart.(2) The prospectus of a scheme must contain information about its regular valuation points for the purposes of dealing in units in accordance with COLL 4.2.5R (16) (Table: contents of the prospectus).(3) Where a scheme operates limited redemption arrangements, (1) does not
COLL 6.3.6GRP

Table: This table belongs to COLL 6.3.2 G (2) (a) and COLL 6.3.3 R (Valuation)1.

Valuation and pricing

1

The valuation of scheme property

(1)

Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review.

(2)

For some or all of the investments comprising the scheme property, different prices may quoted according to whether they are being bought (offer prices) or sold (bid prices). The valuation of a single-priced authorised fund should reflect the mid-market value of such investments. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the issue basis of the valuation will be carried out by reference to the offer prices of investments and the cancellation basis by reference to the bid prices of those same investments. The prospectus should explain how investments will be valued for which a single price is quoted for both buying and selling.1

1

3(2A)

Schemes investing in approved money-market instruments5should value such instruments on an amortised cost basis on condition that:5

55

[Note:CESR's UCITS eligible assets guidelines with respect to article 4(2) of the UCITS eligible assets Directive]

(2B)

[deleted]12

7

12

7

(3)

Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation).

(4)

For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should, in the case of a single-priced authorised fund,2 be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, any such payments should be added to the issue basis of the valuation, or subtracted from the cancellation basis of the valuation, as appropriate. Alternatively, the prospectus of a dual-priced authorised fund may prescribe any other method of calculating unitprices that ensures an equivalent treatment of the effect of these payments.2

(5)

Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that:

it should value an investment at a price which, in its opinion, reflects a fair and reasonable price for that investment (the fair value price);

(6)

The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include:

  • no recent trade in the security concerned; or
  • the occurrence of a significant event since the most recent closure of the market where the price of the security is taken.
In (b), a significant event is one that means the most recent price of a security or a basket of securities is materially different to the price that it is reasonably believed would exist at the valuation point had the relevant market been open.

(7)

In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration:

4(7A)

Where the authorised fund manager, the depositary or the standing independent valuer have reasonable grounds to believe that the most recent valuation of an immovable does not reflect the current value of that immovable, then, unless COLL 6.3.6G(1)(7B) applies,14 the authorised fund manager should consult and agree with the standing independent valuer a fair and reasonable value for the immovable.

14(7B)

Where the authorised fund manager decides that an immovable must be sold quickly to meet redemption requests as they fall due, it should consult and agree with the standing independent valuer a fair and reasonable price for the immovable to reflect a rapid sale, to extent that the prospectus states that it may do so.

(8)

The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly.

(9)

Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing.

2

The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager

(1)

An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices.

(2)

The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that:

  • asset prices are accurate and up to date;
  • investment 1transactions are accurately and promptly reflected in valuations;
  • the components of the valuation (including stock, cash, and units in issue1), are regularly reconciled to their source or prime records and any reconciling items resolved promptly and debtors reviewed for recoverability;
  • the sources of prices not obtained from the main pricing source are recorded and regularly reviewed;
  • compliance with the investment and borrowing powers is regularly reviewed;
  • dividends are accounted for as soon as securities1 are quoted ex-dividend (unless it is prudent to account for them on receipt):
  • fixed interest dividends, interest and expenses are accrued at each valuation point1;
  • tax positions are regularly reviewed and adjusted, if necessary;
  • reasonable tolerances are set for movements in the key elements of a valuation and movements outside these tolerances are investigated;5
  • the fund manager regularly reviews the portfolio valuation for accuracy5; and5
  • the valuation of OTC derivatives is accurate and up to date and in compliance with the methods agreed with the depositary.5

(3)

In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the authorised fund1or the materiality of any effect on the price.

(4)

Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained.

(5)

Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult.

(6)

Where the pricing1function is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply.

3

The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls

(1)

This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing1 functions to one or more third parties5.

5

(2)

A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them.

(3)

A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation.

(4)

A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory.

(5)

Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue1, securities prices (and in particular the prices of OTC derivatives,5unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor.

(6)

A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved.

4

The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing

(1)

An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable.

(2)

In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FCA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FCA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only.

(3)

A depositary should also report to the FCA immediately any instance of incorrect pricing1where the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager.

(4)

In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FCA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing1 during a particular period.

5

The rectification of pricing breaches

(1)

COLL 6.6.3R(3)(c)10(Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing1, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance.

(2)

A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricing1is of minimal significance if:

(3)

In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing1 is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately.

(4)

If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate).

(5)

The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing1 are accurately and promptly calculated and paid.

(6)

If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FCA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units.

(7)

It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price.

(8)

In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid.
COLL 6.3.12GRP
(1) In determining the appropriate manner of making prices public, the authorised fund manager should ensure that:(a) a unitholder or potential unitholder can obtain the prices at a reasonable cost;(b) prices are available at reasonable times;(c) publication is consistent with the manner and frequency at which the units are dealt in1;(d) the manner of publication is disclosed in the prospectus; and(e) prices are published in a consistent manner.(2) Examples of what might be deemed
REC 2.5.14GRP
The FCA3 may also have regard to the systems and controls intended to ensure that confidential information is only used for proper purposes. Where relevant, recognised bodies will have to comply with section 348 (Restrictions on disclosure of confidential information by the FCA3 etc.) and regulations made under section 349 (Exemptions from section 348) of the Act.33
REC 2.5.15GRP
The FCA3 may also have regard to the contracts of employment, staff rules, letters of appointment for members of the management body4, members of relevant committees and other guidance given to individuals on handling conflicts of interest. Guidance to individuals may need to cover:34(1) the need for prompt disclosure of a conflict of interest to enable others, who are not affected by the conflict, to assist in deciding how it should be managed;(2) the circumstances in which a
REC 2.5.16GRP
The FCA3 may also have regard to the arrangements made:3(1) for enforcing rules or other provisions applicable to staff and other persons involved in regulatory decisions; and(2) to keep records of disclosures of conflicts of interest and the steps taken to handle them.