Related provisions for CONC 8.7.7

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MAR 5A.5.3RRP
A firm must:(1) have written agreements with all investment firms pursuing a market making strategy on trading venues operated by it (market making agreements);(2) have schemes, appropriate to the nature and scale of a trading venue, to ensure that a sufficient number of investment firms enter into market making agreements which require them to post firm quotes at competitive prices with the result of providing liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis; (3) monitor
MAR 5A.5.9RRP
A firm which permits direct electronic access to an OTF it operates must:(1) not permit members or participants of the OTF to provide such services unless they are:(a) investment firms authorised under MiFID; or(b) CRD credit institutions; or(c) third country firms providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under article 46.1 of MiFIR; or(d) third country firms providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under article
BIPRU 4.1.12GRP
The rules in GENPRU and BIPRU do not allow a firm to use the IRB approach. A firm that wishes to use the IRB approach should therefore apply for permission to use the IRB approach using the application procedure explained in BIPRU 1.3. If a firm's application is granted, its terms will be set out in an IRB permission.
BIPRU 4.1.20GRP
By modifying GENPRU 2.1.51 R to allow the firm to use the IRB approach to calculate all or part of its risk weighted exposure amounts, the appropriate regulator is treating it like an application rule. The modification means that the provisions of BIPRU relating to the IRB approach supersede the rules relating to the standardised approach for exposures coming within the scope of the IRB permission.
SUP 13.4.2GRP
A UK firm17 or an AIFM exercising an EEA right to market an AIF under AIFMD13,9 cannot start providing cross border services into another EEA State under an EEA right unless it satisfies the conditions in paragraphs 20(1) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act and, if it derives its EEA right from17AIFMD, MiFID or the UCITS Directive,13paragraph 20(4B) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act. If a UK firm derives its EEA right from the MCD, it cannot start providing cross border services
SUP 13.4.7GRP
10A UK firm seeking to provide collective portfolio management services in another EEA State under the freedom to provide cross border services, is advised that it will need to refer to the rules of the competent authority of the UCITS Home State implementing article 20 of the UCITS Directive which will require it to submit to that competent authority information relating to its depositary agreement and certain delegation arrangements.
CONC App 1.1.10RRP
(1) This rule has effect for determining the length of any period for the purposes of calculations under CONC App 1.1.7 R to CONC App 1.1.9 R.(2) A period which is not a whole number of calendar months or a whole number of weeks shall be counted in years and days.(3) Subject to (4) below, a period which is a whole number of calendar months or a whole number of weeks shall be counted in calendar months or in weeks, as the case may be.(4) Where a period is both a whole number of
CONC App 1.1.15RRP
  1. (1)

    This rule applies to any land-related agreement which provides for the possibility of any variation of the rate of interest if it is to be assumed, by virtue of CONC App 1.1.3R (1)(e), that the variation will take place but the amount of the variation cannot be ascertained at the date of the making of the credit agreement.

  2. (2)

    In this rule

    “initial standard variable rate”

    means

    (a)

    the standard variable rate of interest which would be applied by the lender to the credit agreement on the date of the making of the credit agreement if the credit agreement provided for interest to be paid at the lender's standard variable rate with effect from that date, or

    (b)

    if there is no such rate, the standard variable rate of interest applied by the lender on the date of the making of the credit agreement in question to other land-related agreements or, where there is more than one such rate, the highest such rate,

    taking no account (for the avoidance of doubt) of any discount or other reduction to which the borrower would or might be entitled; and

    “varied rate”

    means any rate of interest charged when a variation of the rate of interest is to be assumed to take place by virtue of CONC App 1.1.3R (1)(e).
  3. (3)

    Where a land-related agreement provides a formula for calculating a varied rate by reference to a standard variable rate of interest applied by the lender, or any other fluctuating rate of interest, but does not enable the varied rate to be ascertained at the date of the making of the credit agreement because it is not known on that date what the standard variable rate will be or (as the case may be) at what level the fluctuating rate will be fixed when the varied rate falls to be calculated, it shall be assumed that that rate or level will be the same as the initial standard variable rate.

  4. (4)

    Where a land-related agreement provides for the possibility of any variation in the rate of interest (other than a variation referred to in (3) above) which it is to be assumed, by virtue of CONC App 1.1.3R (1)(e) will take place but does not enable the amount of that variation to be ascertained at the date of the making of the credit agreement, it shall be assumed that the varied rate will be the same as the initial standard variable rate.

COLL 6.6B.12GRP
A firm’s attention is also drawn to the organisational requirements in SYSC. The rules and guidance in SYSC apply to a depositary appointed under COLL 6.6A.8R(3), in accordance with the application provisions summarised in SYSC 1.1A (Application) and provided in detail in SYSC 1 Annex 1.
COLL 6.6B.32GRP
Articles 3 to 17 of the UCITS level 2 regulation provide detailed rules supplementing this section.
DEPP 6.5B.1GRP
2The FCA3 will seek to deprive an individual of the financial benefit derived directly from the breach (which may include the profit made or loss avoided) where it is practicable to quantify this. The FCA3 will ordinarily also charge interest on the benefit. Where the success of a firm’s entire business model is dependent on breaching FCA3rules or other requirements of the regulatory system and the individual’s breach is at the core of the firm’s regulated activities, the FCA3
DEPP 6.5B.2GRP
(1) The FCA3 will determine a figure which will be based on a percentage of an individual’s “relevant income”. “Relevant income” will be the gross amount of all benefits received by the individual from the employment in connection with which the breach occurred (the “relevant employment”), and for the period of the breach. In determining an individual’s relevant income, “benefits” includes, but is not limited to, salary, bonus, pension contributions, share options and share schemes;
LR 9.2.2KRRP
(1) 13This rule applies where a mineral company does not hold controlling interests in a majority (by value) of the properties, fields, mines or other assets in which it has invested.(2) The mineral company is not required to comply with LR 9.2.2IR where it can demonstrate the factors set out in LR 6.10.3R(2).
LR 9.2.18RRP
(1) This rule applies to a listed company that has published:(a) any unaudited financial information in a class 1 circular or a prospectus; or(b) any profit forecast or profit estimate.(2) The first time a listed company publishes financial information as required by DTR 4.17 after the publication of the unaudited financial information, profit forecast or profit estimate, it must:7(a) reproduce that financial information, profit forecast or profit estimate in its next annual report
BIPRU 4.8.12RRP
(1) A firm must monitor both the quality of the purchased receivables and the financial condition of the seller and servicer. In particular a firm must comply with the remaining provisions of this rule.(2) A firm must assess the correlation among the quality of the purchased receivables and the financial condition of both the seller and servicer, and have in place internal policies and procedures that provide adequate safeguards to protect against such contingencies, including
BIPRU 4.8.21RRP
The risk weights for dilution risk for purchased receivables (both corporate exposures and retail exposures) must be calculated according to this rule. The risk weights must be calculated according to the formula in BIPRU 4.4.58 R. However, for the purposes of that formula, the total annual sales referred to in BIPRU 4.4.59 R are the weighted average by individual exposures of the pool. The input parameters PD and LGD and the exposure value must be determined under the applicable
SUP 12.6.1CGRP
11SUP 12.6.1B R requires a firm to which that rule applies to monitor the knowledge and competence of the appointed representative that carries on MCD credit intermediation activity and its staff.
SUP 12.6.10GRP
66(1) The rules and guidance relating to training and competence in SYSC 3 and SYSC 5 and in TC for a firm carrying on retail business extend to any employee of the firm in respect of whom the relevant rules apply.15(2) The specific knowledge and ability requirements in SYSC 28.2 and TC 4.2 for a firm with Part 4A permission to carry on insurance distribution activities apply to a relevant employee (as defined in SYSC 28.1.2R and TC 4.2.3R) of the firm.15(3) For the purposes of
SUP 10C.9.8RRP
A person (referred to as ‘A’ in this rule) is not performing an FCA governing function (referred to as the ‘particular’ FCA governing function in this rule) in relation to a PRA-authorised person (referred to as ‘B’ in this rule), at a particular time, if:(1) A has been approved by the PRA to perform any PRA-designated senior management function in relation to B;(2) throughout the whole of the period between the time of the PRA approval in (1) and the time in question, A has been
SUP 10C.9.9GRP

Table: Examples of how the need for dual FCA and PRA approval in relation to PRA-authorised persons is reduced

1Example

Whether FCA approval required

Whether PRA approval required

Comments

(1) A is appointed as chief risk officer and an executive director.

No. A4 is not treated as performing the executive director function.4

Yes

Chief risk officer is a PRA-designated senior management function. A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA-designated senior management function. To avoid the need for FCA approval, A’s appointment as director should not take effect before PRA approval for the chief risk officer role.

(2) Same as example (1), except that A will take up the role as an executive director slightly later because 4approval is needed from the firm's shareholders or governing body.

No

Yes

The answer for (1) applies. The arrangements in this section apply if the application to the PRA says that A will start to perform the potential FCA governing function around the time of the PRA approval as well as at that time.

(3) Same as example (1) but the application to the PRA does not mention that it is also intended that A is to be an executive director.

Yes, to perform the executive director function.4

Yes

SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply if the application for PRA approval does not say that A will also be performing what would otherwise be an FCA governing function.

(4) A is to be appointed as chief executive and an executive director.

No. A is not treated as performing the executive director function.4

Yes

Being a chief executive is a PRA-designated senior management function. A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA controlled function.

(5) A is appointed as chief risk officer. Later, A is appointed as an executive director while carrying on as chief risk officer.

Yes, when A takes up the director role. The executive director function4 applies.

Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.

SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply because, when the firm applied for approval for A to perform the PRA chief risk officer designated senior management function, there was no plan for A also to perform the executive director function4.

(6) A is appointed as an executive director. Later, A takes on the chief risk officer function and remains as an executive director.

Yes, when A is appointed as director. The executive director function4 applies.

Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.

When A is appointed as chief risk officer, A is still treated as carrying on the executive director function4. A retains the status of an FCA-approved person.

(7) A is appointed as chief risk officer. A then stops performing that role and for a while does not perform any controlled function for that firm. Later, A is appointed as an executive director with the same firm.

Yes, when A is appointed as an executive director. The executive director function4 applies.

Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.

SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply because there is no current PRA approval when A is being appointed as a director.

(8) A is appointed as an executive director and chief risk officer at the same time. Later, A gives up the role as chief risk officer but remains as an executive director.

No, on A’s first appointment (see example (1)). But when A gives up the role as chief risk officer, FCA approval is needed to perform the executive director function4.

Form E should be used. The application should state that it is being made as a result of A ceasing to perform a PRA-designated senior management function.

Form A should be used if there have been changes in A’s fitness (SUP 10C.10.9D(4))

Yes, on A’s first appointment.

When A stops being a chief risk officer, A stops performing a PRA-designated senior management function. However, being an executive director requires FCA approval. A does not have that approval because A did not need it when A was first appointed.

The combined effect of SUP 10C.9.8R and the relevant PRA rules is that the firm has three months to secure approval by the FCA. During that interim period, A keeps the status of a PRA approved person performing the director element of the PRA chief risk designated senior management function - which is included in that function under relevant PRA rules. The relevant PRA rules say that, during this transitional period, A is still treated as performing the PRA chief risk designated senior management function and SUP 10C.9.8R says that, for as long as A is performing a PRA-designated senior management function, A does not perform the executive director function4.

(9) A is appointed as the chief finance officer and an executive director at the same time. Later, A switches to being chief risk officer while remaining as an executive director.

No

Yes

The arrangements in SUP 10C.9.8R continue to apply, even though A switches between PRA-designated senior management functions4 after the PRA's first approval.

(10) A is appointed chief risk officer and an executive director. A goes on temporary sick leave. A takes up their old job when A4 comes back.

No, neither on A’s first appointment nor when A comes back from sick leave.

Yes

SUP 10C.9.8R still applies on A’s return because A does not stop performing either the PRA's chief risk function or what would otherwise have been the executive director function4 just because A goes on temporary sick leave.

(11) A is appointed to be chair4 of the governing body and chair4 of the nomination committee at the same time.

No. A does not need approval to perform the chair of the nomination committee function.

Yes, on first appointment.

Being chair4 of the governing body is a PRA-designated senior management function. Therefore, the answer for example (1) applies.

2(12) ‘A’ is to be appointed to perform the Head of Overseas Branch PRA-designated senior management function (SMF19) for a an overseas SMCR firm that is not an EEA SMCR firm.4 A is also an executive director of that firm’sUKbranch.

No. A is not treated as performing the executive director function4.

3

Yes

A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA controlled function.

Note 1: The relevant PRA rules can be found in the parts of the PRA Rulebook listed in SUP 10C.9.6G.4

Note 2: Where one of the examples in this table includes someone being chief risk or finance officer or chair of the governing body, the example assumes that the firm is of a type for which that function is a PRA-designated senior management function.4
CONC 12.1.2GRP
The purpose of these rules is to provide that certain provisions of the Handbook or of a Regulatory Guide:3(1) that would otherwise apply to persons with an interim permission are not to apply; or(2) are to apply to those persons with the modifications specified in the table in CONC 12.1.4 R.
CONC 12.1.4RRP

Table: Disapplied or modified modules or provisions of the Handbook

Module

Disapplication or modification

Senior Management Arrangements, Systems and Control sourcebook (SYSC)

[FCA]

SYSC 6.1.4C R (requirement of debt management firm or credit repair firm to appoint a compliance officer) does not apply to a firm with an interim permission.

SYSC 6.3.8 R (responsibility for anti-money laundering systems and controls) does not apply to a firm with only an interim permission.

SYSC 6.3.9 R (requirement to appoint a money laundering reporting officer) does not apply to a firm with only an interim permission.

Fees manual (FEES)

[FCA]

The Fees manual does not apply in respect of the fee provided for in FEES 8.1.1R (1), except for the rules and guidance in FEES 2.3 and FEES 8.1.

3Threshold Conditions (COND)

Guidance applies with necessary modifications to reflect Chapter 4 of Part 8 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (see Note 1).

Note 1

A firm is treated as having an interim permission on and after 1 April 2014 to carry on credit-related regulated activity4 or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No.2) Order 2013 if it met the conditions set out in Chapter 4 of Part 8 of that Order. Section 55B(3) of the Act (satisfaction of threshold conditions) does not require the FCA or PRA to ensure that the firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, in relation to the credit-related regulated activities4 or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 for which it has an interim permission, the threshold conditions for which that regulator is responsible. The FCA or PRA can, however, exercise its power under section 55J of the Act (variation or cancellation on initiative of regulator) or under section 55L of the Act (in the case of the FCA) or section 55M of the Act (in the case of the PRA) (imposition of requirements by the regulator) in relation to a firm if, among other things, it appears to the FCA or PRA that the firm is failing, or is likely to fail, to satisfy the threshold conditions in relation to the credit-related regulated activities4 or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 for which it has an interim permission for which the regulator is responsible. The guidance4 in COND should be read accordingly.

4444

3Client Assets (CASS)

CASS does not apply with respect to credit-related regulated activity to a firm with7:

(1)

only an interim permission; or

(2) an interim permission that is treated as a variation of permission;

if the firm acts in accordance with the provisions of paragraphs 3.42 and 3.43 of the Debt management (and credit repair services) guidance (OFT366rev) previously issued by the Office of Fair Trading, as they were in effect immediately before 1 April 2014.

77577

3Supervision manual (SUP)

SUP 3 (Auditors), SUP 10A (FCA Approved persons), SUP 10C (FCA senior managers11 regime for approved persons in SMCR firms11) and SUP 12 (Appointed representatives) (see Note 2) do not apply:

(1) to a firm with only an interim permission; or

(2) with respect to a credit-related regulated activity or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 for which a firm has an interim permission that is treated as a variation of permission,7

except that SUP 3.10 and SUP 3.11 apply to a firm in relation to its designated investment business that comprises operating an electronic system in relation to lending.7

87

Note 2

A firm may not be a principal in relation to a regulated activity for which it has interim permission. A firm with interim permission may, however, be an appointed representative in relation to a regulated activity which it does not have interim permission to carry on (article 59 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013).

SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part 4A permission and to impose, vary or cancel requirements) applies:

(1) with necessary modifications to reflect Chapter 4 of Part 8 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (see Note 3);

(2) with the modifications to SUP 6.3.15D9 and SUP 6.4.5D9 set out in paragraph 1.2 of this Schedule.

Note 3

If a firm with interim permission applies to the appropriate regulator under section 55A of the Act for Part 4A permission to carry on a regulated activity or under section 55H or 55I of the Act to vary a Part 4A permission that the firm has otherwise than by virtue of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 by adding a regulated activity to those to which the permission relates, the application may be treated by the appropriate regulator as relating also to some or all of the regulated activities for which the firm has interim permission.

SUP 11 (Controllers and close links) does not apply to a firm with only an interim permission (see Note 4).

Note 4

A firm is not to be regarded as an authorised person for the purposes of Part 12 of the Act (control over authorised person) if it has only an interim permission (see article 59 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013).

For a firm with only an interim permission

(1) SUP 15.5.1 R, SUP 15.5.2 G, SUP 15.5.4 R, SUP 15.5.5 R are modified so that the words "reasonable advance", "and the date on which the firm intends to implement the change of name" and "and the date of the change" are omitted; and

(2) SUP 15.7.1 R, SUP 15.7.4 R and SUP 15.7.5A R are modified so that a notification of a change in name, address or telephone number must be made using the online Consumer Credit Interim Permissions system available on the FCA's website.

(3) If in a notification to the FCA the firm is required to enter its FRN number it must include it interim permission number.

SUP 16 (Reporting requirements) does not apply to a firm with only an interim permission except for SUP 16.14.10

7776

SUP 16.11 and SUP 16.12 apply to a firm, which was an authorised person immediately before 1 April 2014, with an interim permission that is treated as a variation of permission with respect to credit-related regulated activity or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 as if the changes to SUP 16.11 and SUP 16.12 effected by the Consumer Credit (Consequential and Supplementary Amendments) Instrument 2014 had not been made.10

6

3Disputes Resolution: Complaints sourcebook (DISP)

DISP 1.10 (Complaints reporting rules) and DISP 1.10A (Complaints data publication rules) do not apply to a person with only an interim permission.

DISP 1.10 (Complaints reporting rules) and DISP 1.10A (Complaints data publication rules) apply to a firm, which was an authorised person immediately before 1 April 2014, with an interim permission that is treated as a variation of permission with respect to credit-related regulated activity or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 as if the changes to DISP 1.10 and DISP 1.10A effected by the Consumer Credit (Consequential and Supplementary Amendments) Instrument 2014 had not been made.

3Consumer Credit sourcebook (CONC)

CONC 10 (Prudential requirements for debt management firms) does not apply:

(1) to a firm with only an interim permission; or

(2) with respect to credit-related regulated activity or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 for which a firm has an interim permission that is treated as a variation of permission.

3Perimeter Guidance manual (PERG)

For a firm only with an interim permission, PERG 5.11.13 G is modified so that following the words "which does not otherwise consist of carrying on regulated activities" is added "(other than a regulated activity carried on by a firm only with an interim permission listed in article 59A of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities)(Amendment)(No.2) Order 2013 (SI 2013/1881) which is to be disregarded for this purpose)".

Article 59A enables a firm with only an interim permission which would be able to benefit from article 72B of the Regulated Activities Order, but for carrying on the new consumer credit regulated activities to continue to do so.
SYSC 10A.1.1RRP
1Subject to the exemptions in SYSC 10A.1.4R, this chapter applies to a firm:(1) that is a:(a) UK MiFID investment firm; or(b) full-scope UK AIFM; or(c) small authorised UK AIFM or residual CIS operator; or(d) incoming EEA AIFM; or(e) UCITS management company; or(f) MiFID optional exemption firm, performing activities covered by the exemption; or(g) EEA MiFID investment firm; or(h) third country investment firm; or(i) that carries on activities referred to in the general application
SYSC 10A.1.12GRP
A notification referred to in SYSC 10A.1.11R is only required to be made by the firm once, at the following times:(1) to a new client prior to the provision of any investment services; and(2) to an existing client prior to the provision of any investment services following:(a) the commencement of these rules; or(b) the firm otherwise becoming subject to these rules, after the date of commencement.[Note: article 16(7) of MiFID, fifth subparagraph]
COLL 4.3.2GRP
(1) The diagram in COLL 4.3.3 G explains how an authorised fund manager should treat changes it is proposing to a scheme and provides an overview of the rules and guidance in this section.(2) Regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company), section 261Q of the Act (Alteration of contractual schemes and changes of operator or depositary)5 and section 251 of the Act (Alteration of schemes and changes of manager or trustee)
COLL 4.3.11RRP
3Where the authorised fund manager of either a feeder UCITS or a feeder NURS4 is notified of any change in respect of its master UCITS or qualifying master scheme4which has the effect of a change to the feeder UCITS or feeder NURS4, the authorised fund manager must:4(1) classify it as a fundamental change, significant change or a notifiable change to the feeder UCITS or feeder NURS4 in accordance with the rules in this section; and(2) (a) for a fundamental change, obtain approval
FEES 6.5.13RRP
(1) 5Unless exempt under13FEES 6.2.1A R11, a participant firm must provide the FSCS by the end of February each year (or, if it has become a participant firm part way through the financial year13, by the date requested by the FCA13) with a statement of:4(a) 10classes and categories15 to which it belongs; and410(b) the total amount of business (measured in accordance with the appropriate tariff base or tariff bases) which it conducted, in respect of the most recent valuation period
FEES 6.5.14RRP
If the information in FEES 6.5.13 R has been provided to the FCA13 under other rule obligations, or in accordance with the PRA Rulebook,15 a participant firm will be deemed to have complied with FEES 6.5.13 R.
FEES 4.2.2AGRP
64A recognised body may also have obligations to pay fees to the FCA under other rules arising from legislation other than the Act. For example a recognised body may have an obligation to pay a fee as an approved operator of a relevant system under the Uncertificated Securities Regulations 1995 (SI 1995/3272).
FEES 4.2.7IRRP
42If a firm does not have sufficient tariff data to enable the periodic fees calculation to be made in respect of that fee year, it must calculate an annualised figure based on actual data where possible. If the tariff base is a cumulative measure like income, covering the full year, it must apply the formula (A÷B) x 12, where:A = the total income from the date of authorisation up to the firm’s financial year end or 31 December (whichever is sooner), calculated according to the
BIPRU 13.6.1RRP
BIPRU 13.6 sets out the rules relating to the CCR internal model method.
BIPRU 13.6.67RRP
(1) A firm'sCCR internal model method model must meet the validation requirements in (2) to (8).(2) The qualitative validation requirements set out in BIPRU 7.10 must be met.(3) Interest rates, foreign currency rates, equity prices, commodities, and other market risk factors must be forecast over long time horizons for measuring CCRexposure. The performance of the forecasting model for market risk factors must be validated over a long time horizon.(4) The pricing models used to
IFPRU 2.2.8RRP
(1) This rule defines some of the terms used in the overall Pillar 2 rule. (2) Residual risk means the risk that credit risk mitigation techniques used by the firm prove less effective than expected.(3) Securitisation risk includes the risk that the own funds held by a firm for assets which it has securitised are inadequate having regard to the economic substance of the transaction, including the degree of risk transfer achieved.(4) Business risk means any risk to a firm arising
IFPRU 2.2.36RRP
The general stress and scenario testing rule in IFPRU 2.2.37 R and related rules and guidance apply to a significant IFPRU firm.
BIPRU 4.2.21GRP
(1) A firm should achieve full roll-out of the IRB approach to all its exposures, subject to the exemptions outlined in BIPRU 4.2.26 R, within the period specified in its IRB permission. A firm should not retain a permanent mix of portfolios on the standardised approach and the IRB approach, on the foundation IRB approach and the advanced IRB approach or on a mixture of all approaches with the exception of portfolios covered by those exemptions.(2) This applies to a move:(a) from
BIPRU 4.2.30RRP
(1) This rule sets out what must be treated as being non-significant business or immaterial for the purposes of BIPRU 4.2.26 R (4), for exposures that do not fall within the equity exposureIRB exposure class.(2) A firm may elect permanently to exclude exposures from the IRB approach and apply the standardised approach. However a firm may only make use of this exemption to the extent that:(a) the consolidated credit risk requirement (adjusted under (6)) so far as it is attributable
FEES 5.2.6GRP
The relevant provisions of the rules in FEES 5 and FEES 2 will be applied to VJ participants through the standard terms made by FOS Ltd under paragraph 18 of Schedule 17 to the Act (see DISP 4).
CASS 5.2.1GRP
If a firm holds money as agent of an insurance undertaking then the firm'sclients (who are not insurance undertakings) will be adequately protected to the extent that the premiums which it receives are treated as being received by the insurance undertaking when they are received by the agent and claims money and premium refunds will only be treated as received by the client when they are actually paid over. The rules in CASS 5.2 make provision for agency agreements between firms