Related provisions for FEES 13.2.10
341 - 360 of 610 items.
The RAP
regulations apply modified provisions of the Act to
an RAP. For example, an RAP is an exempt
person in respect of its business as an auction
platform due to the application of section 285 of the Act as modified by the the RAP
regulations. Similarly, section 293 of the Act is
applied and modified by the RAP regulations to
provide for notification rules and
notification requirements in relation to RAPs.
(1) For the purpose of BIPRU 7.8.2R (1), a firm has a commitment to underwrite or sub-underwrite an issue of securities where:(a) it gives a commitment to an issuer of securities to underwrite an issue of securities; or(b) (where BIPRU 7.8.12R (2) applies) it gives a commitment to a seller of securities to underwrite a sale of those securities;(c) it gives a commitment to a person, other than the issuer of securities or, if BIPRU 7.8.12R (2) applies, the seller of the securities,
(1) This rule deals with the treatment of short positions that arise when a firm commits to distribute securities that it is underwriting in an amount that exceeds the allocation to the firm made by the issuer of the securities being underwritten.(2) When calculating its net underwriting position, a firm may use an over-allotment option granted to it by the issuer of the securities being underwritten to reduce the short positions in (1).(3) A firm may also use an over-allotment
(1) A CAD Article 22 group means a UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group that meets the conditions in this rule.(2) There must be no bank, building society or2credit institution2 in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group and any investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group must not be subject to consolidated supervision under the EU CRR2.11(3) Each CAD investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group which is an EEA firm
A firm must calculate the capital resources of the parent financial holding company in a Member State for the purpose of BIPRU 8.4.11 R as follows:(1) the capital resources are the sum of capital resources calculated at stages D (Total tier one capital before deductions) and I (Total tier two capital) of the version of the capital resources table in GENPRU 2 Annex 4R(Capital resources table for a BIPRU 2firm deducting material holdings) as adjusted in accordance with this rule;(2)
(1) FEES applies to all persons required to pay a fee or levy under a provision of the Handbook. The purpose of this chapter is to set out to whom the rules and guidance in FEES apply. 30(2) FEES 2 (General Provisions) contains general provisions which may apply to any type of fee payer.30(3) FEES 3 (Application, Notification and Vetting Fees) covers one-off fees payable on a particular event for example:3330(a) 33various application fees (including those in relation to authorisation,
15FEES App 1 Annex 1A38 applies to all persons required to pay a fee or any other amount to the FCA under the Unauthorised Mutuals Registration Fees Rules, as made by the Fees (Unauthorised Mutual Societies Registration) Instrument 2002 (FSA 2002/4) and amended from time to time. FEES App 1 Annex 5 applies to all persons required to pay a fee for inspecting any document or documents on the Mutuals Register.38
Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS gives notice to the FCA under section 251 or section 261Q1 of the Act or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations that it intends to wind up the scheme, it must inform:(1) the unitholders of the feeder UCITS; and(2) where notice is given under COLL 11.6.5R (4) (Application for approval by a feeder UCITS where a master UCITS merges or divides), the authorised fund manager of the master UCITS;of its intention without undue delay.[Note:
(1) Regulation 15(9) of the OEIC Regulations, and sections 243(8) and 261D(10)6 of the Act require that an authorised fund's name must not be undesirable or misleading. This section contains guidance on some specific matters the FCA will consider in determining whether the name of an authorised fund is undesirable or misleading. It is in addition to the requirements of regulation 19 of the OEIC Regulations (Prohibition on certain names).6(2) The FCA will take into account whether
(1) 8ESMA has issued guidelines on the use of the term ‘UCITS ETF’. A ‘UCITS ETF’ is a UCITS with at least one unit or share class which is traded throughout the day, on at least one regulated market or multilateral trading facility, with at least one market maker that takes action to ensure that the stock exchange value of its units or shares does not significantly vary from its net asset value and, where applicable, its indicative net asset value.(2) A ‘UCITS ETF’ should use
(1) 6An authorised fund may only enter into a stock lending arrangement or repo contract in accordance with the rules in this section if the arrangement or contract is: (a) for the account of and for the benefit of the scheme; and(b) in the interests of its unitholders. (2) An arrangement or contract in (1) is not in the interests of unitholders unless it reasonably appears to the ICVC or authorised fund manager of an authorised fund to be appropriate with a view to generating
(1) Collateral is adequate for the purposes of this section only if it is:(a) transferred to the depositary or its agent;(aa) 6for a UCITS scheme, received under a title transfer arrangement;(ab) 6for a UCITS scheme, at all times equal in value to the market value of the securities transferred by the depositary plus a premium;(b) for a non-UCITS retail scheme, at all times 6at least equal in value 6to the value of the securities transferred by the depositary; and(c) for a non-UCITS
(1) 1The FCA2will seek to deprive a firm of the financial benefit derived directly from the breach (which may include the profit made or loss avoided) where it is practicable to quantify this. The FCA2 will ordinarily also charge interest on the benefit.22(2) Where the success of a firm’s entire business model is dependent on breachingFCArules2 or other requirements of the regulatory system and the breach is at the core of the firm’s regulated activities, the FCA2 will seek to
(1) The FCA2 will determine a figure that reflects the seriousness of the breach. In many cases, the amount of revenue generated by a firm from a particular product line or business area is indicative of the harm or potential harm that its breach may cause, and in such cases the FCA2 will determine a figure which will be based on a percentage of the firm’s revenue from the relevant products or business areas. The FCA2 also believes that the amount of revenue generated by a firm
(1) This rule applies to a transfer of the listing of:52(a) equity shares with a premium listing into or out of the category of premium listing (investment company); or5(b) equity shares with a premium listing out of the category of premium listing (commercial company); or5(c) equity shares or certificates representing shares with a premium listing out of the category of premium listing (sovereign controlled commercial company) into the category of standard listing (shares) or
As part of the SLRP, the appropriate regulator will give a standard ILAS BIPRU firmindividual liquidity guidance advising it of the amount and quality of liquidity resources which the appropriate regulator considers are appropriate, having regard to the liquidity risk profile of that firm. In giving individual liquidity guidance, the appropriate regulator will also advise the firm of what it considers to be a prudent funding profile for the firm. In giving the firmindividual liquidity
A firm that deviates from current individual liquidity guidance that it has accepted or, as the case may be, from its simplified buffer requirement, will be experiencing a firm-specific liquidity stress for the purpose of the reporting rules in SUP 16 (Reporting requirements). Those rules require the firm to report specified data items more frequently than would otherwise be the case. Additionally, a firm that is implementing a liquidity remediation plan should expect that the
Sections 59 and 63A of the Act show that failure to observe a condition does not in itself necessarily2 invalidate an approval. Instead, both the firm and the SMF manager may be subject to a penalty for breach of the Act. Such a failure may also:(1) involve a breach of FCArules by the firm and a breach by the SMF manager of COCON; and(2) call into question the fitness of the SMF manager.
(1) Guidance on what constitutes a branch is given in SUP App 3.18(2) (a) Where a UK MiFID investment firm is seeking to use a tied agent established in another EEA State in which a branch is already established, the tied agent will be assimilated into the branch.18(b) If a UK MiFID investment firm is seeking to use a tied agent established in another EEA State in which no branch is already established, the rules in SUP 13 will apply as if that firm were seeking to establish a
A UK firm17 cannot establish a branch in another EEA State for the first time under an EEA right unless the relevant13 conditions in paragraphs 19(2), (4) and (5)12 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act are satisfied. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to contravene this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act). These conditions are that:913121213(1) the UKfirm has given the appropriate UK regulator,20 in accordance with the
(1) If a firm is satisfied that an employee meets the conditions in this rule then the requirements to have attained 16each module of an appropriate qualification 16will only apply if that employee is carrying on one of the activities specified in this rule.1616(2) The conditions are that a firm should be satisfied that an employee:(a) has at least three years' up-to-date relevant experience in the activity in question obtained while employed outside the United Kingdom;(b) has
A firm must:(1) have written agreements with all investment firms pursuing a market making strategy on trading venues operated by it (market making agreements);(2) have schemes, appropriate to the nature and scale of a trading venue, to ensure that a sufficient number of investment firms enter into market making agreements which require them to post firm quotes at competitive prices with the result of providing liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis;(3) monitor
A firm which permits direct electronic access to an MTF it operates must:(1) not permit members or participants of the MTF to provide such services unless they are: (a) investment firms authorised under MiFID; or(b) CRD credit institutions; or(c) third country firms providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under article 46.1 of MiFIR; or(d) third country firms providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under article
(1) 1MCOB 4.7A sets out standards to be observed by firms when advising a particular customer on regulated mortgage contracts.(2) The rules at MCOB 4.8A require firms which are selling regulated mortgage contracts to, or entering into variations of existing regulated mortgage contracts with, certain types of vulnerable customer, to provide advice to them.(3) The rules at MCOB 4.8A also provide that advice must be given wherever the sales process involves spoken or other interactive
A sponsor, or a 8person48applying for approval as a sponsor, will not satisfy LR 8.6.5R (2) unless it has:4888(1) 8submitted a sponsor declaration to the FCA:(a) for a person applying for approval as a sponsor, within three years of the date of its application; and(b) for a sponsor, within the previous three years; and(2) 8a sufficient number of employees with the skills , knowledge and expertise necessary for it to:(a) provide sponsor services in accordance with LR 8.3; (b)
4For each 8sponsor service requiring the submission of a document to the FCA or contact with the FCA, a sponsor must:8(1) at the time of submission or on first making contact with the FCA8notify the FCAof the name and contact details of a key 8contact within8 the sponsor for that matter8; and8888(2) ensure that its key8contact : 88(a) has8 sufficient knowledge about the listed company or applicant and the proposed matter8to be able to answer queries from the FCA about it; 888(b)
1A persistency report or data report must report on a life policy or stakeholder pension if:(1) it is not of a type listed in SUP 16.8.13 R or SUP 16.8.14 R;(2) it was effected by:(a) the firm submitting the report; or(b) an unauthorised member of the group of the firm submitting the report and in circumstances in which that firm was responsible for the promotion of that life policy or stakeholder pension; or(c) another firm, but is being carried out by the firm submitting the
1A persistency or data report must not report on any of the following:(1) a life policy or stakeholder pension that was cancelled from inception whether or not this was as a result of service of a notice under the rules on cancellation (COBS 15)5;5(2) [deleted]77(3) a life policy (excluding income withdrawal) or stakeholder pension which has terminated as a result of death, critical illness, retirement, maturity or other completion of the contract term;(4) income withdrawals that
Where a firm understands, or reasonably suspects, a customer has or may have a mental capacity limitation the firm should take particular care that the customer is not provided with credit which the firm knows, or reasonably believes, to be unsuitable to the customer's needs, even where the credit would be affordable.[Note: paragraph 4.43 of MCG]
(1) Taking account of the remuneration principles proportionality rule in SYSC 19E.2.4R, the FCA does not generally consider it necessary for a management company to apply the rules referred to in (2) where, in relation to an individual (“X”), both the following conditions are satisfied: (a) Condition 1 is that X’s variable remuneration is no more than 33% of total remuneration; and (b) Condition 2 is that X’s total remuneration is no more than £500,000. (2) The rules to which
(1) Subject to the legal structure of the UCITS and the instrument constituting the fund, a management company must ensure that a substantial portion, and in any event at least 50%, of any variable remuneration component consists of: (a) units or shares of the UCITS concerned; or (b) equivalent ownership interests in the UCITS concerned; or (c) share-linked instruments relating to the UCITS concerned; or (d) equivalent non-cash instruments relating to the UCITS concerned with