Related provisions for BIPRU 7.8.4
61 - 80 of 87 items.
(1) As a result of the new legal framework for threshold conditions described in COND 1.1A.1G (1), PRA-authorised persons and firms seeking to become PRA-authorised persons are subject to two sets of threshold conditions:(i) the FCA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(ii)and(ii) one of the two PRA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(iii) or (iv), depending on the PRA-regulated activities which the PRA-authorised person or firm carries on, or is
A person may enter into a regulated sale and rent back agreement as agreement provider without being regulated by the FCA (or an exempt person) if the person does not do so by way of business. However, a SRB intermediary should at all times be conscious of its obligations under Principle 6 (Customers' interests). Should the firm have any reason to believe or entertain any suspicions that the SRB agreement seller may be proposing to enter into a regulated sale and rent back agreement
Senior conduct rules staff members do not themselves need to put in place the systems of control for the business, unless it is within their role and responsibilities. However, they should take reasonable steps to ensure that the business for which they are responsible has operating procedures and systems with well-defined steps for complying with the detail of relevant requirements and standards of the regulatory system and for ensuring that the business is run prudently. The
A firm may employ different approaches to different portfolios where the firm itself uses different approaches internally. A firm must, if it uses different approaches in accordance with the previous sentence, be able to demonstrate to the appropriate regulator that the choice is made consistently and is not determined by regulatory arbitrage considerations.[Note:BCD Annex VII Part 1 point 17]
A firm must include within its CASS resolution pack:(1) a master document containing information sufficient to retrieve each document in the firm'sCASS resolution pack;(2) a document which identifies the institutions the firm has appointed (including through an appointed representative, tied agent, field representative or other agent):(a) in the case of client money, for the placement of money in accordance with CASS 7.13.3 R1 or to hold client money in accordance with CASS 7.14.2
19Where an employee, carrying on an activity in relation to a regulated mortgage contract, has attained the appropriate qualification required by TC Appendix 1, a firm may for the purposes of TC 2.1.5B R assess that employee as having knowledge and competence. Additionally, firms will need to meet any other requirements in this or other sourcebooks that are applicable, taking into account the employee’s role and responsibilities.21
This chapter explains:(1) how a firm with a Part 4A permission7 can apply to the relevant regulator7 to vary that permission;77(2) how a firm which has ceased to carry on any of the regulated activities for which it has a Part 4A permission,7 or which expects to do so in the short term (normally less than six months), should apply to the relevant regulator7 to cancel that permission completely; 77(2A) how a firm with a Part 4A permission can apply to the relevant regulator to:7(a)
To be eligible for the retail exposure treatment purchased receivables must comply with the minimum requirements set out in BIPRU 4.8.11 R - BIPRU 4.8.15 R and the following conditions:(1) the firm has purchased the receivables from unrelated, third party sellers, and its exposure to the obligor of the receivable does not include any exposures that are directly or indirectly originated by the firm itself;(2) the purchased receivables must be generated on an arm's-length basis
(1) The rules in (2) do not apply to a firm with respect to a regulated mortgage activity or a home purchase activity2 exclusively concerning a distance contract if the following conditions are satisfied:2(a) the firm carries on the activity from an establishment maintained by the firm in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; and(b) either the EEA State:(i) has implemented the Distance Marketing Directive3; or3(ii) has obligations in its domestic law corresponding to those
A firm may treat contractual netting as risk-reducing only under the following conditions:(1) the firm must have a contractual netting agreement with its counterparty which creates a single legal obligation, covering all included transactions, such that, in the event of a counterparty's failure to perform owing to default, bankruptcy, liquidation or any other similar circumstance, the firm would have a claim to receive or an obligation to pay only the net sum of the positive and
23'Relevant benefits' are those benefits that fall outside what is required in order that policyholders' reasonable expectations at that point of sale can be fulfilled. (The phrase 'policyholders' reasonable expectations' has technically been superseded. However, the concept now resides within the obligations imposed upon firms by FCA Principle 6 ('...a firm must pay due regard to the interests of its customers and treat them fairly....') Additionally, most of these benefits would
A UK UCITS management company that operates an EEA UCITS scheme must in relation to that activity comply with the rules which relate to:(1) the organisation of the management company, including delegation arrangements;(2) risk-management procedures;(3) prudential rules and supervision;(4) operating conditions; and(5) reporting requirements.[Note: article 19(1) of the UCITS Directive]
(1) 3If a customer is in default or in arrears difficulties, the firm should, where appropriate:(a) inform the customer that free and impartial debt advice is available from not-for-profit debt advice bodies; and(b) refer the customer to a not-for-profit debt advice body. (2) A firm may refer the customer to a not-for-profit debt advice body by, for example, providing the customer with a copy of the current arrears information sheet under section 86 of the CCA, or with the name
For a credit derivative to be met the following conditions must also be met.(1) Subject to (2), the credit events specified under the credit derivative must at a minimum include:(a) the failure to pay the amounts due under the terms of the underlying obligation that are in effect at the time of such failure (with a grace period that is closely in line with or shorter than the grace period in the underlying obligation);(b) the bankruptcy, insolvency or inability of the obligor
5A contract is excluded from the definition of regulated mortgage contract if, at the time it is entered into, it meets the following conditions:(1) it meets the conditions in PERG 4.4.1G (1) to (3); and(2) less than 40% of the land secured by the mortgage is used, or intended to be used, as or in connection with a dwelling by the borrower or (for credit provided to trustees) by an individual who is a beneficiary of the trust, or by a related person; and(3) the agreement is entered
Pursuant
to sections 55L, 55N, 55O, 55P and 55Q of the Act,
within the scope of its functions and powers, the FCA5may seek to impose requirements which
include but are not restricted to:55(1) requiring
a firm to submit regular reports
covering, for example, trading results, management accounts, customer complaints, connected party transactions;(2) where
appropriate, 5requiring a firm to
maintain prudential limits, for example on large exposures,
foreign currency exposures or
liquidity
An approved person performing an accountable higher management function5 need not themselves5 put in place the systems of control in their5 business (APER 4.7.4G5). Whether he does this depends on his role and responsibilities. He should,
however, take reasonable steps to ensure that the business for which he is
responsible has operating procedures and systems which include well-defined
steps for complying with the detail of relevant requirements and standards
of the regulatory