Related provisions for PERG 8.3.4
141 - 160 of 1114 items.
3For
the purpose of this Statement of Principle,
regulators in addition to the FCA and
the PRA are those which have
recognised jurisdiction in relation to regulated
activities and a power to call for information from the approved person in connection with their 1accountable function or (in the case of
an individual performing an accountable higher management function)1 in connection with the business for which they are1 responsible.
This may include an exchange or an oversea
1Failing
to report promptly in accordance with his firm's internal
procedures (or if none exist direct to the regulator concerned), information which it would be
reasonable to assume would be of material significance to the regulator concerned), whether in response to questions
or otherwise, falls within APER 4.4.3 G. The
regulator concerned is:(1) the FCA if
it would be reasonable to assume that it would be of material significance
to it;3(2) the PRA if
it would be reasonable
There
is no duty on an approved person to
report such information directly to the regulator concerned3 unless he is one of the approved persons responsible within the firm for reporting matters to the regulator concerned.3However, if an approved person takes steps to influence the decision so as not to report to the regulator concerned or acts in a way that is intended to obstruct the reporting of the information to the regulator concerned, then the FCA1 will, in respect of that
1In
determining whether or not an approved person's conduct
under APER 4.4.4 G complies with Statement of Principle 4,
the following are factors which, in the opinion of the FCA, are to be taken into account:3(1) the
likely significance to the regulator concerned (as defined in APER 4.4.4 G1) of the information which it was
reasonable for the individual to assume;31(2) whether
the information related to the individual himself or to his firm;(3) whether
any decision not to report
1In determining whether or not an approved person's conduct under APER 4.4.7G complies with Statement of Principle 4, the following are factors which, in the opinion of the FCA, are to be taken into account:(1) the likely significance of the information to the regulator concerned (as defined in APER 4.4.4G) which it was reasonable for the approved person to assume;(2) whether any decision not to inform the regulator concerned (as defined in APER 4.4.4G) was taken after reasonable
The purpose of the 5Code of Practice for Approved Persons is to help an approved person5 to determine whether or not
that person's5 conduct
complies with a Statement of Principle.
The code sets out descriptions of conduct which, in the FCA's opinion,
do or5 do not comply with the relevant Statements
of Principle. The code also sets out certain factors which,
in the opinion of the FCA,
are to be taken into account in determining whether an approved
person's conduct complies with
The Code of Practice for Approved Persons5 is general guidance. The status and effect of general guidance is described in the Readers' Guide. In particular, guidance:5(1) represents the FCA’s view and does not bind the courts or third parties;5(2) is not binding on approved persons, nor does it have ‘evidential’ effect;5(3) need not be followed to achieve compliance with the Statements of Principle, nor is there any presumption that departing from guidance is indicative of a
5In assessing compliance with, or a breach of, a Statement of Principle, the FCA will look at5 all the circumstances of a particular case. 5 Account will be taken of the context in which a course of conduct
was undertaken, including the precise circumstances of the individual case,
the characteristics of the particular accountable
function12 and the behaviour to be expected
in that function. 12
The Code of Practice for Approved Persons (and
in particular the specific examples of behaviour which may be in breach of
a generic description of conduct in the code) is not exhaustive of the kind
of conduct that may contravene the Statements
of Principle. The purpose of the code is to help determine whether
or not a person's conduct complies
with a Statement of Principle.
The code may be supplemented from time to time. The FCA5 will amend the code if there is
a risk that unacceptable
In applying Statements of Principle 5 to 7, the nature, scale and complexity of the business under management and the role and responsibility of the individual performing an accountable higher management function5 within the firm will be relevant in assessing whether an approved person's conduct was reasonable. For example, the smaller and less complex the business, the less detailed and extensive the systems of control need to be. The FCA will be of the opinion that an individual
UK domestic firms with a premium listing are subject to the UK
Corporate Governance Code4, whose internal
control Provisions8 are amplified in the publication entitled ‘Guidance on Risk Management, Internal Control and Related Financial and Business Reporting (September 2014)’6 issued by the Financial Reporting Council4. Firms regulated
by the FCA5 in this category will 6be subject
to that code as well as to the requirements and standards of the regulatory system. In forming an
(1) If an issuer wishes to transfer the5 category of its5listing it must notify the FCA of the proposal.2(2) The notification must be made as early as possible and in any event not less than 20 business days before it sends the circular required under LR 5.4A.4 R (2)(a) or publishes the announcement required under LR 5.4A.5 R (2).(3) The notification must include:(a) an explanation of why the issuer is seeking the transfer;(b) if a sponsor's letter is not required under LR 8.4.14R(1),
The circular referred to in LR 5.4A.4 R must:(1) comply with the requirements of LR 13.1, LR 13.2 and LR 13.3;(2) be approved by the FCA before it is circulated or published; and(3) include the anticipated transfer date (which must be not less than 20 business days after the passing of the resolution under LR 5.4A.4 R).
Information required under LR 13.3.1R(1) (Contents of all circulars) to be included in the circular or announcement should include an explanation of:(1) the background and reasons for the proposed transfer;(2) any changes to the issuer's business that have been made or are proposed to be made in connection with the proposal;(3) the effect of the transfer on the issuer's obligations under the listing rules;(4) how the issuer will meet any new eligibility requirements, for example
If an issuer has initially notified the FCA under LR 5.4A.3 R it may apply to the FCA to transfer the listing of its securities5 from one category to another. The application must include:2(1) the issuer's name;(2) details of the securities5 to which the transfer relates;2(3) the date on which the issuer wishes the transfer to take effect;(4) a copy of any circular, announcement or other document on which the issuer is relying;(5) if relevant, evidence of any resolution required
If an issuer applies under LR 5.4A.10 R, the FCA may approve the transfer if it is satisfied that:(1) the issuer has complied with LR 5.4A.4 R or LR 5.4A.5 R (whichever is relevant);(2) the 20 business day period referred to in LR 5.4A.6 R or LR 5.4A.7 R (whichever is relevant) has elapsed; and(3) the issuer and the securities5 will comply with all eligibility requirements that would apply if the issuer was seeking admission to listing of the securities5 to the category of listing
(1) If the FCA approves a transfer of a listing then it must announce its decision on a RIS.(2) The transfer becomes effective when the FCA's decision to approve is announced on the RIS.(3) The issuer must continue to comply with the requirements of its existing category of listing until the decision is announced on the RIS.(4) After the decision is announced the issuer must comply with the requirements of the category of listing to which it has transferred.
There may be situations in which an issuer's business has changed over a period of time so that it no longer meets the requirements of the applicable listing category against which it was initially assessed for listing. In those situations, the FCA may consider cancelling the listing of the equity shares2 or suggest to the issuer that, as an alternative, it applies for a transfer of its listing category.
(1) A notification claiming exemption under DISP 1.1.12 R from the complaints reporting rules and the rules relating to the funding of the Financial Ombudsman Service must be given to the
FCA
by the Society on behalf of any member eligible for an exemption. (2) The Society must notify the
FCA
if the conditions relating to such an exemption no longer apply to a member who is exempt.
1The Society may choose how it publishes the complaints data summary. However, the complaints data summary should be readily available. For this reason, the
FCA
recommends that the Society publishes the summary on its website. The Society may publish further information with the complaints data summary to aid understanding.
Members will individually comply with this chapter if and only if all complaints by policyholders against members are dealt with under the Lloyd's complaints procedures. Accordingly, certain of the obligations under this chapter, for example the obligation to report on complaints received and the obligation to pay fees under the rules relating to the funding of the Financial Ombudsman Service (FEES 5), must be complied with by the Society on behalf of members. Managing agents
The purpose of this section is to: 3(1) give directions to authorised payment institutions, small payment institutions and registered account information service providers under regulation 109(1) (Reporting requirements) of the Payment Services Regulations in relation to:31212(a) the information in respect of their provision of payment services and their compliance with requirements imposed by or under Parts 2 to 7 of the Payment Services Regulations that they must provide to
3The purpose for which this section requires information to be provided to the FCA under regulation 109 of the Payment Services Regulations is to assist the FCA in the discharge of its functions under regulation 106 (Functions of the FCA), regulation 108 (Monitoring and enforcement) and regulation 109(6) (Reporting requirements) of the Payment Services Regulations.
(1) An authorised payment institution, a small payment institution , an EEA authorised payment institution or a registered account information service provider3 must submit to the FCA12 the duly completed return applicable to it as set out in column (2) of the table in SUP 16.13.4D.2212(2) An authorised payment institution, a small payment institution or a registered account information service provider3 must submit the return referred to in (1):(a) in the format specified as
3Authorised payment institutions, small payment institutions and registered account information service providers are reminded that they should give the FCA reasonable advance notice of changes to their accounting reference date (among other things) under regulation 37 of the Payment Services Regulations. The accounting reference date is important because many frequencies and due dates for reporting to the FCA are linked to the accounting reference date.
(1) 5In the case of an authorised payment institution, an authorised electronic money institution or a credit institution with permission to accept deposits under Part 4a of FSMA8:(a) the return set out in SUP 16 Annex 27ED must be provided to the FCA every six months; (b) returns must cover the reporting periods 1 January to 30 June and 1 July to 31 December; and(c) returns must be submitted within two months of the end of each reporting period.(2) In the case of a small payment
Article 400(2) of the EU CRR permits the FCA to fully or partially exempt exposures incurred by a firm to intra-group undertakings that meet the specified criteria from the limit stipulated in article 395(1) of the EU CRR in relation to a firm's group of connected clients that represent its wider group. The FCA will consider exempting non-trading book and trading book exposures to intra-group undertakings if specified conditions throughout IFPRU 8.2 are met.
The FCA expects that applications for exemptions under article 400(2)(c) of the EU CRR will be for firms established in the UK where the intra-group undertakings to which they have exposures meet the criteria for the core UK group in article 113(6) of the EU CRR, except for article 113(6)(d) (established in the same EEA State as the firm).
A firm may only make use of the non-core large exposure group exemption where the following conditions are met: (1) the total amount of the non-trading book exposures from the firm to its non-core large exposures group does not exceed 100% of the firm'seligible capital; or (if the firm has a core UK grouppermission) the total amount of non-trading book exposures from its core UK group (including the firm) to its non-core large exposures group does not exceed 100% of the core
The FCA will assess core UK group and non-core large exposure group applications against article 400(2)(c) on a case-by-case basis. The FCA will only approve this treatment for non-core large exposure group undertakings where the conditions in article 400(2)(c) are met. A firm should note that the FCA will still make a wider judgement whether it is appropriate to grant this treatment even where the conditions in article 400(2)(c) are met.
A firm must immediately notify the FCA in writing if it becomes aware that any exposure that it has treated as exempt under IFPRU 8.2.6 R or any counterparty that it has been treating as a member of its non-core large exposures group has ceased to meet the conditions for application of the treatment in this section.
If a firm is not a significant IFPRU firm its recovery plan must include:(1) a summary of the key elements of the recovery plan;(2) information on the governance of the firm, including: (a) how the recovery plan is integrated into the corporate governance of the firm; and (b) the firm's overall risk management framework;(3) a description of the legal and financial structures of the firm, including:(a) the core business lines; and(b) critical functions;(4) recovery options, including:(a)
A firm must demonstrate to the FCA that:(1) carrying out its recovery plan is reasonably likely to maintain or restore the viability and financial position of the firm, taking into account the preparatory measures that the firm has taken, or plans to take; and(2) its recovery plan: (a) is reasonably likely to be carried out quickly and effectively in situations of financial stress; and(b) avoids, to the maximum extent possible, any significant adverse effect on the financial system,
A UK firm17 cannot establish a branch in another EEA State for the first time under an EEA right unless the relevant13 conditions in paragraphs 19(2), (4) and (5)12 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act are satisfied. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to contravene this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act). These conditions are that:913121213(1) the UKfirm has given the appropriate UK regulator,20 in accordance with the
(1) 8If the UK firm'sEEA right derives from the CRD12 or10MiFID8,10 the appropriate UK regulator20 will give the Host State regulator a consent notice within three months unless it has reason to doubt the adequacy of a UK firm's resources or its administrative structure.8 The Host State regulator then has a further two months to notify the applicable provisions (if any) and prepare for the supervision, as appropriate, of the UK firm, or in the case of a MiFID investment firm,
20Where the PRA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the FCA before deciding whether to give a consent notice, except where paragraph 19(7A) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act applies. Where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the PRA before deciding whether to give a consent notice in relation to a UK firm whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.
(1) Save where (1A) applies, if19 the appropriate UK regulator20 gives a consent notice, it will inform the UK firm in writing that it has done so.20(1A) If the UK firm’sEEA right derives from the IDD, where the appropriate UK regulator has given a consent notice and the Host State regulator has acknowledged receipt of that notice, the appropriate UK regulator must give written notice to the UK firm concerned that the Host State regulator has received the consent notice.19(2)
(1) (a) 18A UK MiFID investment firm wishing to use a tied agent established in another EEA State is required to complete the form in Annex VII of MiFID ITS 4A and send it to the FCA.[Note: article 14(1) of MiFID ITS 4A](b) A UK MiFID investment firm which intends to establish a branch in another EEA State is required to complete the form in Annex VI of MiFID ITS 4A and send it to the FCA. [Note: article 13(1) of MiFID ITS 4A](c) A UK MiFID investment firm that intends to establish
The guidance in COND 2 explains each FCA1threshold condition in Schedule 6 (threshold conditions) to the Act and indicates1 how the FCA1 will interpret it in practice. This guidance is not, however, exhaustive and is written in very general terms. A firm will need to have regard to the obligation placed upon the FCA1 under section 55B (The threshold conditions) of the Act; that is, the FCA1 must ensure that the firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the FCA1threshold conditions
(1) The FCA1 will consider whether a firm satisfies, and will continue to satisfy, the FCA1threshold conditions in the context of the size, nature, scale and complexity of the business which the firm carries on or will carry on if the relevant application is granted.1(2) In relation to threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2D to 2F of Schedule 6 to the Act in respect of firms which are not PRA-authorised persons and paragraphs 3C to 3E of Schedule 6 to the Act in respect
Although the FCA1 may consider that a matter is relevant to its assessment of a firm, the fact that a matter is disclosed to the FCA1, for example in an application, does not necessarily mean that the firm will fail to satisfy the FCA1threshold conditions. The FCA1 will consider each matter in relation to the regulated activities for which the firm has, or will have, permission, having regard to its statutory objectives1. A firm should disclose each relevant matter but, if it
1In determining the weight to be given to any relevant matter, the FCA will consider its significance in relation to the regulated activities for which the firm has, or will have, permission, in the context of its ability to supervise the firm adequately, having regard to the FCA'sstatutory objectives. In this context, a series of matters may be significant when taken together, even though each of them in isolation might not give serious cause for concern.
1When assessing the FCAthreshold conditions, the FCA may have regard to any person appearing to be, or likely to be, in a relevant relationship with the firm, in accordance with section 55R of the Act (Persons connected with an applicant). For example, a firm'scontrollers, its directors or partners, other persons with close links to the firm (see COND 2.3), and other persons that exert influence on the firm which might pose a risk to the firm's satisfaction of the FCAthreshold
(1) For ease of reference, the FCA1threshold conditions in or under Schedule 6 to the Act have been quoted in full in COND 2. (1A) 1Paragraphs 2A and 3A of Schedule 6 of the Act have not been quoted. These set out the application of the FCAthreshold conditions to firms which do not carry on, or are not seeking to carry on, a PRAregulated activity and firms which carry on, or are seeking to carry on, a PRAregulated activity respectively. This application is summarised in COND
(1) 1Under section 313A of the Act, the FCA5 may for the purpose of protecting:5(a) the interests of investors; or (b) the orderly functioning of the financial markets; require a UK RIE to suspend or remove a financial instrument from trading.(2) If the FCA5 exercises this power, the UK RIE concerned may refer the matter to the Tribunal.5
The procedure the FCA5 will follow if it exercises its power to require a UK RIE to suspend or remove a financial instrument3 from trading is set out in sections 313B to 313BE of the Act.3 The FCA's internal arrangements provide for decisions to exercise this power to be taken at an appropriately senior level. If the FCA5 exercises this power, the UK RIE concerned and the issuer (if any) of the relevant financial instrument may refer the matter to the Tribunal(see EG 2.39)2.2
6Under sections 313CA(2) and (3) of the Act, if the FCA imposes a requirement to suspend or remove a financial instrument from trading, the FCA must require any trading venue or systematic internaliser, falling under its jurisdiction as defined in section 313D of the Act, which trades the same instrument to suspend or remove the instrument if the suspension or removal was due to suspected market abuse; a take-over bid; or the non-disclosure of inside information about the issuer
6Under sections 313CB (2) and (3) of the Act, if the FCA receives notice that a person operating a trading venue has suspended or removed a financial instrument from trading on the trading venue because the instrument no longer complies with the venue’s rules, the FCA must require any other trading venue or systematic internaliser, falling under its jurisdiction as defined in section 313D of the Act, which trades the same instrument to suspend or remove the instrument if the suspension
6Under sections 313CC (2) and (3) of the Act, if the FCA receives notice that a competent authority of another EEA State has suspended or removed a financial instrument from trading on a trading venue or systematic internaliser pursuant to articles 32.2, 52.2 or 69.2 of MiFID, the FCA must require any trading venue or systematic internaliser falling under its jurisdiction as defined in section 313D of the Act, and which trades the same instrument, to suspend or remove the instrument
(1) [deleted] 33(2) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 25.4.5G]3(3) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 25.4.6G]3(4) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 25.4.7G]3(5) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 25.4.8G]3(6) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 25.4.11G]3(7) [deleted] [Editor’s
The periodic fee referred to in FEES 4.3.1 R is (except in relation to the Society,10fee-paying payment service providers, CBTL firms,20fee-paying electronic money issuers and data reporting services providers20) 20 calculated as follows:107(1) identify each of the tariffs set out in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 2AR1727 which apply to the business of the firm for the period specified in that annex;27(2) for each of the applicable27 tariffs, calculate the sum payable in relation to
(1) A firm which becomes authorised or registered 7during the course of a fee year26 will be required to pay a proportion of the periodic fee which reflects the proportion of the year for which it will have a permission or the right to provide particular payment services or the right to issue electronic money107- see FEES 4.2.5 G and FEES 4.2.6 R.26(2) Similarly a firm which extends its permission or its right to provide particular payment services7so that its business then falls
(1) [deleted]17272712112727111127(1A) [deleted] 1727(1B) [deleted] 1727(1C) 17If a person meets either of the conditions in (1D) it must pay the FCA the fee in (1E).(1D) 17A person meets the conditions referred to in (1C) if:(a) its periodic fee for the previous fee year was at least £50,000 and it is:(i) an FCA-authorised person; or(ii) a designated professional body; or(iii) a recognised investment exchange; or(iv) a regulated covered bondissuer; or(b) it is a PRA-authorised
A firm which is a member of a group may pay all of the amounts due from other firms in the same group under FEES 4.2.1 R, if:(1) it notifies the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection 17agent for the PRA)26 in writing of the name of each other firm within the group for which it will pay; and26(2) it pays the fees, in accordance with this chapter, as a single amount as if that were the amount required from the firm under FEES 4.2.1 R.
If the payment made does not satisfy in full the periodic fees payable by all of the members of the group notified to the FCA26 under FEES 4.3.7 R, the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection 17agent for the PRA)26 will apply the sum received among the firms which have been identified in the notification given under FEES 4.3.7R (1) in proportion to the amounts due from them. Each firm will remain responsible for the payment of the outstanding
(1) The FCA17recognises that its responsibilities in respect of an incoming EEA firm, an incoming Treaty firm, an EEA authorised payment institution or an EEA authorised electronic money institution are reduced compared with a firm which is incorporated in the United Kingdom.17(2) Accordingly the periodic fees which would otherwise be applicable to incoming EEA firms, incoming Treaty firms, EEA authorised payment institutions and EEA authorised electronic money institutions are
(1) If:(a) a firm:20(i) makes an application to vary its permission (by reducing its scope), or cancel it, in the way set out in SUP 6.3.15D(3) (Variation of permission) and SUP 6.4.5D (Cancellation of permission); or20(ii) applies to vary (by reducing its scope) or cancel its authorisation or registration (regulation 8 and 10(1) of the Payment Services Regulations including as applied by regulation 14 of the Payment Services Regulations); or20(iii) applies to cancel its authorisation
The due dates for payment of periodic fees are modified by FEES 4.3.6R(3), FEES 4.3.6R(4)and FEES 4.3.6R(4A) respectively where:20(1) a firm has applied to cancel its:20(a) Part 4A permission; or20(b) its authorisation or registration under the Payment Services Regulations or the Electronic Money Regulations; or20(c) its registration as a CBTL firm under article 13(c) of the MCD Order; or20(d) authorisation under regulation 11 of the DRS Regulations; or20(2) the FCA has exercised
2When the FCA has concerns about the fitness and propriety of an approved person, it may consider whether it should prohibit that person from performing functions in relation to regulated activities, withdraw its approval, or both. In deciding whether to withdraw its approval and/or make a prohibition order, the FCA will consider in each case whether its statutory objectives can be achieved adequately by imposing disciplinary sanctions, for example, public censures or financial
2When the FCA1 decides whether to make a prohibition order against an approved person and/or withdraw their1 approval, the FCA will consider all the relevant circumstances of the case. These may include, but are not limited to those set out below. (1) The matters set out in section 61(2) of the Act.
(2) Whether the individual is fit and proper to perform functions in relation to regulated activities. The criteria for assessing the fitness and propriety of
2The FCA may have regard to the cumulative effect of a number of factors which, when considered in isolation, may not be sufficient to show that the individual is not fit and proper to continue to perform a controlled function or other function in relation to regulated activities. It may also take account of the particular controlled function which an approved person is performing for a firm, the nature and activities of the firm concerned and the markets within which it operates.
2Due to the diverse nature of the activities and functions which the FCA regulates, it is not possible to produce a definitive list of matters which the FCA might take into account when considering whether an individual is not a fit and proper person to perform a particular, or any, function in relation to a particular, or any, firm.
2The following are examples of types of behaviour which have previously resulted in the3FCA the deciding to issue a prohibition order or withdraw the approval of an approved person:(1) Providing false or misleading information to the FCA; including information relating to identity, ability to work in the United Kingdom, and business arrangements;
(2)
Failure to disclose material considerations on application forms, such as details of County
The test in section 236(3)(a) of the Act is whether the reasonable investor would expect that, were he to invest, he would be in a position to realise his investment within a period appearing to him to be reasonable. In the FCA's view, this is an objective test with the appropriate objective judgment to be applied being that of the hypothetical reasonable investor with qualities such as those mentioned in PERG 9.7.2 G (The investment condition: the 'reasonable investor').
In the FCA's view, the 'realisation' of an investment means converting an asset into cash or money. The FCA does not consider that 'in specie' redemptions (in the sense of exchanging shares or securities of BC with other shares or securities) will generally count as realisation. Section 236(3)(a) refers to the realisation of an investment, the investment being represented by the 'value' of shares or securities held in BC. In the FCA's view, there is no realisation of value where
The most typical means of realising BC's shares or securities will be by their being redeemed or repurchased, whether by BC or otherwise. There are, of course, other ways in which a realisation may occur. However, the FCA considers that these will often not satisfy all the elements of the definition of an open-ended investment company considered together. For example, the mere fact that shares or securities may be realised on a market will not meet the requirements of the 'satisfaction
An investor in a body corporate may be able to realise part, but not all, of his investment. The FCA considers that the fact that partial realisations may take place at different times does not prevent the body corporate coming within the definition of an open-ended investment company. But, in any particular case, the 'expectation test' will only be met if the overall period for realising the whole of the investment can be considered to be reasonable. Apart from this, the simple
The use of an expectation test ensures that the definition of an open-ended investment company is not limited to a situation where a holder of shares in, or securities of, a body corporate has an entitlement or an option to realise his investment. It is enough if, on the facts of any particular case, the reasonable investor would expect that he would be able to realise the investment. The following are examples of circumstances in which the FCA considers that a reasonable investor
In the FCA's view, the fact that a person may invest in the period shortly before a redemption date would not cause a body corporate, that would not otherwise be regarded as such, to be open-ended. This is because the investment condition must be applied in relation to BC as a whole (see PERG 9.6.3 G (The investment condition (section 236(3) of the Act): general).
As indicated in PERG 9.3.5 G (The definition), the potential for variation in the form and operation of a body corporate is considerable. So, it is only possible in general guidance to give examples of the factors that the FCA considers may affect any particular judgment. These should be read bearing in mind any specific points considered elsewhere in the guidance. Such factors include:(1) the terms of the body corporate's constitution;(2) the applicable law;(3) any public representations
A UK firm17 or an AIFM exercising an EEA right to market an AIF under AIFMD13,9 cannot start providing cross border services into another EEA State under an EEA right unless it satisfies the conditions in paragraphs 20(1) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act and, if it derives its EEA right from17AIFMD, MiFID or the UCITS Directive,13paragraph 20(4B) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act. If a UK firm derives its EEA right from the MCD, it cannot start providing cross border services
14A UKfirm that is an AIFM may exercise an EEA right to market a UK AIF or EEA AIF managed by it under AIFMD when the following conditions are satisfied:(1) the UKfirm has given the FCA a notice of intentionSUP 13.5.2 R; and(2) the FCA has sent a copy of the notice of intention to the Host State regulator where the AIF will be marketed and has given the UKfirm written notice that it has done so.
8(2) [deleted]17(2A) If the UK firm’sEEA right derives from the IDD, paragraph 20(3B)(a) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the appropriate UK regulator to send a copy of the notice of intention to the Host State regulator within one month of receipt.198(2B) Where a consent notice is given under the UCITS Directive, the FCA20 will at the same time:1020(a) communicate to the Host State regulator details of the compensation scheme intended to protect investors; and10(b)
(1) 14If the UKfirm'sEEA right derives from AIFMD (other than the EEA right to market an AIF (referred to in (3)) and the condition in (2) is met, paragraph 20(3D) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the FCA to:(a) send a copy of the notice of intention to the Host State regulator within one month of receipt; (b) include confirmation that the UKfirm has been authorised by the FCA under AIFMD; and(c) immediately inform the UKfirm that the notice of intention and confirmation
20Where the PRA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the FCA before deciding whether to give a consent notice and where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the PRA before deciding whether to give a consent notice in relation to a UK firm whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.
(1) 18A UK MiFID investment firm is required to submit an investment services and activities passport notification to the FCA by completing the form in Annex I of MiFID ITS 4A. The firm should complete a separate form for each EEA State it wishes to provide services into.[Note: article 4(1) of MiFID ITS 4A](2) A UK MiFID investment firm wishing to provide investment services or activities through a tied agent established in the UK is required to send an investment services and
1Where a person intends to rely on article 4(2), 4a(2),4 10(2) or 89(2) of EMIR for an exemption from the clearing obligation set out in article 4(1) or 10(1) of EMIR, the person should make their application or notification to the FCA in such manner, and by providing such information, as the FCA directs or requires.
Where a person notifies the FCA in respect of the obligation set out in EMIR in:4(1) point (a) of the second subparagraph of article 4a(1);4(2) the fourth subparagraph of article 9(1); or4(3) point (a) of the second subparagraph of article 10(1),4the notification should be made4 in such manner, and by providing such information, as the FCA directs or requires.
Where a person intends to rely on article 11(6), (7), (8), 9) or (10) for an exemption from the obligation to implement risk management procedures set out in article 11(3) of EMIR, the person should make their application or notification to the FCA in accordance with EMIR requirements, including (where relevant) those set out in the EMIR technical standards on OTC derivatives2.
At any time after receiving an application or notification for exemption from, or a notification in respect of, EMIR requirements, the FCA may require the person concerned to provide it with such further information as it reasonably considers necessary to enable it to determine the application or consider the notification.
24Under section 55H(3) of the Act (Variation by FCA at request of authorised person), if an FCA-authorised person applies to the FCA, the FCA may cancel its Part 4A permission. Cancellation applies to a firm's entire Part 4A permission, that is to every activity and every specified investment and not to the individual elements such as specified investments. Changes to the individual elements of a permission would require a variation.
(1) Subject to (1A), a 11firm other than a credit union wishing to cancel its Part 4A permission, must apply online at the appropriate regulator website using the form specified on the online notification and application system16.9112412129(1A) An FCA-authorised person wishing to cancel its Part 4A permission which covers only credit-related regulated activities must submit any form, notice or application by using the form in SUP 6 Annex 6 and submitting it in the way set out
(1) In addition to applying for cancellation of Part 4A permission24 in accordance with SUP 6.4.5 D, a firm may discuss prospective cancellations with its supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator.244 Alternatively a firm can contact the Contact Centre on 0300 500 0597.1424424241414(2) To contact the Cancellations Team: 424(a) write to: Cancellations Team, The Financial Conduct24Authority, 12 Endeavour Square, London, E20 1JN19; or24; or2424(b) email cancellation.team@fca.org.uk24(3)
(1) If a firm is subject to the complaints rules in DISP, the FCA24 may request confirmation from the firm that there are no unresolved, unsatisfied or undischarged complaints against the firm from a customer of the firm.24(2) If there are unresolved or undischarged complaints against a firm from a customer of the firm, the FCA24 may request confirmation, as appropriate, of the steps (if any) which have been taken under the firm's complaints procedures and the amount of compensation
Consequently, the relevant regulator24 considers that it will have good reason not to grant a firm's application for cancellation of permission where:24(1) the FCA and/or the PRA24 proposes to exercise any of the powers described in SUP 6.4.24 G; or24(2) the FCA and/or the PRA24 has already begun disciplinary and/or24 restitution proceedings against the firm by exercising either or both of these powers against the firm.24
(1) 1This rule applies to a UK firm operating a multilateral trading facility or an OTF and a UK branch of a third country investment firm operating a multilateral trading facility or an OTF.(2)
A firm must make public and provide to the FCA and ESMA a weekly report with the aggregate positions held by the different categories of persons for the different commodity derivatives or emission allowances traded on the trading venue, where those instruments meet the criteria of article
(1) 1This direction applies to:(a)
a UK firm operating a multilateral trading facility or an OTF; and
(b) a UK branch of a third country investment firm operating a multilateral trading facility or an OTF.(2)
A firm shall report to the FCA:
(a) (where it meets the minimum threshold as specified in article 83 of the MiFID Org Regulation) the weekly report referred to in MAR 10.4.3R(2), by using the form set out in Annex I of MiFID ITS 4, and publish it on its website and provide
1For the purposes of making the weekly report referred to under MAR 10.4.3R(2), the FCA will accept an email containing a link to the report, as published on the firm’s website. Emails should be sent to the FCA at COT_reports@fca.org.uk. This guidance does not affect the separate obligation for a firm to make the weekly report to ESMA.
(1) 1This direction applies to:(a)
a UK MiFID investment firm; and
(b) a UK branch of a third country investment firm.
(2) An investment firm in (1) trading in a commodity derivative or emission allowance outside a trading venue must, where the FCA is the competent authority of the trading venue where that commodity derivative or emission allowance is traded, provide the FCA with a report containing a complete breakdown of:(a)
their positions taken in those commodity derivatives
(1) 1This direction applies to:
(a) a UK MiFID investment firm; and
(b) a UK branch of a third country investment firm.
(2) An investment firm in (1) trading in a commodity derivative or emission allowance outside a trading venue must, where an EEA competent authority other than the FCA is the competent authority of the trading venue where that commodity derivative or emission allowance is traded, or the central competent authority for the purposes of that commodity derivative,
(1) 1This direction applies to an EEA MiFID investment firm which is a member, participant or a client of a UK trading venue.
(2) MAR 10.4.7D applies to an EEA MiFID investment firm under (1), as if it were a UK MiFID investment firm.(3) MAR 10.4.8D applies to an EEA MiFID investment firm under (1), as if it were a UK MiFID investment firm, where the EEA MiFID investment firm trades in a commodity derivative or emission allowance outside a trading venue, and the FCA is the competent
(1) 2This guidance applies to persons subject to MAR 10.4.8D(2) or MAR 10.4.10D(3).(2) A firm subject to MAR 10.4.8D(2) or MAR 10.4.10D(3) may use a third party technology provider to submit to the FCA the report referred to in MAR 10.4.8 D(2) provided that it does so in a manner consistent with MiFID. It will retain responsibility for the completeness, accuracy and timely submission of the report and should populate field 5 of MiFID ITS 4 Annex II with its own reporting entity
1Section 301A(1) of chapter3 1A of Part XVIII of the Act places an obligation on a person who decides to acquire or increase control (see sections 301D and 301E of the Act) over a UK RIE3to notify the FCA5, before making the acquisition3. Furthermore, those persons are required to obtain the FCA's5 approval before acquiring control 3or increasing the level of control held.3353533
The FCA5 will approve an acquisition or an increase in 3control if it is satisfied that the acquisition by the person seeking approval does not pose a threat to the sound and prudent management of any financial market operated by the UK RIE (see section 301F(4) of the Act). 4The reference to any financial market is to be read as including a reference to any auction platform as a result of the RAP regulations.35333
1When the FCA has concerns about the fitness and propriety of a member to carry out exempt regulated activities, it will consider all the relevant circumstances of the case, including whether those concerns arise from the fitness and propriety of specific individuals engaged to perform the exempt regulated activities carried out by the member or whether its concerns arise from wider concerns about the member itself.
1The FCA will also take into account the potentially more serious consequences that a disapplication of an exemption will have for the member concerned compared with the consequences of a prohibition of a particular individual engaged in exempt regulated activities. However, the FCA may consider it appropriate in some cases to disapply an exemption where it decides that the member concerned is not fit and proper to carry out exempt regulated activities in accordance with section
1As an alternative to making an order to disapply an exemption, the FCA may consider issuing a private warning. A private warning may be appropriate where the FCA has concerns in relation to a member's fitness and propriety but feels that its concerns in relation to the conduct of exempt regulated activities can be more appropriately addressed by a private warning than by a disapplication of the member's exemption.
1When it decides whether to exercise its power to disapply an exemption from the general prohibition in relation to a member, the FCA will take into account all relevant circumstances which may include, but are not limited to, the following factors: (1) Disciplinary or other action taken by the relevant designated professional body, where that action relates to the fitness and propriety of the member concerned: where the FCA considers that its concerns in relation to the fitness
1Where the FCA is considering making a disapplication order against a member as a result of a breach of rules made by the FCA under section 323(1) of the Act, it will take into account any proposed application by the member concerned for authorisation under the Act. The FCA may refrain from making a disapplication order pending its consideration of the application for authorisation.