Related provisions for SUP 16.3.11
41 - 60 of 119 items.
The following is a non-exhaustive list of examples of conduct that would be in breach of rule 3.(1) Failing to report promptly in accordance with their firm's internal procedures (or, if none exist, direct to the regulator concerned), information in response to questions from the FCA, the PRA, or both the PRA and the FCA.(2) Failing without good reason to: (a) inform a regulator of information of which the approved person was aware in response to questions from that regulator;
In complying with the contractual duty in SUP 5.5.1 R, the FCA3 expects that, in the case of substantial or complex reports, the skilled person will give a periodic update on progress and issues to allow for a re-focusing of the report if necessary. The channel of communication would normally be directly between the skilled person and the FCA3. However, the FCA3 would also expect firms normally to be informed about the passage of information, and the skilled person would usually
The key components of the FCA12fee mechanism (excluding the FSCS5levy, the FOS5 levy and case fees16 which are dealt with in FEES 5 and16FEES 616)5 are:55555(1) a funding requirement derived from:(a) the FCA’s12financial management and reporting framework;(b) the FCA’s12budget; and(c) adjustments for audited variances between budgeted and actual expenditure in the previous accounting year, and reserves movements (in accordance with the FCA’s12reserves policy);(2) mechanisms for
1The rights and duties of auditors are set out in SUP 3.8 (Rights and duties of all auditors) and SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets). SUP 3.8.10 G also refers to the auditor's statutory duty to report certain matters to the FCA imposed by regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator). An auditor should bear these rights and duties in mind when carrying out
(1) A firm must monitor the transactions made by clients using the service to identify:
(a) infringements of the rules of the trading venue; or
(b) disorderly trading conditions; or
(c) conduct which may involve market abuse and which is to be reported to the FCA.(2) A firm must have a binding written agreement with each client which:
(a) details the essential rights and obligations of both parties arising from the provision of the service; and
(b) states that the firm is responsible
A firm must provide the following, at the FCA’s request, within 14 days from receipt of the request:
(1) a description of the systems mentioned in MAR 7A.4.2R(1);
(2) evidence that those systems have been applied; and
(3) information stored in accordance with MAR 7A.4.6R.[Note: article 17(5) of MiFID]
(1) The purpose of this section is to set out the requirements for a firm specified in SUP 16.16.1 R to report the outcomes of its prudent valuation assessments to the FCA4 and to do so in a standard format.277(2) The purpose of collecting this data on the prudent valuation assessments made by a firm is to assist the FCA4 in assessing the capital resources of firms, to enable the FCA4 to gain a wider understanding of the nature and sources of measurement uncertainty in fair-valued
(1) 7A firm to which this section applies must submit to the FCA4 quarterly (on a calendar year basis and not from a firm'saccounting reference date), within six weeks of each quarter end, a Prudent Valuation Return in respect of its fair-value assessments in the format set out in SUP 16 Annex 31A.2(2) [deleted]47777
(1) A Chief Risk Officer should:(a) be accountable to the firm'sgoverning body for oversight of firm-wide risk management;(b) be fully independent of a firm's individual business units;(c) have sufficient authority, stature and resources for the effective execution of his responsibilities; (d) have unfettered access to any parts of the firm's business capable of having an impact on the firm's risk profile; (e) ensure that the data used by the firm to assess its risks are fit for
(1) The Chief Risk Officer should be accountable to a firm'sgoverning body.(2) The FCA9 recognises that in addition to the Chief Risk Officers primary accountability to the governing body, an executive reporting line will be necessary for operational purposes. Accordingly, to the extent necessary for effective operational management, the Chief Risk Officer should report into a very senior executive level in the firm. In practice, the FCA9 expects this will be to the chief executive,
The FCA receives the information in SUP 2.1.3 G through a variety of means, including notifications by firms (see SUP 15) and regular reporting by firms (see SUP 16). This chapter is concerned with the methods of information gathering that the FCA may use on its own initiative in the discharge of its functions under the Act. This chapter does not deal with the information gathering powers that the FCA has under the Unfair Terms Regulations and the CRA. 7These are dealt with in
(1) 1The purpose of this chapter is to implement articles 57 and 58 of MiFID by setting out the necessary directions, rules and guidance.(2)
In particular, this chapter sets out the FCA’s requirements in respect of:
(a) articles 57(1) and 57(6) of MiFID, which require competent authorities or central competent authorities to establish limits, on the basis of a methodology determined by ESMA, on the size of a net position which a person can hold, together with those held on the
(1) The scope of this chapter is as follows:
In respect of position limit requirements in MAR 10.2, a commodity derivative position limit established by the FCA in accordance with MAR 10.2.2D(1) applies regardless of the location of the person at the time of entering into the position and the location of execution.
[Note: article 57(14)(a) of MiFID](2) In respect of position management controls requirements:(a) the requirements contained or referred to in MAR 10.3 apply to persons
A firm and its controllers are required to notify certain changes in control (see7SUP 11 (Controllers and close links)). The purpose of the rules and guidance in this section is:7(1) to ensure that, in addition to such notifications, the FCA12 receives regular and comprehensive information about the identities of all of the controllers of a firm, which is relevant to a firm's continuing to satisfy the effective supervision threshold conditions15; 15158(2) to implement certain
(1) As part of its obligation under the overall Pillar 2 rule, a firm that is a significant IFPRU firm must:(a) for the major sources of risk identified in line with IFPRU 2.2.7R(2), carry out stress tests and scenario analyses that are appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of those major sources of risk and to the nature, scale and complexity of the firm's business; and(b) carry out the reverse stress testing under SYSC 20 (Reverse stress testing).(2) In carrying out
(1) 4A mutual operating a common fund may seek to undertake an exercise to identify that part of the fund to which the mutual considers it would be fair for relevant provisions in COBS 20 not to apply. (2) To give regulatory effect to the identification exercise, the FCA expects that a mutual will need to apply to the FCA to modify the relevant provisions in COBS 20 and elsewhere which are dependent on the definition of the with-profits fund. (3) A mutual will need to demonstrate