Related provisions for SYSC 5.2.52

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REC 1.2.1GRP
The purpose of the guidance (other than in REC 6A) 2in this sourcebook is to give information on the recognised body requirements.3 The purpose of the guidance3 in REC 6A is to give EEA market operators information about their passporting rights in the United Kingdom2. Explanations of the purposes of the rules in this sourcebook are given in the chapters concerned.2233
INSPRU 3.1.61ARRP
A pure reinsurer must invest its assets in accordance with the following requirements:(1) the assets must take account of the type of business carried out by the firm, in particular the nature, amount and duration of expected claims payments, in such a way as to secure the sufficiency, liquidity, security, quality, profitability and matching of its investments;(2) the firm must ensure that the assets are diversified and adequately spread and allow the firm to respond adequately
LR 18.4.7GRP
1An issuer, whose securities are admitted to trading on a regulated market, should consider its obligations under DTR 4 (Periodic financial reporting), DTR 5 (Vote holder and issuer notification rules) and DTR 6 (Access to information).
PR 5.3.1UKRP

Sections 87H and 87I of the Act provide:

Prospectus approved in another EEA State

87H

(1)

A prospectus approved by the competent authority of an EEA State other than the United Kingdom is not an approved prospectus for the purposes of section 85 unless that authority has notified ESMA and provided the competent authority with -3

(a)

a certificate of approval;

(b)

a copy of the prospectus as approved; and

(c)

if requested by the [FCA], a translation of the summary of the prospectus.

(2)

A document is not a certificate of approval unless it states that the prospectus -

(a)

has been drawn up in accordance with the prospectus directive; and

(b)

has been approved, in accordance with that directive, by the competent authority providing the certificate.

(3)

A document is not a certificate of approval unless it states whether (and, if so, why) the competent authority providing it authorised, in accordance with the prospectus directive, the omission from the prospectus of information which would otherwise have been required to be included.

3(3A)

The competent authority must publish on its website a list of certificates of approval provided to it in accordance with this section.

3(3B)

The list referred to in subsection (3A) must -

(a)

be kept up-to-date;

(b)

retain items on it for a period of at least 12 months; and

(c)

include hyperlinks to any certificate of approval and prospectus published on the website of -

(i)

the competent authority of the EEA State which provided the certificate;

(ii)

the issuer; or

(iii)

the regulated market where admission to trading is sought.

(4)

"Prospectus" includes a supplementary prospectus.

Provision of information to host Member State

87I

(1)

The [FCA] must, if requested to do so, supply the competent authority of a specified EEA State with –

(a)

a certificate of approval;

(b)

a copy of the specified prospectus (as approved by the [FCA]); and

(c)

a translation of the summary of the specified prospectus (if the request states that one has been requested by the other competent authority).2

(1A)2

If the competent authority supplies a certificate of approval to the competent authority of the specified EEA State, it must also supply a copy of that certificate to -

(a)

the person who made the request under this section; and

(b)

ESMA.

(2)

Only the following may make a request under this section –

(a)

the issuer of the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates;

(b)

a person who wishes to offer the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates to the public in an EEA State other than (or as well as) the United Kingdom;

(c)

a person requesting the admission of the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates to a regulated market situated or operating in an EEA State other than (or as well as) the United Kingdom.

(3)

A certificate of approval must state that the prospectus –

(a)

has been drawn up in accordance with this Part and the prospectus directive; and

(b)

has been approved, in accordance with those provisions, by the [FCA].

(4)

A certificate of approval must state whether (and, if so, why) the [FCA] authorised, in accordance with section 87B, the omission from the prospectus of information which would otherwise have been required to be included.

(5)

The [FCA] must comply with a request under this section –

(a)

if the prospectus has been approved before the request is made, within 3 working days beginning with the date the request is received2; or

2

(b)

if the request is submitted with an application for the approval of the prospectus, on the first working day after the date on which it approves the prospectus.

(6)

“Prospectus” includes a supplementary prospectus.

(7)

“Specified” means specified in a request made for the purposes of this section.
SYSC 1.4.2RRP
A contravention of a rule in SYSC 11 to 2SYSC 21,7SYSC 22.8.1R, SYSC 22.9.1R or to 9SYSC 288 does not give rise to a right of action by a private person under section 138D of the Act (and each of those rules is specified under section 138D(3) of the Act as a provision giving rise to no such right of action). 34437
DEPP 2.5.18GRP
Some of the distinguishing features of notices given under enactments other than the Act are as follows: (1) [deleted]66(2) [deleted]66(3) Friendly Societies Act 1992, section 58A1: The warning notice and decision notice must set out the terms of the direction which the FCA6 proposes or has decided to give and any specification of when the friendly society is to comply with it. A decision notice given under section 58A(3) must give an indication of the society's right, given by
LR 20.4.6GRP
An issuer, whose miscellaneous securities are admitted to trading on a regulated market, should consider its obligations under DTR 4 (Periodic financial reporting), DTR 5 (Vote holder and issuer notification rules), DTR 6 (Access to information) and DTR 7 (Corporate governance).
REC 4.2B.1GRP
1Under section 312C of the Act, if a UK RIE wishes to make arrangements in an EEA State other than the UK to facilitate access to or use of a regulated market,2multilateral trading facility, organised trading facility4 or auction platform2 operated by it, it must give the FCA3written notice of its intention to do so. The notice must:3(1) describe the arrangements; and(2) identify the EEA State in which the UK RIE intends to make them.[Note:MiFID RTS 3 and MiFID ITS 4, Annex
EG 10.2.2RP
1The broad test the FCA will apply when it decides whether to seek an injunction is whether the application would be the most effective way to deal with the FCA's concerns. In deciding whether an application for an injunction is appropriate in a given case, the FCA will consider all relevant circumstances and may take into account a wide range of factors. The following list of factors is not exhaustive; not all the factors will be relevant in a particular case and there may be
COLL 5.8.7RRP
The following rules and guidance in COLL 5.1 (Introduction), COLL 5.2 (General investment powers and limits for UCITS schemes) and COLL 5.5 (Cash, borrowing, lending and other provisions) apply to the authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme which is a feeder UCITS and to an ICVC which is a feeder UCITS:(1) COLL 5.1.1 R (Application), COLL 5.1.2G (1) (Purpose) and COLL 5.1.3 R (Treatment of obligations);(2) COLL 5.2.1 R (Application), COLL 5.2.2 R (Table of application) and
SUP 1A.4.4GRP
Some of these tools, for example the use of public statements to deliver messages to firms or consumers1, do not involve the FCA in direct oversight of the business of firms. In contrast, other tools do involve a direct relationship with firms. The FCA also has powers to act on its own initiative to impose or vary individual requirements on a firm (see SUP 7) and to ban or impose requirements in relation to specific financial promotions1. The FCA may also use its general rule-making
REC 2.1.1GRP
(1) This chapter contains the recognition requirements for UK RIEs (other than RAPs) and sets out guidance on those requirements. Except for REC 2.5A, references to recognised body or UK recognised bodies in the rest of this chapter shall be read as referring to UK RIEs. 5(2) This chapter also contains “Notes” with informative text in relation to MiFID/MiFIR requirements applicable directly to UK RIEs operating trading venues.5(3) This chapter directs UK RIEs to certain recognition
MCOB 4.10.3BRRP
3For the purposes of MCOB 4.4A.2R (1) there is one relevant market for home purchase plans.
EG 19.26.3RP
(1) 1The FCA has the power to publish a statement or impose a financial penalty of such amount as it considers appropriate on: (a) a financial counterparty who is not an authorised person, a non- financial counterparty or any other person who has breached an EMIR requirement or regulation 7 or 8 of the OTC derivatives, CCPs and trade repositories regulation; (b) a financial counterparty who is an authorised person who has breached regulation 8 of the
IPRU-INV 9 App 1.1GRP

Glossary of defined terms for Chapter 9

Note: If a defined term does not appear in the glossary below, the definition appearing in the HandbookGlossary applies.

approved exchange

means an investment exchange listed as such in Appendix 33 to IPRU-INV 3.

exchange

means a recognised investment exchange or designated investment exchange.

initial capital

means the initial capital of a firm calculated in accordance with section 9.3.

intangible assets

the full balance sheet value of a firm's intangible assets including goodwill, capitalised development costs, licences, trademark and similar rights etc.

intermediate broker

in relation to a margined transaction, means any person through whom the firm undertakes that transaction.

material current year losses

means losses of an amount equal to 10% or more of initial capital minus B (with B calculated in accordance with Table 9.5.2R).

material holding

means a firm's holdings of shares and any other interest in the capital of a credit institution or financial institution:

(a) which exceeds 10% of the capital of the issuer, and, where this is the case, any holdings of subordinated debt of the same issuer, the full amount is a material holding; or

(b) holdings not deducted under (a) if the total amount of such holdings exceeds 10% of that firm'sown funds, in which case only the excess amount is a material holding.

material insurance holdings

(a) means the holdings of an exempt CAD firm of items of the type set out in (b) in any:

(i) insurance undertaking; or

(ii) insurance holding company that fulfils one of the following conditions:

(iii) it is a subsidiary undertaking of that firm; or

(iv) that firm holds a participation in it.

(b) An item falls into this provision for the purpose of (a) if it is:

(i) an ownership share; or

(ii) subordinated debt or another item of capital that forms part of the tier two capital resources that1 falls into GENPRU 2 or, as the case may be, INSPRU 7, or is an item of “basic own funds” defined in the PRA Rulebook: Glossary.

own funds

means the own funds of a firm calculated in accordance with 9.2.9R(2) and The Interim Prudential Sourcebook for Investment Businesses Chapter 9: Financial resources requirements for an exempt CAD firm Page 2 of 2 Version: November 2007 9.2.8R(b).

own funds requirement

means the requirement set out in 9.2.9R(1) and 9.2.8R(b).

verified

means checked by an external auditor who has undertaken at least to:

(a) satisfy himself that the figures forming the basis of the interim profits have been properly extracted from the underlying accounting records;

(b) review the accounting policies used in calculating the interim profits so as to obtain comfort that they are consistent with those normally adopted by the firm in drawing up its annual financial statements and are in accordance with the relevant accounting principles;

(c) perform analytical procedures on the result to date, including comparisons of actual performance to date with budget and with the results of prior period(s);

(d) discuss with management the overall performance and financial position of the firm;

(e) obtain adequate comfort that the implications of current and prospective litigation, all known claims and commitments, changes in business activities and provisioning for bad and doubtful debts have been properly taken into account in arriving at the interim profits; and

(f) follow up problem areas of which he is already aware in the course of auditing the firm's financial statements.
SYSC 3.2.11AGRP
(1) 25A firm's arrangements should be such as to furnish its governing body with the information it needs to play its part in identifying, measuring, managing and controlling risks of regulatory concern. Three factors will be the relevance, reliability and timeliness of that information.(2) Risks of regulatory concern are those risks which relate to the fair treatment of the firm'scustomers, to the protection of consumers, to effective competition and to the integrity of the UK
MAR 5A.3.10RRP
A firm must:(1) in respect of an OTF operated by it, or such a facility it proposes to operate, provide to the FCA a detailed explanation of:(a) why the OTF does not correspond to, and cannot operate as, an MTF, a regulated market or a systematic internaliser;(b) how discretion will be exercised in executing client orders; and(c) its use of matched principal trading; and(2) supply the information in (1) to the FCA in writing, by electronic mail to an address for the usual supervisory
DTR 4.4.4RRP
The rules on half-yearly financial reports do not apply to an issuer already existing on 31 December 2003 which exclusively issue debt securities unconditionally and irrevocably guaranteed by the issuer'sHome Member State or by a regional or local authority of that state, on a regulated market.[Note: article 8(3) of the TD]
REC 2.9.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 4(2)(e)

2Without prejudice to the generality of sub-paragraph [4(1)], the [UK RIE] must ensure that-

satisfactory arrangements are made for recording transactions effected on the [UK RIE], and transactions (whether or not effected on the [UK RIE ]) which are cleared or to be cleared by means of itsfacilities;

[Note: article 25 of MiFIR requires the operator of a trading venue to keep relevant data relating to all orders in financial instruments which are advertised through their systems at the disposal of the FCA]4
REC 3.13.1-1GRP
3The notification requirements in MiFID RTS 7, specifying organisational requirements of regulated markets allowing algorithmic trading through their systems, apply to a UK RIE where those operational functions are to be outsourced.