Related provisions for SUP 10C.12.10

MCOB 9.5.4R01/04/2014

The illustration provided as part of the offer document in accordance with MCOB 6.4.1 R(1) must meet the requirements of MCOB 9.4, with the following modifications:(1) the illustration must be suitably adapted and revised to reflect the fact that the firm is making an offer to a customer and updated to reflect changes to, for example, for a lifetime mortgage3 the interest rate, charges, the exchange rate or the APR required by MCOB 10 (Annual Percentage Rate) at the date the illustration

LR 15.2.1AR03/03/2019

2The FCA will not admit shares of a company incorporated in a third country9 that are not listed either in its country of incorporation or in the country in which a majority of its shares are held, unless the FCA is satisfied that the absence of the listing is not due to the need to protect investors. [Note: Article 51 CARD]

COLL 7.1.3G01/07/2013

(1) This chapter helps to achieve the statutory objective of protecting investors by ensuring they do not buy or redeemunits at a price that cannot be calculated accurately. For instance, due to unforeseen circumstances, it may be impossible to value, or to dispose of and obtain payment for, all or some of the scheme property of an authorised fund or sub-fund. COLL 7.2.1 R (Requirement) sets out the circumstances in which an authorised fund manager must or may suspend dealings

CONC 7.5.1G01/04/2014

(1) Failure to comply with CONC 6.5.2 R, which sets out when a firm must give notice to a customer where a regulated credit agreement has been assigned to a third party, will be taken into account by the FCA in taking decisions about a firm'spermission or about taking other action.[Note: paragraph 3.7g of DCG](2) CONC 6.5.2 R makes it clear that where arrangements for servicing the credit change at the time of the assignment of a regulated credit agreement, notice must be given

PR App 1.1.103/01/2018

1Note: The following definitions relevant to the prospectus rules are extracted from the Glossary.

Act	the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.
admission to trading	admission to trading on a regulated market.
advertisement	(as defined in the PD Regulation) announcements:
	(1)	relating to a specific offer to the public of securities or to an admission to trading on a regulated market; and
	(2)	aiming to specifically promote the potential subscription or acquisition of securities.4
applicant	an applicant for approval of a prospectus or supplementary prospectus relating to transferable securities.
asset backed security	(as defined in the PD Regulation) securities which:
	(1)	represent an interest in assets, including any rights intended to assure servicing, or the receipt or timeliness of receipts by holders of assets of amounts payable thereunder; or
	(2)	are secured by assets and the terms of which provide for payments which relate to payments or reasonable projections of payments calculated by reference to identified or identifiable assets.
base prospectus	a base prospectus referred to in PR 2.2.7 R.
body corporate	(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions) any body corporate, including a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom;
building block	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of additional information requirements, not included in one of the schedules, to be added to one or more schedules, as the case may be, depending on the type of instrument and/or transaction for which a prospectus or base prospectus is drawn up.4
collective investment undertaking other than the closed-end type	(in PR) (as defined in Article 2.1(o) of the prospectus directive) unit trusts and investment companies:
	(1)	the object of which is the collective investment of capital provided by the public, and which operate on the principle of risk-spreading;
	(2)	the units of which are, at the holder's request, repurchased or redeemed, directly or indirectly, out of the assets of these undertakings.4
4 company	any body corporate.
Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive	Directive 2001/34/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council on the admission of securities to official stock exchange listing and on information to be published on those securities.
credit institution	as defined in article 4(1)(1) of the 7 EU CRR.7 7 7
director	(in accordance with section 417(1)(a) of the Act) a person occupying in relation to it the position of a director (by whatever name called) and, in relation to an issuer which is not a body corporate, a person with corresponding powers and duties.
EEA State	(in accordance with paragraph 8 of Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights)) a State which is a contracting party to the agreement on the European Economic Area signed at Oporto on 2 May 1992, as it has effect for the time being; as at 1 May 2004, the following are the EEA States: Austria, Belgium, Cyprus, the Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, the Netherlands, Norway, Poland, Portugal, the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden and the United Kingdom.
equity security	(as defined in Article 2.1(b) of the prospectus directive) shares and other transferable securities equivalent to shares in companies, as well as any other type of transferable securities giving the right to acquire any of the aforementioned securities as a consequence of their being converted or the rights conferred by them being exercised, provided that securities of the latter type are issued by the issuer of the underlying shares or by an entity belonging to the group of the said issuer.
equity share	shares comprised in a company's equity share capital.
equity share capital	(for a company), its issued share capital excluding any part of that capital which, neither as respects dividends nor as respects capital, carries any right to participate beyond a specified amount in a distribution.
ESMA Prospectus Opinions 10 8	the following opinions published by ESMA:10
	(1)	Format of the base prospectus and consistent application of article 26(4) of the Prospectus Regulation (ESMA/2013/1944);10
	(2)	Framework for the assessment of third country prospectuses under article 20 of the Prospectus Directive (ESMA/2013/317);10
	(3)	Assessment of Israeli laws and regulations on prospectuses (ESMA/2015/1015); and10
	(4)	Assessment of Turkish laws and regulations on prospectuses (ESMA/2016/268). 10
8ESMA Prospectus Questions and Answers	the Questions and Answers for prospectuses published by ESMA (ESMA/2016/1674)13. 10
ESMA Prospectus Recommendations8 8	the ESMA update of the CESR8recommendations: The consistent implementation of Commission Regulation (EC) No 809/2004 implementing the Prospectus Directive (ESMA/2013/319).8 8
executive procedures	the procedures relating to the giving of warning notices, decision notices and supervisory notices that are described in DEPP 4 (Decision by FCA staff under executive procedures)2. 2 2
FCA	the Financial Conduct Authority.
guarantee	(as defined in the PD Regulation) any arrangement intended to ensure that any obligation material to the issue will be duly serviced, whether in the form of guarantee, surety, keep well agreement, mono-line insurance policy or other equivalent commitment.
guarantor	a person that provides a guarantee.
Home State or Home Member State	(as defined in section 102C of the Act) in relation to an issuer of transferable securities, the EEA State which is the "home Member State" for the purposes of the prospectus directive (which is to be determined in accordance with Article 2.1(m) of that directive).
Host State or Host Member State	(as defined in Article 2.1(n) of the prospectus directive) the EEA State where an offer to the public is made or admission to trading is sought, when different from the home State.
issuer	(as defined in section 102A of the Act) a legal person who issues or proposes to issue the transferable securities in question.4
4 key information	(in PR) (as defined in section 87A(9) and (10) of the Act) the information which is essential to enable investors to understand the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates and decide whether to consider the offer further. The key information must include:
	(a)	the essential characteristics of, and risks associated with, the issuer and any guarantor, including their assets, liabilities and financial positions;
	(b)	the essential characteristics of, and risks associated with, investment in the transferable securities, including any rights attaching to the securities;
	(c)	the general terms of the offer, including an estimate of the expenses charged to an investor by the issuer and the offeror, if not the issuer;
	(d)	details of the admission to trading; and
	(e)	the reasons for the offer and proposed use of the proceeds.
5 limited liability partnership	(a)	a body corporate incorporated under the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000;
	(b)	a body corporate incorporated under legislation having the equivalent effect to the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000.
MiFID 3	Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council of 15 May 2014 on markets in financial instruments and amending the insurance mediation directive and AIFMD.12 3
non-equity transferable securities	(as defined in section 102A of the Act) all transferable securities that are not equity securities.
	Note: In the prospectus directive and the PD Regulation, the Commission uses the term "non-equity securities" rather than "non-equity transferable securities".
offer	an offer of transferable securities to the public.
offer of transferable securities to the public	(as defined in section 102B of the Act), in summary:
	(a)	a communication to any person which presents sufficient information on: (i) the transferable securities to be offered, and (ii) the terms on which they are offered, to enable an investor to decide to buy or subscribe for the securities in question;
	(b)	which is made in any form or by any means;
	(c)	including the placing of securities through a financial intermediary;
	(d)	but not including a communication in connection with trading on: (i) a regulated market; (ii) a multilateral trading facility; or (iii) any market prescribed by an order under section 130A of the Act.
	Note: This is only a summary, to see the full text of the definition, readers should consult section 102B of the Act.
offering programme	(as defined in Article 2.1(k) of the prospectus directive) a plan which would permit the issuance of non-equity securities, including warrants in any form, having a similar type and/or class, in a continuous or repeated manner during a specified issuing period.
offeror	a person who makes an offer of transferable securities to the public.
5 officer	(in relation to a body corporate) (as defined in section 400(5) of the Act (Offences by bodies corporate etc)) a director, member of the committee of management, chief executive, manager, secretary, or other similar officer of the body, or a person purporting to act in that capacity or a controller of the body.
overseas company	a company incorporated outside the United Kingdom.
Part 6 rules	(in accordance with section 73A(1) of the Act), rules made for the purposes of Part 6 of the Act.
5partnership	(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) any partnership, including a partnership constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom, but not including a limited liability partnership.
PD	prospectus directive.
PD Regulation	Regulation number 809/2004 of the European Commission.
person	(in accordance with the Interpretation Act 1978) any person, including a body of persons corporate or unincorporated that is, a natural person, a legal person and, for example, a partnership).
PR	the Prospectus Rules sourcebook.
11 PRIIPs Regulation	Regulation (EU) No 1286/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 26 November 2014 on key information documents for packaged retail and insurance-based investment products (PRIIPs). http://data.europa.eu/eli/reg/2014/1286/oj
profit estimate	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a profit forecast for a financial period which has expired and for which results have not yet been published.
profit forecast	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a form of words which expressly states or by implication indicates a figure or a minimum or maximum figure for the likely level of profits or losses for the current financial period and/or financial periods subsequent to that period, or contains data from which a calculation of such a figure for future profits or losses may be made, even if no particular figure is mentioned and the word "profit" is not used.
property collective investment undertaking	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking whose investment objective is the participation in the holding of property in the long term.
prospectus	a prospectus required under the prospectus directive.
prospectus directive	the Directive of the European Parliament and of the Council of 4 November 2003 on the prospectus to be published when securities are offered to the public or admitted to trading (No 2003/71/EC).
13 Prospectus Regulation	Regulation (EU) No 2017/1129 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 14 June 2017 on the prospectus to be published when securities are offered to the public or admitted to trading on a regulated market, and repealing Directive 2003/71/EC.
Prospectus RTS Regulations 9 8	9(1)	9Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) No 382/2014 supplementing Directive 2003/71/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards for publication of supplements to the prospectus9; and
	9(2)	9Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/301 supplementing Directive 2003/71/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards for approval and publication of the prospectus and dissemination of advertisements and amending Commission Regulation (EC) No 809/2004.
Prospectus Rules	(as defined in section 73A(4) of the Act) rules expressed to relate to transferable securities.
Public international body	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a legal entity of public nature established by an international treaty between sovereign States and of which one or more Member States are members.
qualified investor	(as defined in section 86(7) of the Act) in relation to an offer of transferable securities:4
	(a)	a person or entity described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to MiFID, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with MiFID; or4 4
	(b)	a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to MiFID and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of MiFID; or4 4
	(c)	a person who is14 an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 3014 of MiFID and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of MiFID; or4 4
	(d)	a person whom:14 4
		14(i)	any relevant firm was14 authorised to continue to treat as a professional client immediately before 3 January 2018 by virtue of article 71.6 of Directive 2004/39/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 21 April 2004 on markets in financial instruments; and14
		14(ii)	the firm may continue to treat as a professional client from 3 January 2018 by virtue of Section II.2 of Annex II to MiFID.
registration document	a registration document referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.
regulated information	(as defined in the PD Regulation) all information which the issuer, or any person who has applied for the admission of securities to trading on a regulated market without the issuer’s consent, is required to disclose under Directive 2001/34/EC or under Article 6 of Directive 2003/6/EC.3
regulated market	a multilateral system operated and/or managed by a market operator, which brings together or facilitates the bringing together of multiple third-party buying and selling interests in financial instruments in the system and in accordance with its non-discretionary rules in a way that results in a contract, in respect of the financial instruments admitted to trading under its rules and/or systems, and which is authorised and functions regularly and in accordance with12 Title III of MiFID.3 [Note: article 4(1)(21) of MiFID]12
RIS	Regulatory Information Service.
risk factors	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of risks which are specific to the situation of the issuer and/or the securities and which are material for taking investment decisions.
rule	(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) a rule made by the FCA under the Act.
schedule	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of minimum information requirements adapted to the particular nature of the different types of issuers and/or the different securities involved.
securities issued in a continuous and repeated manner	(as defined in Article 2.1(l) of the prospectus directive) issues on tap or at least two separate issues of securities of a similar type and/or class over a period of 12 months.
securities note	a securities note referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.
small and medium-sized enterprise	(as defined in Article 2.1(f) of the prospectus directive) companies, which, according to their last annual or consolidated accounts, meet at least two of the following three criteria: an average number of employees during the financial year of less than 250, a total balance sheet not exceeding €43,000,000 and an annual net turnover not exceeding €50,000,000.
special purpose vehicle	(as defined in the PD Regulation) an issuer whose objects and purposes are primarily the issue of securities.
statutory notice associated decision	a decision which is made by the FCA and which is associated with a decision to give a statutory notice, including a decision:
statutory notice decision	a decision by the FCA on whether or not to give a statutory notice.
	(a)	to determine or extend the period for making representations;
	(b)	to determine whether a copy of the statutory notice needs to be given to any third party and the period for him to make representations;
	(c)	to refuse access to FCA material;
	(d)	as to the information which it is appropriate to publish about the matter to which a final notice or an effective supervisory notice relates.
summary	(in relation to a prospectus) the summary included in the prospectus.
supplementary prospectus	a supplementary prospectus containing details of a new factor, mistake or inaccuracy.
transferable security	(as defined in section 102A of the Act) anything which is a transferable security for the purposes of MiFID 3, other than money-market instruments for the purposes of that directive which have a maturity of less than 12 months. 3
	Note: In the prospectus directive and PD regulation, the Commission uses the term "security" rather than "transferable security".
umbrella collective investment scheme	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking invested in one or more collective investment undertakings, the asset of which is composed of separate class(es) or designation(s) of securities.
United Kingdom	England and Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland (but not the Channel Islands or the Isle of Man).
units of a collective investment scheme	(as defined in Article 2.1(p) of the prospectus directive) securities issued by a collective investment undertaking as representing the rights of the participants in such an undertaking over its assets.
working day	(as defined in section 103 of the Act) any day other than a Saturday, a Sunday, Christmas Day, Good Friday or a day which is a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 in any part of the United Kingdom.

LR 6.14.5G01/01/2018

(1) 1The FCA may modify LR 6.14.1R to accept a percentage lower than 25% if it considers that the market will operate properly with a lower percentage in view of the large number of shares of the same class and the extent of their distribution to the public. [Note: article 48 of the CARD] (2) In considering whether to grant a modification, the FCA may take into account the following specific factors:(a) shares of the same class that are held (even though they are not listed) in

CONC 7.19.5R01/04/2014

The notice required by CONC 7.19.4 R must contain:(1) a form of wording to the effect that it relates to default sums and is given in compliance with FCArules;(2) the date of the notice;(3) a description of the agreement sufficient to identify it;(4) the firm's name, telephone number, postal address and, where appropriate, any other address;(5) the amount and nature of each default sum payable under the agreement which has not been the subject of a previous notice of default sums;(6)

SYSC 14.1.29BG01/01/2016

(1) 6SYSC 14.1.29G(6) does not apply to a Solvency II firm.(2) SYSC 14.1.29G(7) does not apply to a Solvency II firm, but only in relation to references to the internal audit function. It does apply to a Solvency II firm in relation to references to the internal audit committee.(3) For Solvency II firms, the PRA has made rules implementing the governance provisions of the Solvency II Directive relating to internal controls (article 46), see PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions

INSPRU 7.1.91G01/04/2013

In assessing the adequacy of a firm'scapital resources, the appropriate regulator draws on more than just a review of the submitted ICA. Use is made of wider supervisory knowledge of a firm and of wider market developments and practices. When forming a view of any individual capital guidance to be given to a firm, the review of the firm'sICA along with the regulator’s risk assessment and any other issues arising from day-to-day supervision will be considered.

SUP 3.1.2R01/04/2019

Applicable sections (see SUP 3.1.1 R)

This table and the provisions in SUP 3 should be read in conjunction with GEN 2.2.23 R to GEN 2.2.25 G. In particular, the PRA does not apply any of the provisions in SUP 3 in respect of FCA-authorised persons. SUP 3.10 and SUP 3.11 are applied by the FCA only.41

(1) Category of firm		(2) Sections applicable to the firm	(3) Sections applicable to its auditor
(1)	Authorised professional firm which is required by IPRU(INV) 2.1.2R to comply with chapters 3, 519 or 13 of IPRU(INV) and which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act 9 (Notes 1 and 6)23 23 19 23 23	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10 19
(2)	Authorised professional firm not within (1) to which the custody chapter or client money chapter applies22 17 22 23	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.11	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10
(3)	Authorised professional firm not within (1) or (2) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8
(4)	Bank, building society or dormant account fund operator 21which in each case carries on designated investment business 21(Notes 2A and 6)23 23	SUP 3.1-SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10
(5)	Bank, building society or a dormant account fund operator which in each case does not carry on designated investment business 21 (Note 2A) 21	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8
(5A)	Credit union	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.824
27(5B)30	CASS debt management firm unless subject to a requirement imposed under section 55L of the Act stating that it must not hold client money or such a requirement to the same effect30	SUP 3.1 SUP 3.10 SUP 3.11	SUP 3.1 SUP 3.10
33(5C)	CASS 7 loan-based crowdfunding firm	SUP 3.1-3.7, SUP 3.11	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10
36(5D)	A CASS 13 claims management firm	SUP 3.1- 3.7, 3.11	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10
(6)	Insurer, the Society of Lloyd's, underwriting agent or members' adviser, UK ISPV 11 (Note 5)7	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8
(7)	Investment management firm, (other than an exempt CAD firm),16 personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm) 15,28 securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm 20)15 or collective portfolio management firm that is an external AIFM 28 which, in each case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act 9(Notes 3 and 623)17 23 9 28 17 23	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10 19
9(7A)	Investment management firm (other than an exempt CAD firm)20, personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm 15),28 securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm 15 or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm 20) or collective portfolio management firm that is an external AIFM 28 not within (7) to which the custody chapter or client money chapter applies22 23 28 17 22	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.1025
32 25
9(7B)	Collective portfolio management firm that is a 28 UCITS firm 13or an internally managed AIF 28 (Note 6)23 13	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10 19
13(7C)	UK MiFID investment firm, which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act (Notes 3B and 6)23 20 20 23	SUP 3.1 - 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.1014
17(7D)	Sole trader or partnership that is a UK 20 MiFID investment firm (other than an exempt CAD firm) (Notes 3C and 6)23 20 20 23	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10
(8)	Small personal investment firm or service company which, in either case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8
(9)8	Home finance provider 10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act 9 10	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.78	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88
(10)8	Insurance intermediary (other than an exempt insurance intermediary) to which the insurance client money chapter 17 (except for CASS 5.2 (Holding money as agent)) applies (see Note 4)8 17	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.78, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.108
(11)8	Exempt insurance intermediary and insurance intermediary not subject to SUP 3.1.2 R(10) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.78	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88
(12)8	Home finance intermediary 10 or home finance administrator 10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act. 10 10	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.78	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88
Note 1 = This chapter applies to an authorised professional firm in row (1) (and its auditor) as if the firm were of the relevant type in the right-hand column of IPRU(INV) 2.1.4R.
Note 2 [deleted]23 17 17 23
Note 2A = For this purpose, designated investment business does not include either or both: (a) dealing which falls within the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc) (or agreeing to do so); and (b) dealing in investments as principal (or agreeing to do so): (i) by a firm whose permission to deal in investments as principal is subject to a limitation to the effect that the firm, in carrying on this regulated activity, is limited to entering into transactions in a manner which, if the firm was an unauthorised person, would come within article 16 of the Regulated Activities Order (Dealing in contractually based investments); and (ii) in a manner which comes within that limitation; having regard to article 4(4) of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified activities: general23). 18
Note 3 = This note applies in relation to an oil market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply and in relation to an energy market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply. In SUP 3: (a) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.7 are applicable to such a firm; and (b) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 are applicable to its auditor; and, in each case, only if it has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act.
17Note 3A [deleted]23 23
20Note 3B = UK MiFID investment firms include exempt CAD firms. An exempt CAD firm that has opted into MiFID can benefit from the audit exemption for small companies in the Companies Act legislation if it meets is an exempt investment firm as defined by article 8 of the MiFI Regulations.31 If a firm does so benefit then SUP 3 will not apply to it. For further details about exempt CAD firms, see PERG 13, Q58.
17Note 3C20 = A sole trader or a partnership that is a UK MiFID investment firm 20 to which the custody chapter 22 or client money chapter applies22 20 must have its annual accounts audited. 20 20 22 22
Note 4 = The client money audit requirement in SUP 3.1.2 R(10) therefore applies to all insurance intermediaries except:8 • those which do not hold client money or other client assets in relation to insurance distribution activities 34; or 8 • those which only hold up to, but not exceeding, £30,000 of client money under a statutory trust arising under CASS 5.3.8 Insurance intermediaries which, in relation to insurance distribution activities 34, hold no more than that amount of client money only on a statutory trust are exempt insurance intermediaries.8
Note (5) = In row (6):7
(a)7	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7 applies to a managing agent in respect of its own business and in respect of the insurance business of each syndicate which it manages; and7
(b)7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 apply to the auditors of a managing agent and the auditors of the insurance business of each syndicate which the managing agent manages.1 2 3 4 5 6 7
23Note 6 = Where SUP 3.11 applies to a firm, and SUP 3.10 applies to the auditor of that firm, those sections apply whether or not that firm's permission prevents it from holding client money or custody assets and whether or not it holds client money or custody assets.A collective portfolio management firm that is an internally managed AIF is required to appoint an auditor under FUND 3.3.6R (2) (Annual report of an AIF) because the AIFM is also an AIF.28

FIT 1.1.4G10/12/2018

1Table: Situations to which FIT applies

What FIT applies to	Does it apply to SMCR firms 2?	Does it apply to firms that are not SMCR firms 2?	Comment
(1) A firm assessing the fitness and propriety of a candidate whom the firm is proposing to put forward for approval	Yes	No	However, the answer to Question 11 in SUP 10A Annex 1 (Frequently asked questions) says that the FCA's approval process is not a substitute for the checks that a firm should be carrying out on its prospective recruits. FIT may be a useful guide to matters that a firm that is not an SMCR firm 2 should take into account.
(2) A firm assessing the continuing fitness and propriety of an approved person	Yes	No	However, a firm should employ personnel with the skills, knowledge and expertise necessary for the discharge of the responsibilities allocated to them (SYSC 5.1). FIT may be a useful guide to matters which a firm should take into account if it is not an SMCR firm 2.
(3) The FCA assessing the fitness and propriety of a candidate for approval as an approved person	Yes	Yes
(4) The FCA assessing the continuing fitness and propriety of an approved person	Yes	Yes
1(5) A firm assessing the fitness and propriety of a person whom a firm is proposing to certify to perform an FCA certification function 2	Yes	No	FCA certification functions do not apply to a firm that is not an SMCR firm.2 However, see the comment on row (2).2
1(6) A firm assessing the continuing fitness and propriety of a person whom a firm has certified to perform an FCA certification function 2	Yes	No	FCA certification functions do not apply to a firm that is not an SMCR firm.2 However, see the comment on row (2).2

SUP 10C.4.1R07/03/2016

(1) Each function described in SUP 10C.4.3R is an FCA controlled function.(2) In accordance with section 59(6A) of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements), the FCA designates each function in (1) as a senior management function.

CONC 7.12.3G01/04/2014

(1) CONC 1.2.2 R requires a firm to ensure its employees and agents comply with CONC and that it takes reasonable steps to ensure other persons who act on its behalf do so. This rule would apply where a debt collector acts as agent or on behalf of a lender.(2) Situations where it may be justified for a firm to refuse to deal with a person acting on behalf of a customer may include, for example, refusing to deal with that person where the firm is able to show that the person has

MCOB 4.1.8G01/04/2013

1The FCA would not view the removal of a party to the regulated mortgage contract following the death of that party (and where no other variation is proposed) as a variation for the purposes of MCOB 4.1.4 R(1).

DTR 7.1.7G13/12/2019

In the FCA's view, compliance with Provisions 14, 24, 25 and 265 of the UK Corporate Governance Code2 and following the statement of good practice set out in paragraph 63 of the ‘Guidance on Board Effectiveness’ published by the Financial Reporting Council in July 20185 will result in compliance with DTR 7.1.1 R to DTR 7.1.3R and with DTR 7.1.5R except as regards disclosing how the body which carries out the functions required by DTR 7.1.3R is composed5.332

PRIN 3.4.5R01/08/2019

Where Principle 11 refers to regulators, this means, in addition to the FCA7, other regulators with recognised jurisdiction in relation to regulated activities, payment services and electronic money10 whether in the United Kingdom or abroad.

ICOBS 1.1.4G06/01/2008

Guidance on the application provisions is in ICOBS 1 Annex 1 (Part 4).

COLL 6.2.12G01/04/2013

Explanatory table: This table belongs to COLL 6.2.2 G (4) (Purpose).

Correction of box management errors
1	Controls by authorised fund managers
	An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over:
	(1)	its calculations of what units are owned by it (its 'box'); and
	(2)	compliance with COLL 6.2.8 R which is intended to prevent a negative box.
2	Controls by depositaries
	(1)	Under COLL 6.6.4 (General duties of the depositary), a depositary should take reasonable care to ensure that a scheme 2 is managed in accordance with COLL 6.2 (Dealing) and COLL 6.3 (Pricing and valuation).
	(2)	A depositary should therefore make a regular assessment of the authorised fund manager's box management procedures (including supporting systems) and controls. This should include reviewing the authorised fund manager's controls and procedures when the depositary assumes office, on any significant change and on a regular basis, to ensure that a series of otherwise minor changes do not have a cumulative and a significant effect on the accuracy of the controls and procedures.
3	Recording and reporting of box management errors
	(1)	An authorised fund manager should record all errors which result in a breach of COLL 6.2.8 R (Controls over the issue and cancellation of units) and as soon as an error is discovered, the authorised fund manager should report the fact to the depositary, together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition of the error.
	(2)	A depositary should report material box management errors to the FCA immediately. Materiality should be determined by taking into account a number of factors including: the implications of the error for the sufficiency of controls put into place by the authorised fund manager; the significance of any breakdown in the authorised fund manager's management controls or other checking procedures; the significance of any failure of systems or back-up arrangements; the duration of an error; and the level of compensation due to the scheme, and an authorised fund manager's ability (or otherwise) to meet claims for compensation in full.
	(3)	A depositary should also make a return to the FCA (in the manner prescribed by SUP 16.6.8 R) on a quarterly basis.

PERG 4.2.3G16/07/2016

A person who is concerned to know whether his proposed activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form, in the flowchart in PERG 4.18):(1) will I be carrying on my activities by way of business (see PERG 4.3.3 G (The business test))?(2) if so, will my activities relate to regulated mortgage contracts (see PERG 4.4 (What is a regulated

MCOB 5.1.10G23/03/2018

A firm that finds any rule in MCOB 5.6 (Content of illustrations) inappropriate for the particular kind of regulated mortgage contract that the mortgage lender provides will need to seek from the FCA a waiver of that rule, unless another rule provides otherwise7. SUP 8 contains details of the waiver procedure.

Related provisions for SUP 10C.12.10

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