Related provisions for FEES 13.2.10
541 - 560 of 611 items.
The amount of credit provided under an agreement for high-cost short-term credit for the purposes of CONC 5A.3.3 R (Initial cost cap) is the amount of credit outstanding on the day in question under the agreement, disregarding for the purposes of that rule the effect of the borrower discharging all or part of the borrower's indebtedness in accordance with section 94 of the CCA (right to complete payments ahead of time) by repayment of credit before the date provided for in the
1Firms should refer to SUP 15.3 (General notification requirements) generally, and in particular SUP 15.3.11R, in respect of the following:
(1) a breach of a rule or direction in this chapter;
(2) a breach of a directly applicable provision imposed by MiFIR or any EU regulation adopted under MiFID or MiFIR; and
(3) a breach of any requirement imposed by or under the MiFI Regulations which relates to this chapter.
(1) 6This rule applies to a firm which intends to appoint:6636(a) an appointed representative to carry on insurance distribution activities15; or1346611(b) a tied agent; or1166(c) an appointed representative to carry on MCD credit intermediation activity.11; or13(d) a MiFID optional exemption appointed representative; or13(e) a structured deposit appointed representative.134(2) This rule also applies to a firm which has appointed an appointed representative.63(3) A firm in (1)
(1) [deleted]88(2) Relevant matters to which the FCA may have regard when assessing whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, this threshold condition8may include but are not limited to:(a) (in relation to a firm other than a firm carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity),8 whether there are any indications that the firm may have difficulties if the application is granted, at the time of the grant or in the future, in complying with any of the
(1) If, in relation to a firm which has completed the relevant Form A (SUP 10A Annex 4D), any of the details relating to arrangements and FCA controlled functions are to change, the firm must notify the FCA on Form D (SUP 10C Annex 6R5). (2) The notification under (1) must be made as soon as reasonably practicable after the firm becomes aware of the proposed change.(3) This also applies in relation to an FCA controlled function for which an application was made using Form E.(4)
(1) In order to discharge its functions under the Act, the FCA1 needs timely and accurate information about firms. The provision of this information on a regular basis enables the FCA1 to build up over time a picture of firms' circumstances and behaviour.777(2) Principle 11 requires a firm to deal with its regulators in an open and cooperative way, and to disclose to the FCA1 appropriately anything relating to the firm of which the FCA1 would reasonably expect notice. The reporting
(1) Paragraph 9 of Schedule 4 of FSBRA and the 2015 Interchange Regulations applying FSBRA in a modified form and the Payment Services Regulations applying FSBRA in a modified form6 allow3 the FCA to make rules requiring participants2 in regulated payment systems and IFR card payment systems6 to pay the FCA specified amounts or amounts calculated in a specified way to:(a) meet the relevant costs referred to in (2) below; and (b) enable the PSR to maintain adequate reserves.(1A)
In assessing the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2C and 3B of Schedule 6 to the Act6, factors which the FCA6 will take into consideration include, among other things, whether: 6(1) it is likely that the FCA6 will receive adequate information from the firm, and those persons with whom the firm has close links, to enable it to determine whether the firm is complying with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system for which the FCA is responsible6 and to
(1) If a scheme of arrangement is entered into in relation to an authorised fund ("transferor fund") or a sub-fund of a scheme which is an umbrella ("transferor sub-fund"), an authorised fund manager must ensure that the unitholders of the transferor fund or sub-fund do not become unitholders of units in a collective investment scheme other than a regulated collective investment scheme.(2) For a UCITS scheme or a sub-fund of a UCITS scheme, (1) applies as if the reference to a
(1) It is an offence for a person carrying on the business of debt counselling, debt adjusting or providing credit information services to canvass its services off trade premises under section 154 of the CCA. The definition of canvassing in section 153 of the CCA would include an unsolicited personal visit to a customer's home. [Note: paragraph 3.13 of DMG](2) Where a long telephone call is required, the firm should ensure the call is not made on a premium rate number.(3) It is
2The following are indicators of whether action by the FCA or one of the other agencies is more appropriate. They are not listed in any particular order or ranked according to priority. No single feature of the case should be considered in isolation, but rather the whole case should be considered in the round.(a) 2 Tending towards action by the FCAWhere the suspected conduct in question gives rise to concerns regarding market confidence or protection of consumers of services regulated
Where a UK recognised body is to circulate any notice or other document proposing any amendment to its memorandum or articles of association (or other similar agreement or document relating to its constitution) to:(1) its shareholders (or any group or class of them); or(2) its members (or any group or class of them); or(3) any other group or class of persons which has the power to make that amendment or whose consent or approval is required before it may be made;that UK recognised
Section 351A (Disclosure under the UCITS directive) of the Act provides that where a trustee of an AUT or the depositary of an ACS1 which is a master UCITS or a feeder UCITS, or any person acting on their behalf, makes a disclosure to comply with rules implementing Chapter VIII of the UCITS Directive, that disclosure is not to be taken as a contravention of any duty to which the person making the disclosure is subject. The OEIC Regulations (see regulation 83A) contain corresponding
The rules in
this section amplify the obligation in Principle 10
which requires a firm to arrange
adequate protection for client's assets. Firms carrying on insurance distribution activities2 may hold, on a temporary or longer basis, client title documents such
as policy documents (other
than policy documents of no
value) and also items of physical property if, for example, a firm arranges for a valuation. The rules are intended to ensure that firms make adequate arrangements
This rule applies to a firm that does not include a forward, future, option or swap on an equity, basket of equities or equity index in the calculation of its interest rate PRR calculation under BIPRU 7.2 (Interest rate PRR). However it does not apply to cliquet as defined in BIPRU 7.6.18R (Table: Option PRR: methods for different types of option). A firm must calculate the interest rate PRR for a position being treated under this rule as follows:(1) multiply the market value
If:(1) a firm appoints an individual to perform a function which, but for this rule, would be an FCA significant-influence function;(2) the appointment is to provide cover for an approved person whose absence is:(a) temporary; or(b) reasonably unforeseen; and(3) the appointment is for less than 12 weeks in a consecutive 12-month period;the description of the relevant FCA significant-influence function does not relate to those activities of that individual.
(1) Paragraphs (2) to (5) apply to CONC 4.1.3 R and CONC 4.1.4 R (rules on content of quotations).(2) “Quotation” means any document by which a person gives a customer information about the terms on which the person or a lender or owner is prepared to do business, but it does not include:(a) a communication which is also a financial promotion;(b) any document given to a customer under section 58 of the CCA (opportunity for withdrawal from prospective land mortgage);(c) any document
3The material in this guide does not form part of the FCAHandbook and is not guidance on rules, but it is 'general guidance' as defined in section 139B of the Act. If you have any doubt about a legal or other provision or your responsibilities under the Act or other relevant requirements, you should seek appropriate legal advice from your legal adviser.
(1) This rule applies to a firm that is unable to comply with the BIPRU Remuneration Code because of an obligation it owes to a BIPRU Remuneration Code staff member under a provision of an agreement made on or before 29 July 2010. (2) A firm must take reasonable steps to amend or terminate the provision in (1) in a way that enables it to comply with the BIPRU Remuneration Code at the earliest opportunity.(3) Until the provision in (1) ceases to prevent the firm from complying
1132In accordance with article 11 of the Regulated Activities Amendment Order, the Ombudsman can also consider under the Compulsory Jurisdiction:(1) a relevant existing credit-related complaint referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service before 1 April 2014 which was formerly being dealt with under the Consumer Credit Jurisdiction; and(2) a relevant new credit-related complaint referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service on or after 1 April 2014 which relates to an act or omission