Related provisions for SYSC 22.5.15
21 - 40 of 385 items.
(1) A firm must establish, implement and maintain appropriate and effective arrangements for the disclosure of reportable concerns by whistleblowers.(2) The arrangements in (1) must at least:(a) be able effectively to handle disclosures of reportable concerns including: (i) where the whistleblower has requested confidentiality or has chosen not to reveal their identity; and(ii) allowing for disclosures to be made through a range of communication methods; (b) ensure the effective
A firm’s training and development in line with SYSC 18.3.1R(2)(g) should include:(1) for all UK-based employees:(a) a statement that the firm takes the making of reportable concerns seriously;(b) a reference to the ability to report reportable concerns to the firm and the methods for doing so;(c) examples of events that might prompt the making of a reportable concern;(d) examples of action that might be taken by the firm after receiving a reportable concern by a whistleblower,
This rule applies to an EEA SMCR banking firm3 and a third-country SMCR banking firm3.2(1) A person subject to this rule (‘P’) 2must, in the manner described in (2), communicate to its UK-based employees that they may disclose reportable concerns to the PRA or the FCA and the methods for doing so. P 2must make clear that:(a) reporting to the PRA or to the FCA is not conditional on a report first being made using P’s 2internal arrangements; (b) it is possible to report using P’s
A firm must comply with this section where the following conditions are satisfied:(1) a borrower is required to have made at least two payments under the agreement before that time;(2) the total sum paid under the agreement by the borrower is less than the total sum required to have been paid before that time;(3) the amount of the shortfall is no less than the sum of the last two payments which the borrower is required to have made before that time;(4) the firm is not already
Where the notice is given under CONC 7.17.4R (1) the notice must also state the amount of the shortfall under the agreement which gave rise to the duty to give the notice and the firm must:(1) within 15 working days of receiving the borrower's request for further information about the shortfall which gave rise to the duty to give the notice, give the borrower in relation to each of the sums which comprise the shortfall, notice of:(a) the amount of the sums due which comprise the
Where the notice is given under CONC 7.17.4R (2) the notice must also contain the following information:(1) that part of the opening balance referred to in CONC 7.17.7R (5) which comprises any sum which the borrower has failed to pay in full when it became due under the agreement, whether or not such sums have been included in a previous notice;(2) the amount and date of any sums paid into the account by, or to the credit of, the borrower during the period to which the notice
(1) 1A firm may have concluded that an employee is unfit or has breached COCON or APER (as described in questions (E) to (F) of Part One of SYSC 22 Annex 1R (Template for regulatory references given by SMCR firms2 and disclosure requirements)). The firm may later become aware of facts or matters causing it to revise its original conclusions.(2) If so, the firm may decide not to disclose in a reference its conclusion or may qualify its conclusion with supplementary information
(1) A firm may have concluded that an employee is unfit or has breached COCON or APER (as described in questions (E) to (F) of Part One of SYSC 22 Annex 1R (Template for regulatory references given by SMCR firms2 and disclosure requirements)). However the firm may consider that the disclosure is incomplete without including mitigating circumstances.(2) For example, if the firm is reporting a breach of COCON it may consider that the breach is very uncharacteristic of the employee
(1) If a firm has taken disciplinary action of the type referred to in question (F) in Part One of SYSC 22 Annex 1R (Template for regulatory references given by SMCR firms2 and disclosure requirements) against an employee and is asked to give a reference about that employee, the firm should (if it has not already done so) consider whether the basis on which it took that action amounts to a breach of any individual conduct requirements covered by question (F). (2) If the firm decides
(1) SYSC 22.2.2R(1) to (3) may require a firm3 to disclose information that goes beyond the mandatory minimum information in Part One of SYSC 22 Annex 1R (Template for regulatory references given by SMCR firms2 and disclosure requirements).2(2) This may mean, for instance, that a firm should in some cases disclose a conclusion that an employee or former employee has breached COCON or APER where that conclusion was reached outside the time limits in Part One of SYSC 22 Annex 1
1A firm that sells:(1) a non-PRIIP packaged product17 to a retail client, must provide a key features document and a key features illustration2 to that client (unless the packaged product is a unit in a regulated collective investment scheme17);777(2) a life policy to a client, must provide:20131313(a) the Solvency II Directive information to that client;20(b) a client with objective and relevant information about the policy:20(i) in a comprehensible form to allow the client to
9A firm that arranges to facilitate the payment of an adviser charge or consultancy charge17, or an increase in such a charge17 from an in-force packaged product, must provide to the retail client sufficient information for the retail client to be able to understand the likely effect of that facilitation.
(1) A firm that personally recommends that a retail client holds a particular asset in a SIPP must provide that client with sufficient information for the client to be able to make an informed decision about whether to buy or invest.(2) This rule does not apply if the asset is described in COBS 14.2.1 R.
A firm is not required to provide:(1) a document, if the firm produces the product and the rules in this section require another firm to provide the document;(2) a key features document or key features illustration2, if another person is required to provide the distance marketing information by the rules of another EEA State; (3) the Solvency II Directive information,13 if another person is required to provide that information by the rules of another EEA State.1713(4) [deleted]17[Note:
7(1) A firm may provide a document, or the information required to be provided by the rules in this section, in a durable medium immediately after the conclusion of a distance contract, if the contract has been concluded at a client's request using a means of distance communication that does not enable the document or information to be provided in that form in good time before the client is bound by the contract.7(2) The exception in (1) does not apply in relation to the provision
7(1) Where the rules in this section require a document or information to be provided, in the case of a voice telephony communication, a firm must:77(a) if the client gives explicit consent to receiving only limited information, provide the abbreviated distance marketing disclosure information () orally to the client;7(b) if the client does not give explicit consent to only receiving limited information, and the parties wish to proceed by voice telephony communication, provide
If transferable securities are admitted to trading in more than one EEA State including the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home State, regulated information must be disclosed:(1) in English; and(2) either in a language accepted by the competent authorities of each Host State or in a language customary in the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer. [Note: article 20(2) of the TD]
(1) If transferable securities are admitted to trading in one or more EEA States excluding the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home State, regulated information must be disclosed either:(a) in a language accepted by the competent authorities of those Host States; or(b) in a language customary in the sphere of international finance,at the choice of the issuer.(2) Where the United Kingdom is the Home State, regulated information must be disclosed either in English or
If transferable securities whose denomination per unit amounts to at least 100,000 euros1 (or an equivalent amount) are admitted to trading in the United Kingdom or in one or more EEA States, regulated information must be disclosed to the public in either a language accepted by the competent authorities of the Home State and Host States or in a language customary in the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer or of the person who, without the issuer's consent,
A firm must comply with this section where the following conditions are satisfied:(1) a borrower is required to have made at least two repayments under the agreement;(2) the last two repayments which the borrower is required to have made before that time have not been made;(3) the firm has not already been required to give a notice under CONC 7.18.3 R in relation to the agreement;(4) the lender is not already under a duty to give the borrower notice under section 86C of the CCA;
(1) The firm must, when the firm next sends a statement to the borrower, give or send the borrower a notice including the information set out in CONC 7.18.5 R.(2) A firm must accompany the notice required by (1) with a copy of the current arrears information sheet under section 86A of the CCA with the following modifications:(-a) for the heading “Arrears” substitute “Arrears – peer-to-peer lending”;1(a) for the bullet point headed “Work out how much money you owe” substitute:“Work
The notice referred to in CONC 7.18.3 R must contain the following information:(1) a form of wording to the effect that it is given in compliance with the rules because the borrower is behind with his payments under the agreement;(2) a form of wording encouraging the borrower to discuss the state of his account with the firm;(3) the date of the notice;(4) a description of the agreement sufficient to identify it;(5) (a) the name, telephone number, postal address and, where appropriate,
(1) Subject to (2), where the total amount which the borrower has failed to pay in relation to the last two payments due under the agreement prior to the date on which the firm came under a duty to give the borrower a notice under CONC 7.18.3 R is not more than £2, the notice:(a) need not include any of the information or statements referred to in CONC 7.18.4 R;(b) but, in that event, shall contain a statement in the following form:"You have failed to make two minimum paymentsFailing
(1) If arrangements made by a firm under SYSC 10.1.7 R9 are not sufficient to ensure, with reasonable confidence, that risks of damage to the interests of a client will be prevented, the firm must clearly disclose the following9 to the client before undertaking business for the client:93(a) the general nature or sources of conflicts of interest, or both; and9(b) the steps taken to mitigate those risks.9(2) The disclosure must:(a) be made in a durable medium; 9(b) clearly state
Firms3 should aim to identify and manage the conflicts of interest arising in relation to their various business lines and their group's activities under a comprehensive conflicts of interest policy. In particular, the disclosure of conflicts of interest by a firm should not exempt it from the obligation to maintain and operate the effective organisational and administrative arrangements under SYSC 10.1.7 R. While disclosure of specific conflicts of interest is required by SYSC
9A firm must treat disclosure of conflicts pursuant to SYSC 10.1.8R as a measure of last resort to be used only where the effective organisational and administrative arrangements established by the firm to prevent or manage its conflicts of interest in accordance with SYSC 10.1.7R are not sufficient to ensure, with reasonable confidence, that risks of damage to the interests of the client will be prevented.
(1) The conflicts of interest policy must include the following content:(a) it must identify in accordance with SYSC 10.1.3 R, SYSC 10.1.4 R, SYSC 10.1.4BR and SYSC 10.1.4CR (as applicable),12 by reference to the specific services and activities carried out by or on behalf of the management company or insurance intermediary12 the circumstances which constitute or may give rise to a conflict of interest entailing a material risk of damage to the interests of one or more clients;
6An AIFM must take all reasonable steps to avoid conflicts of interest and, when they cannot be avoided, manage, monitor and (where applicable) disclose those conflicts of interest in order to prevent them from adversely affecting the interests of the AIFs and their investors, and to ensure that the AIFs it manages are fairly treated.[Note: article 12(1)d of AIFMD]
The firm should consider all of its sales of payment protection contracts to the complainant in respect of re-financed loans that were rolled up into the loan covered by the payment protection contract that is the subject of the complaint. The firm should consider the cumulative financial impact on the complainant of any previous breaches or failings in those sales or, where relevant, any previous failures to disclose commission1.
Other relevant parts of HandbookNote: Other parts of the Handbook that may also be relevant to persons to whom the disclosure requirements and the disclosure guidance5 apply include DEPP (Decision Procedure and Penalties Manual)3 and 3Chapter 9 of SUP (the Supervision manual).The following Regulatory Guides are also relevant:31. The Enforcement Guide (EG)32. [intentionally blank]3Note: A list of regulated markets can be found on the FCA website.33
1If an issuer is required to notify information to a RIS at a time when a RIS is not open for business, it may distribute the information as soon as possible to:(1) not less than two national newspapers in the United Kingdom;(2) two newswire services operating in the United Kingdom; and(3) a RIS for release as soon as it opens.
(1) Firms may use the following wording, or alternative wording which has substantively the same meaning, in any settlement agreement:“For the avoidance of doubt, nothing precludes [name of worker] from making a “protected disclosure” within the meaning of Part 4A (Protected Disclosures) of the Employment Rights Act 1996. This includes protected disclosures made about matters previously disclosed to another recipient.”(2) Compliance with (1) may be relied on as tending to establish
(1) Firms must not request that workers enter into warranties which require them to disclose to the firm that:(a) they have made a protected disclosure; or(b) they know of no information which could form the basis of a protected disclosure.(2) Firms must not use measures intended to prevent workers from making protected disclosures.
A1sponsor must in relation to a sponsor service:11(1) referred to in 3LR 8.2.1R (1) to (4), LR 8.2.1R (11), LR 8.2.1A R and, where relevant LR 8.2.1R (5)3, 1provide assurance to the FCA when required that the responsibilities of the company with or applying for a premium listing of its securities8 under the listing rules have been met;33(1A) 3provide to the FCA any explanation or confirmation in such form and within such time limit as the FCA reasonably requires for the purposes
Where, in relation to a sponsor service,1 a sponsor gives any guidance or advice to a listed company or applicant on 1 the application or interpretation of the listing rules or disclosure requirements7 and transparency rules2, the sponsor must take reasonable steps to satisfy itself that the director or directors of the listed company understand their responsibilities and obligations 1under the listing rules and disclosure requirements7 and transparency rules.21112112
1If, in connection with the provision of a3sponsor service, a sponsor becomes aware that it, or a company with or applying for a premium listing of its securities8 is failing or has failed to comply with its obligations under3 the listing rules3, the3disclosure requirements7 or the transparency rules, the sponsor must promptly notify the FCA2.323
1Where an issuer has not disclosed its Home State as defined by the second indent of article 2.1(i)(i) of the TD or article 2.1(i)(ii) of the TD in accordance with DTR 6.4.2R and DTR 6.4.3R within a period of three months from the date the issuer’s securities are first admitted to trading on a regulated market, the Home State shall be:(1) the EEA State where the issuer’s securities are admitted to trading on a regulated market; or (2) where the issuer’s securities are admitted
(1) A firm must regard information as proprietary information if sharing that information with the public would undermine its competitive position.(2) Proprietary information may include information on products or systems which, if shared with competitors, would render a firm's investments therein less valuable.[Note: BCD Annex XII Part 1 point 2]
A firm which is a significant subsidiary of:(1) an EEA parent institution; or(2) an EEA parent financial holding company;1 or2(3) an EEA parent mixed financial holding company;2must disclose the information specified in BIPRU 11.5.3 R to BIPRU 11.5.4 R on an individual or sub-consolidated basis.[Note: BCD Annex XII Part 1 point 5]
A firm calculating risk weighted exposure amounts in accordance with the IRB approach must disclose the following information:(1) the scope of the firm'sIRB permission;(2) an explanation and review of:(a) the structure of internal rating systems and relation between internal and external ratings;(b) the use of internal estimates other than for calculating risk weighted exposure amounts in accordance with the IRB approach;(c) the process for managing and recognising credit risk
For the purposes of BIPRU 11.6.1 R (4), where a firm uses its own estimates of LGDs or conversion factors for the calculation of risk weighted exposure amounts for exposures falling into the sovereign, institution and corporate IRB exposure class1, the firm must disclose those exposures separately from exposures for which it does not use such estimates.[Note: BCD Annex XII Part 3 point 1 (part)]
For the purposes of BIPRU 11.6.1 R (9), where appropriate, a firm must further decompose the information to provide analysis of PD and, for a firm using own estimates of LGDs and/or conversion factors, LGD and conversion factor outcomes against estimates provided in the quantitative risk assessment disclosures under BIPRU 11.6.1 R to BIPRU 11.6.4 R.[Note: BCD Annex XII Part 3 point 1 (part)]
A firm applying credit risk mitigation techniques must disclose the following information:(1) the policies and processes for, and an indication of the extent to which the firm makes use of, on- and off-balance sheet netting;(2) the policies and processes for collateral valuation and management;(3) a description of the main types of collateral taken by the firm;(4) the main types of guarantor and credit derivative counterparty and their creditworthiness;(5) information about market
(1) A firm (B) must provide a reference to another firm (A) as soon as reasonably practicable if:(a) A is considering:(i) permitting or appointing someone (P) to perform a controlled function; or(ii) issuing a certificate under the certification regime for P; or(iii) appointing P to another position in the table in SYSC 22.2.3R; (as explained in more detail in the table in SYSC 22.2.3R);(b) A makes a request, for a reference or other information in respect of P from B, in B’s
Table: What positions need a reference
Position |
When to obtain reference |
Comments |
(A) Permitting or appointing someone to perform an FCA controlled function or a PRA controlled function. |
One month before the end of the application period Where a request for a reference would require: (a) the firm requesting the reference; (b) the employer giving the reference; or (c) any other person; to make a mandatory disclosure prior to P disclosing to its current employer that such application has been made, the date is the end of the application period. |
|
(B) Issuing a certificate under section 63F of the Act (Certification of employees by2 authorised persons). |
Before the certificate is issued |
This includes renewing an existing certificate. |
(C) Appointing someone to any of the following positions (as defined in the PRA Rulebook): (a) a notified non-executive director; (b) a credit union non-executive director; or (c) a key function holder. |
Not applicable |
SYSC 22.2.1R (obligation to obtain a reference) does not apply to a firm appointing someone to the position in column (1). However SYSC 22.2.2R does apply to a firm asked to give a reference to a firm appointing someone to the position in column (1). |
3(D) A firm appointing someone to be a non-SMF board director subject to competence requirements of itself. |
Before appointment |
Only applies where the appointment is by a UK SMCR firm that is: (a) a core SMCR firm; or (b) an enhanced scope SMCR firm. |
Note 1: Mandatory disclosure means an obligation in any applicable laws, regulations or rules to declare or disclose information to the public. |
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Note 2: P refers to the employee or ex-employee about whom the reference is given as defined in more detail in SYSC 22.2.1R and SYSC 22.2.2R. |
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Note 3: The application period means the period for consideration referred to in section 61 of the Act (Determination of application). |
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This rule sets out time limits about the obligation to update a reference in SYSC 22.2.4R. (1) If B still employs P, SYSC 22.2.4R applies throughout the period B remains employed.(2) If B no longer employs P, the obligation to update ends six years after P ceased to be employed by B.(3) If B no longer employs P and the matters or circumstances are not serious misconduct by P, B does not have to disclose something if it did not occur or exist in the six year period ending on the
If a firm becomes aware, or has information that reasonably suggests that it has or may have provided the FCA3 with information which was or may have been false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed in a material particular, it must notify the FCA3 immediately. Subject to SUP 15.6.5 R, the notification must include:9999(1) details of the information which is or may be false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed; (2) an
The appropriate regulator may ask the auditor to attend meetings and to supply it with information about the firm. In complying with SUP 3.8.2 R, the auditor should attend such meetings as the appropriate regulator requests and supply it with any information the appropriate regulator may reasonably request about the firm to enable the appropriate regulator to discharge its functions under the Act.
Within the legal constraints that apply, the appropriate regulator may pass on to an auditor any information which it considers relevant to his function. An auditor is bound by the confidentiality provisions set out in Part XXIII of the Act (Public record, disclosure of information and cooperation) in respect of confidential information he receives from the appropriate regulator. An auditor may not pass on such confidential information without lawful authority, for example if
(1) Auditors are subject to regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator). Section 343 and the regulations also apply to an auditor of an authorised person in his capacity as an auditor of a person who has close links with the authorised person.3(2) These regulations oblige auditors to report certain matters to the appropriate regulator. Sections 342(3) and 343(3) of the Act provide that an
A firm must:(1) where it has responsibility for doing so, explain the key features of a regulated credit agreement to enable the customer to make an informed choice as required by CONC 4.2.5 R;[Note: paragraphs 4.27 to 4.30 of CBG and 2.2 of ILG](2) take reasonable steps to satisfy itself that a product it wishes to recommend to a customer is not unsuitable for the customer's needs and circumstances;[Note: paragraph 4.22 of CBG](3) advise a customer to read, and allow the customer
Where a credit broker ("B") is a negotiator (within the meaning of section 56(1) of the CCA), B must, at the same time as B gives notice to a customer, under section 157(1) of the CCA (which relates to the duty to disclose on request the name and address of any credit reference agency consulted by B) also give the customer notice of the name and address of any credit reference agency of which B has been informed under CONC 2.4.2 R.[Note: regulation 3 of SI 1977/ 330]
Where a credit broker ("B") is not a negotiator (within the meaning of section 56(1) of the CCA), B must, within seven working days after receiving a request in writing for any such information, which is made by a customer within 28 days after the termination of any negotiations relating to a regulated credit agreement or a regulated consumer hire agreement whether on the making of the agreement or otherwise, give to the customer notice of: (1) the name and address of any credit
A firm must not:(1) make or cause to be made unsolicited calls to numbers entered on the register kept under regulation 25 or 26 of the Privacy and Electronic Communications (EC Directive) Regulations 2003 or to a customer who has notified the firm not to call the number being used to call; [Note: paragraph 3.9a of CBG](2) other than where:(a) [deleted]4(b) [deleted]4(c) [deleted]4(ca) (i) the firm has obtained the contact details of a customer (C) in the course of the sale or
(1) It is likely to be an inappropriate offer of an inducement or incentive to enter into an regulated credit agreement or a regulated consumer hire agreement to state that the offer in relation to the agreement will be withdrawn or the terms and conditions of the offer will worsen if the agreement is not signed immediately or within a stated period after the communication, unless the firm's offer on those terms and conditions will in fact be withdrawn or worsen in the period
Where article 20(3) of the Market Abuse Regulation requires a disclosure of the proportions of all investment recommendations published that are “buy”, “hold”, “sell” or equivalent terms, the FCA considers it important for these equivalent terms to be consistent and meaningful to the recipients in terms of the course of actions being recommended, particularly for non-equity material.22