Related provisions for GENPRU 1.1.2B
41 - 60 of 194 items.
(1) Unless a firm cannot reasonably compare a maturity payment with a calculated asset share, it must:(a) set a target range for the maturity payments that it will make on:(i) all of its with-profits policies; or(ii) each group of its with-profits policies;(b) ensure that each target range:(i) is expressed as a percentage of unsmoothed asset share; and(ii) includes 100% of unsmoothed asset share; and(c) manage its with-profits business, and the business of each with-profit fund,
5Loans to a connected person using assets in a with-profits fund should be considered as investments of assets within the with-profits fund. As such, a Solvency II firm will need to ensure that: (1) such loans comply with the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II Firms: Investments having regard to COBS 20.2.35B G; and(2) where there is a conflict of interests, in the reasonable opinion of the firm's senior management, they are in the best interests of the with-profits policyholders in the
(1) 5A Solvency II firm is required to consider its investment strategy in relation to the assets in a with-profits fund, including any strategic investments, in accordance with the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II Firms: Investments. Firms are expected, in applying the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II Firms: Investments, to take into account the particular circumstances and requirements of the liabilities in the with-profits fund to which those assets relate. For example, a Solvency II firm
(1) 2The aim of the discussions in COBS 20.2.41A R is to:(a) allow the FCA to comment on the adequacy of the firm's planning; and(b) seek agreement with the firm on any other appropriate actions to ensure with-profits policyholders are treated fairly.(2) If the firm is no longer effecting a material volume of new with-profits policies (other than by reinsurance) into a with-profits fund; or if it is ceding by way of reinsurance most or all of the new with-profits policies which
(1) 4A mutual operating a common fund may seek to undertake an exercise to identify that part of the fund to which the mutual considers it would be fair for relevant provisions in COBS 20 not to apply. (2) To give regulatory effect to the identification exercise, the FCA expects that a mutual will need to apply to the FCA to modify the relevant provisions in COBS 20 and elsewhere which are dependent on the definition of the with-profits fund. (3) A mutual will need to demonstrate
(1) 8Part VII of the Act prescribes certain statutory functions in relation to insurance business transfer schemes for both the PRA and the FCA. In accordance with the Act, the PRA and the FCA maintain a Memorandum of Understanding, which describes each regulator’s role in relation to the exercise of its functions under the Act relating to matters of common regulatory interest and how each regulator intends to ensure the coordinated exercise of such functions. Under the Memorandum
The initial documentary8 information on the scheme should be provided to the PRA, who will share it with the FCA, and8 should include its broad outline and its purpose. Each regulator may8 indicate to the promoters how closely it wishes to monitor the progress of the scheme, including the extent to which it wishes to see draft documentation.88
(1) If the transferee is (or will be) an EEA firm (authorised in its Home State to carry on insurance business under the Solvency II Directive6) or a Swiss general insurance company, then the appropriate regulator8 has to consult the transferee's Home State regulator, who has 3 months to respond. It will be necessary for the appropriate regulator8 to obtain from the transferee's Home State regulator a certificate confirming that the transferee will meet the Home State's solvency
8When assessing a proposed scheme under Part VII of the Act each regulator will, taking into account all relevant matters in each case, consider whether it should provide a report to the court. As it will lead the Part VII process for insurance business transfers, the PRA will usually provide such a report.
If the appropriate regulator1 gives a firm a waiver, then the relevant rule no longer applies to the firm. But:1(1) if a waiver directs that a rule is to apply to a firm with modifications, then contravention of the modified rule could lead to appropriate regulator1 enforcement action and (if applicable) a right of action under section 138D1 of the Act (Actions for damages); and11(2) if a waiver is given subject to a condition, it will not apply to activities conducted in breach
Substantive changes to the rules (this would not include simple editorial changes) in the Handbook may affect existing waivers, changing their practical effect and creating a need for a change to the original waiver. The appropriate regulator1 will consult on proposed rule changes. A firm should note proposed rule changes and discuss the impact on a waiver with its appropriate1 supervisory contact.111
Action which a firm takes either to restore its capital resources to the levels set by the intervention points in PRA2 Rulebook: Solvency II Firms: Undertakings in Difficulty or PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Run Off Operations2, or to prevent its capital resources falling below those points, should be consistent with Principle 6 of the FCA's Principles for Businesses. Principle 6 requires a firm to pay due regard to the interests of its customers and treat them fairly.
Where a firm submits a plan for restoration under2 PRA Rulebook: Solvency II Firms: Undertakings in Difficulty or PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Run Off Operations2, the FCA would expect an explanation of how any actions it plans to take to restore its capital resources are consistent with the firm's obligations under Principle 6 (Customers' interests).
Firms are also referred to SUP 15.6 (Inaccurate, false or misleading information). This requires, in SUP 15.6.4 R, a firm to notify the appropriate regulator1 if false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate information has been provided. This would apply in relation to information provided in an application for a waiver.1
1Section 59(1) is relevant where the firm directly employs the person concerned. Under the provision, a firm ('A') must take reasonable care to ensure that no person performs a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by A in relation to the carrying on by it of a regulated activity, unless the appropriate regulator (as defined in section 59(4) of the Act)
approves the performance by that person of the controlled function to which the approval relates.
1Section 59(2) is relevant where the person is employed by a contractor of the firm. It requires a firm ('A') to take reasonable care to ensure that no person performs a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by a contractor of A in relation to the carrying on by A of a regulated activity, unless the appropriate regulator (as defined in section 59(4) of the Act)
approves the performance by that person of the controlled function to which the approval
Once the appropriate regulator1 has given a waiver, it may vary it with the firm's consent, or on the firm's application. If a firm wishes the appropriate regulator1 to vary a waiver, it should follow the procedures in SUP 8.3.3 D, giving reasons for the application. In a case where a waiver has been given to a number of firms (see SUP 8.3.10 G), if the appropriate regulator1wishes to vary such waivers with the consent of those firms, it will follow the procedures in SUP 8.3.10
A firm must not appoint as appropriate actuary an actuary who has been disqualified by the FCA5 under section 345 of the Act (Disciplinary measures: FCA) or the PRA under section 345A of the Act (Disciplinary measures: PRA5) from acting as an actuary either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm.55
3For
the purpose of this Statement of Principle,
regulators in addition to the FCA and
the PRA are those which have
recognised jurisdiction in relation to regulated
activities and a power to call for information from the approved person in connection with their 1accountable function or (in the case of
an individual performing an accountable higher management function)1 in connection with the business for which they are1 responsible.
This may include an exchange or an oversea
1Failing
to report promptly in accordance with his firm's internal
procedures (or if none exist direct to the regulator concerned), information which it would be
reasonable to assume would be of material significance to the regulator concerned), whether in response to questions
or otherwise, falls within APER 4.4.3 G. The
regulator concerned is:(1) the FCA if
it would be reasonable to assume that it would be of material significance
to it;3(2) the PRA if
it would be reasonable
The following is a non-exhaustive list of examples of conduct that would be in breach of rule 1.(1) Misleading (or attempting to mislead) by act or omission:(a) a client; or(b) the firm for whom the person works (or its auditors); or(c) the FCA or;(d) the PRA.(2) Falsifying documents.(3) Misleading a client about:(a) the risks of an investment;(b) the charges or surrender penalties of products;(c) the likely performance of products by providing inappropriate projections of future
For the purpose of rule 3 in COCON 2.1.3R, regulators other than the FCA and the PRA are those which have recognised jurisdiction in relation to activities to which COCON applies and have a power to call for information from the firm or from individuals performing certain functions in connection with those regulated activities. This may include an exchange or an overseas regulator.
The following is a non-exhaustive list of examples of conduct that would be in breach of rule 3.(1) Failing to report promptly in accordance with their firm's internal procedures (or, if none exist, direct to the regulator concerned), information in response to questions from the FCA, the PRA, or both the PRA and the FCA.(2) Failing without good reason to: (a) inform a regulator of information of which the approved person was aware in response to questions from that regulator;
1The application of this sourcebook is summarised at a high level in the following table. The detailed application is cut back in SYSC 1 Annex 1 and in the text of each chapter.
Type of firm |
Applicable chapters |
Chapters 2, 3, 12 5 to 18, 19F.2,14 213, 2211, 23, 24, 25, 26, 2715, 2814 5 |
|
Chapters 2, 3, 11, 12, 18, 19F.2,14 213, 2211, 23, 24, 25, 26, 2715, 2814 |
|
Chapters 2, 3, 12, 18, 19F.2,14 213, 2211, 23, 24, 25, 26, 2715, 2814 |
|
Chapters 4 to 12, 18, 19D, 19F.2, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28 |
|
Every other firm |
Chapters 4 to 12, 18, 19D, 19F.2,14 216, 2211, 2814 6244636 |
Firms that SYSC 19D applies to should also refer to the Remuneration part of the PRA Rulebook13.
6The application of this sourcebook to specific14firms that are not PRA-authorised persons is summarised at a high level in the following table. The detailed application is cut back in SYSC 1 Annex 1 and in the text of each chapter.
Type of firm |
Applicable chapters |
Chapters11 4 to 10, 12, 18, 1219B, 19F.2,14 21, 2211, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27,17 2814 |
|
BIPRU firm (including a third-country BIPRU firm) |
Chapters 4 to 10, 12, 18, 19C, 19F.2,14 20,10 21, 2211, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27,17 2814 |
IFPRU investment firm (including an overseas firm that would have been an IFPRU investment firm if it had been a UK domestic firm) |
Chapters 4 to 10, 12, 18, 19A, 19F.2,14 20,10 21, 2211, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27,17 2814 |
21The provisions in SYSC should be read in conjunction with GEN 2.2.23 R to GEN 2.2.25 G. In particular:(1) [deleted]9(2) Provisions made by the FCA, and by the9PRA in the PRA Rulebook,9 may be applied by both regulators to PRA-authorised persons. Such provisions are applied by each regulator to the extent of its powers and regulatory responsibilities.95(3) 5For Solvency II firms, the FCA considers that the requirements and guidance14 in Chapters 2, 3, 12 to 18,11 19F.2,14 21,
6Paragraph 2B(1) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 7(1)(d) of the UCITS Directive, paragraphs 2B(1) to 2B(23) of Schedule 6 to the Act implement article 5(4) of MiFID, paragraph 2B(4) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 2(1)(10) of the IDD7 and paragraph 2B(7) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 8(1)(e) of AIFMD, although the Act extends the threshold condition set out in paragraph 2B of Schedule 6 of the Act to authorised persons that are not PRA-authorised
A firm must take reasonable care to ensure that every letter (or electronic equivalent) which it or its employees send to a retail client4, with a view to or in connection with the firm carrying on a regulated activity, includes the disclosure in GEN 4 Annex 1 R (firms that are not PRA-authorised persons) or GEN 4 Annex 1AR (PRA-authorised persons) as applicable15.14
Section 340 of the Act gives the PRA6 power to make rules requiring an authorised person, or an authorised person falling into a specified class, to appoint an actuary3. The PRA has exercised its power to make such rules in PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Actuaries; and PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Actuarial Requirements.5 The rule-making powers of the PRA and FCA6 under section 340 of the Act also extend to an actuary's3 duties.636666663336
The functions3 described by SUP 4.2.2 G (1) are performed by one or more actuaries who are3 required to hold office continuously and must be approved persons3. Solvency II firms are required to have an actuarial function. Solvency II firms are not required to appoint an external actuary to fulfil the actuarial function for the purposes of rule 6 of the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, but they must do so if they do not have the internal capability
3In making appointments under this chapter and in allocating duties to actuaries, firms are reminded of their obligation under SYSC 2.1.1 R or rule 2.2(2) of the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business4 to maintain a clear and appropriate apportionment of significant responsibilities so that it is clear who has which of those responsibilities and that the business and affairs of the firm can be adequately monitored and controlled by the directors, relevant
(1) Depending on the nature, scale and complexity of its business, it may be appropriate for a firm to have a separate risk assessment function responsible for assessing the risks that the firm faces and advising the governing body and senior managers on them.(2) The organisation and responsibilities of a risk assessment function should be documented. The function should be adequately resourced and staffed by an appropriate number of competent staff who are sufficiently independent
(1) SYSC 3.2.13 G includes assessing an individual's honesty, and competence. This assessment should normally be made at the point of recruitment. An individual's honesty need not normally be revisited unless something happens to make a fresh look appropriate.(2) Any assessment of an individual's suitability should take into account the level of responsibility that the individual will assume within the firm. The nature of this assessment will generally differ depending upon whether
9(1) Depending on the nature, scale and complexity of its business, it may be appropriate for a firm to delegate much of the task of monitoring the appropriateness and effectiveness of its systems and controls to an internal audit function. An internal audit function should have clear responsibilities and reporting lines to an audit committee or appropriate senior manager, be adequately resourced and staffed by competent individuals, be independent of the day-to-day activities
A firm, other than a Solvency II firm,15 should have in place appropriate arrangements, having regard to the nature, scale and complexity of its business, to ensure that it can continue to function and meet its regulatory obligations in the event of unforeseen interruption. These arrangements should be regularly updated and tested to ensure their effectiveness. Solvency II firms are subject to the business continuity requirements in PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions
For the purposes of SYSC 12.1.8 R, the question of whether the risk management processes and internal control mechanisms are adequate, sound and appropriate should be judged in the light of the nature, scale and complexity of the group's business and of the risks that the group bears. Risk14 management processes must include the stress testing and scenario analysis required by the PRA Rulebook14.12124
Where this section applies with respect to a financial conglomerate, the risk management processes referred to in SYSC 12.1.8R (2) or, for a Solvency II firm, the risk management system referred to in the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, rule 3,12 must include:(1) sound governance and management processes, which must include the approval and periodic review by the appropriate managing bodies within the financial conglomerate of the strategies and
Where this section applies with respect to a financial conglomerate, the internal control mechanisms referred to in SYSC 12.1.8R (2) or, for a Solvency II firm, the internal control system referred to in the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, rule 3,12 must include:(1) mechanisms that are adequate to identify and measure all material risks incurred by members of the financial conglomerate and appropriately relate capital in the financial conglomerate
(1) Section 55C of the Financial Services Act 2012 (Power to amend Schedule 6) gave HM Treasury the power to amend Schedule 6 of the Act. HM Treasury exercised this power by making The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Threshold Conditions) Order 2013 which entered into force on 1 April 2013 (the "TC Order"). The TC Order's main result is the creation of four sets of threshold conditions, namely:(i) conditions for firms authorised and regulated by the FCA only (paragraphs
(1) As a result of the new legal framework for threshold conditions described in COND 1.1A.1G (1), PRA-authorised persons and firms seeking to become PRA-authorised persons are subject to two sets of threshold conditions:(i) the FCA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(ii)and(ii) one of the two PRA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(iii) or (iv), depending on the PRA-regulated activities which the PRA-authorised person or firm carries on, or is
COND applies to incoming EEA firms and incoming Treaty firms as set out below:(1) for an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm which does not carry on any PRA-regulated activities, FCAthreshold conditions 2C to 2F apply; and(2) for an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm which carries on a PRA-regulated activity, FCAthreshold conditions 3B to 3E apply.FCAthreshold conditions apply to incoming EEA firms and incoming Treaty firms only in as far as relevant to the