Related provisions for REC 6.5.1

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EG 8.7.1RP
1The FCA adopts a similar approach to the exercise of its power of intervention under section 196 as it does to its own-initiative powers to vary Part 4A permission or impose requirements, but with suitable modification for the differences in the statutory grounds for exercising the powers. Consequently the factors and considerations set out in paragraphs 8.2.1 to 8.4.4 and 8.6.1 to 8.6.8 may also be relevant when the FCA is considering regulatory concerns about incoming firm
EG 8.7.2RP
1When it is considering action against an incoming firm, the FCA will co-operate with the firm'sHome State regulator as appropriate, including notifying and informing the firm'sHome State regulator as required by the relevant section of the Act.
EG 16.4.1RP
1When the FCA has made a disapplication order, the member against which it has been made may not perform the exempt regulated activities to which the order relates. If the member contravenes the order, there will be a breach of the general prohibition that may be prosecuted under section 23 of the Act (see chapter 12).
EG 16.4.2RP
1A disapplication order in relation to exempt regulated activities made against a member will be relevant should that member subsequently apply for authorisation under the Act. Whether or not such an application for authorisation is successful will depend on many factors, including the FCA's grounds for making the disapplication order. For example, if the order for disapplication of the exemption was made on the grounds of a breach of rules made under section 332(1) of the Act,
EG 14.2.3RP
1The following are examples of situations where the FCA may consider it appropriate to seek a court order under section 258 (in the case of an AUT) or section 261Y (in the case of an ACS) to remove the authorised fund manager or depositary: (1) Where there are grounds for concern over the behaviour of the authorised fund manager or depositary in respect of the management of the scheme or of its assets. (2) Where an authorised
EG 20.4.2RP
1As with cases under the Act, the FCA may settle or mediate appropriate cases involving civil contraventions of CCA Requirements to assist it to exercise its functions. DEPP 5, DEPP 6.7 and EG 5 set out information on the FCA's settlement process and the settlement discount scheme.
EG 14.4.3RP
1Decisions about whether to apply to the civil courts for collective investment scheme related orders under the Act will be made by the RDC Chairman or, in an urgent case and if the Chairman is not available, by an RDC Deputy Chairman. In an exceptionally urgent case the matter will be decided by the director of Enforcement or, in his or her absence, another member of the FCA's executive of at least director of division level.
EG 3.7.1RP
1The FCA's power to conduct investigations to assist overseas authorities is contained in section 169 of the Act. The section provides that at the request of an overseas regulator, the FCA may use its power under section 165 to require the production of documents or the provision of information under section 165 or to appoint a person to investigate any matter.
EG 3.8.3RP
1The FCA's power to conduct investigations to assist EEA regulators in respect of the short selling regulation is contained in section 131FA of the Act. The section provides that at the request of an EEA regulator or ESMA, the FCA may either use its power under section 131E to require the production of information, or appoint a person to investigate any matter.
PERG 7.7.4GRP
The fact of a person holding a certificate granted under article 54(3) is information which may be of relevance to other persons (including investors or potential investors). For this reason, the FCA considers it appropriate that details of certificates granted under article 54(3) should be included in a list on the public record which the FCA is required to maintain under section 347 of the Act (The record of authorised persons, etc).
PERG 8.37.2GRP
Regulations 49 and 50 place restrictions on an AIFMmarketing an AIF. These regulations provide that the following types of AIFM may not market the following types of an AIF in the UK unless the conditions summarised below are met.(1) The conditions that need to be met vary depending on whether the AIF falls within regulation 57(1) or not. An AIF falls within this regulation if it is: (a) a feeder AIF that is a UK AIF or an EEA AIF, the master AIF of which is managed by a non-EEA
PERG 8.37.5GRP
(1) The terms 'offering' or 'placement' are not defined in the AIFMD UK regulation but, in our view, an offering or placement takes place for the purposes of the AIFMD UK regulation when a person seeks to raise capital by making a unit of share of anAIF available for purchase by a potential investor. This includes situations which constitute a contractual offer that can be accepted by a potential investor in order to make the investment and form a binding contract, and situations
PERG 8.37.14GRP
(1) Regulation 46 (Application of the financial promotion and scheme promotion restrictions) provides that where a person may market an AIF under regulation 49, 50 or 51:(a) to the extent that such marketing falls within section 21(1) (restrictions on financial promotion) or 238(1) (restrictions on promotion) of the Act, the person may market the AIF to a retail client only if the person does so without breaching the restriction in that section; and(b) to the extent that any activity
PR 1.1.6GRP
The FCA considers that the 4following documents together 4determine the effect of the Prospectus Directive6: 4(1) Part 6 of the Act;(2) the PD Regulation;(3) these rules; 4(4) the ESMA Prospectus Recommendations434(5) the ESMA Prospectus Questions and Answers;4(6) the ESMA Prospectus Opinions6; and4(7) the Prospectus RTS Regulations5. 4
PR 1.1.8GRP
In determining whether Part 6 of the Act, these rules ,4the PD Regulation and the Prospectus RTS Regulations5have2 been complied with, the FCA will consider whether a person has acted in accordance with the4ESMA Prospectus Recommendations, the ESMA Prospectus Questions and Answers and the ESMA Prospectus Opinions6. 4424244
REC 6.3.1GRP
Before making a recognition order, the FCA3 will need to be satisfied that the recognition requirements in section 292(3) of the Act (Overseas investment exchanges) have been met. These requirements are the only recognition requirements applicable to ROIEs3. 333
REC 6.3.2UKRP

Sections 292(3) and 292(4) state:

2Section 292(3)

The requirements are that-

(a)

investors are afforded protection equivalent to that which they would be afforded if the body concerned were required to comply with -4

3

4(i) recognition requirements, other than any such requirements which are expressed in regulations under section 286 not to apply for the purposes of this paragraph; and

4(ii) requirements contained in any directly applicable Community regulation made under the markets in financial instruments directive or markets in financial instruments regulation;

(b)

there are adequate procedures for dealing with a person who is unable, or likely to become unable, to meet his obligations in respect of one or more market contracts connected with the [ROIE]

3

(c)

the applicant is able and willing to co-operate with the[FCA]3by the sharing of information and in other ways; and

3

(d)

adequate arrangements exist for co-operation between the[FCA]3and those responsible for the supervision of the applicant in the country or territory in which the applicant's head office is situated.

3

Section 292(4)

In considering whether it is satisfied as to the requirements mentioned in subsections (3)(a) and (b), the[FCA]3is to have regard to-

3

(a)

the relevant law and practice of the country or territory in which the applicant's head office is situated;

(b)

the rules and practices of the applicant.

PR 2.5.2UKRP

Section 87B(1) of the Act sets out when the FCA may authorise the omission of information from a prospectus:

(1)

The [FCA] may authorise the omission from a prospectus of any information, the inclusion of which would otherwise be required, on the ground –

(a)

that its disclosure would be contrary to the public interest;

(b)

that its disclosure would be seriously detrimental to the issuer, provided that the omission would be unlikely to mislead the public with regard to any facts or circumstances which are essential for an informed assessment of the kind mentioned in section 87A(2); or

(c)

that the information is only of minor importance for a specific offer to the public or admission to trading on a regulated market and unlikely to influence an informed assessment of the kind mentioned in section 87A(2).

PR 2.5.3GRP
2Article 2(2) of Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/301 sets out requirements regarding the submission of requests to omit information from a prospectus. The FCA considers that a reasoned request for this purpose would: (1) be in writing from the applicant;(2) identify the specific information concerned and the specific reasons for its omission; and(3) state why in the applicant's opinion one or more of the grounds in section 87B(1) of the Act applies.2[Note: Extracts
PERG 9.1.3GRP
This guidance is issued under section 139A of the Act (Guidance). It is designed to throw light on particular aspects of regulatory requirements, not to be an exhaustive description of a person's obligations. If a person acts in line with the guidance in the circumstances it contemplates, the FCA will proceed on the footing that the person has complied with aspects of the requirement to which the guidance relates. Rights conferred on third parties cannot be affected by guidance
PERG 5.1.7GRP
This guidance is issued under section 139A of the Act (Guidance). It is designed to throw light on particular aspects of regulatory requirements, not to be an exhaustive description of a person's obligations. If a person acts in line with the guidance and the circumstances contemplated by it, then the FCA will proceed on the footing that the person has complied with aspects of the requirement to which the guidance relates.
PERG 5.1.8GRP
Rights conferred on third parties cannot be affected by guidance given by the FCA. This guidance represents the FCA's view, and does not bind the courts, for example, in relation to the enforceability of a contract where there has been a breach of the general prohibition on carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom without authorisation (see sections 26 to 29 of the Act (Enforceability of Agreements)).
COLL 12.4.1RRP
(1) This section applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager of an AUT, ACS1 or ICVC;(b) any other director of an ICVC; and(c) an ICVC;which is a UCITS scheme whose units may be marketed in another EEA State (the Host State).(2) The marketing of units of a UCITS scheme in the Host State may not commence until the FCA has, in accordance with paragraph 20B(5) (Notice of intention to market) of Schedule 3 to the Act, notified the authorised fund manager, in response to the application
COLL 12.4.4RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme whose units are being marketed in the Host State must ensure that:(a) its instrument constituting the fund,2 its prospectus and, where appropriate, its latest annual report and any subsequent half-yearly report; and2(b) its key investor information document;together with their translations (wherever necessary), are kept up to date.(2) The authorised fund manager must notify any amendments to the documents referred to in (1) to
COLL 12.4.8RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme whose units are being marketed in a Host State must ensure that an electronic copy of each document referred to in COLL 12.4.4 R (1) is made available on: (a) the website of the UCITS scheme or the authorised fund manager; or(b) another website designated by the authorised fund manager in the notification letter submitted to the FCA under paragraph 20B of Schedule 3 to the Act or any updates to it. (2) Any document that is made
EG 7.1.1RP
3Financial penalties, suspensions, restrictions, conditions, limitations, disciplinary prohibitions,2 and public censures are important regulatory tools. However, they are not the only tools available to the FCA, and there will be many instances of non-compliance which the FCA considers it appropriate to address without the use of formal disciplinary sanctions. Still1, the effective and proportionate use of the FCA's powers to enforce the requirements of the Act, the rules, COCON1
EG 7.1.2RP
3The FCA has the following powers to impose sanctions2.(1) It may publish a statement: (a) against an approved person or conduct rules staff1 under section 66 of the Act; (b) against an issuer under section 87M of the Act; (c) against a sponsor under section 88A of the Act; (ca) against a primary information provider under section 89Q of the Act; (d) where there has been a contravention
EG 7.1.3RP
3Section 415B of the Act requires the FCA to consult with the PRA before it takes certain enforcement action in relation to a PRA-authorised person or someone who has a qualifying relationship (as defined in section 415B(4) of the Act) with a PRA-authorised person. Further detail on when the FCA is required to consult the PRA, and when it has agreed to notify the PRA of certain matters, is set out in the Memorandum of Understanding between the PRA and the FCA.
SUP 12.5.3GRP
(Subject to SUP 12.5.3AG) a 13firm should satisfy itself that the terms of the contract with its appointed representative (including an introducer appointed representative):13(1) are designed to enable the firm to comply properly with any limitations or requirements on its own permission;(2) require the appointed representative to cooperate with the FCA as described in SUP 2.3.4 G (Information gathering by the FCA on its own initiative: cooperation by firms) and give access to
SUP 12.5.9GRP
8Under section 39A(6)(a) of the Act a UK MiFID investment firm must ensure that the contract it uses to appoint an FCA registered tied agent complies with the requirements that would apply under the Appointed Representatives Regulations17 if it were appointing an appointed representative.
COLL 6.5.10RRP
(1) The depositary of an authorised fund may not retire voluntarily except upon the appointment of a new depositary.(2) The depositary of an authorised fund must not retire voluntarily unless, before its retirement, it has ensured that the new depositary has been informed of any circumstance of which the retiring depositary has informed the FCA.(3) When the depositary of an authorised fund wishes to retire or ceases to be an authorised person, the authorised fundmanager may, subject