Related provisions for DTR 6.2.9

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IFPRU 11.7.4RRP
A firm or qualifying parent undertaking must notify the FCA by sending an e-mail to its usual supervisory contact.
PERG 5.11.9GRP
Article 67 excludes from the activities of dealing as agent, arranging (bringing about) deals in investments, making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments, assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance and advising on investments, any activity which:(1) is carried on in the course of carrying on any profession or business which does not otherwise consist of the carrying on of regulated activities in the United Kingdom; and(2) may
SUP 16.13.2GRP
The purpose of this section is to: 3(1) give directions to authorised payment institutions, small payment institutions and registered account information service providers under regulation 109(1) (Reporting requirements) of the Payment Services Regulations in relation to:31212(a) the information in respect of their provision of payment services and their compliance with requirements imposed by or under Parts 2 to 7 of the Payment Services Regulations that they must provide to
APER 3.1.9GRP
UK domestic firms with a premium listing of equity shares6 are subject to the UK Corporate Governance Code4, whose internal control provisions are amplified in the publication entitled ‘Guidance on Risk Management, Internal Control and Related Financial and Business Reporting (September 2014)’6 issued by the Financial Reporting Council4. Firms regulated by the FCA5 in this category will 6be subject to that code as well as to the requirements and standards of the regulatory system.
SUP 17A.2.1RRP
1The following firms or operators of trading venues must deal with the FCA in an open and co-operative way when establishing a technology connection with the FCA for the submission of transaction reports and/or the supply of reference data:(1) a firm in SUP 17A.1.1R(1) or 17A.1.1R(3) that chooses to submit its reports directly to the FCA instead of using an ARM;(2) an operator of a trading venue in SUP 17A.1.1R(2), other than a UK RIE that is not itself an ARM; and(3) a firm or
SUP 1A.3.1GRP
The FCA will adopt a pre-emptive approach which will be based on making forward-looking judgments about firms' business models, product strategy and how they run their businesses, to enable the FCA to identify and intervene earlier to prevent problems crystallising. The FCA's approach to supervising firms will contribute to its delivery against its objective to protect and enhance the integrity of the UK financial system (as set out in the Act). Where the FCA has responsibilities
EG 12.1.2RP
1The FCA's general policy is to pursue through the criminal justice system all those cases where criminal prosecution is appropriate. When it decides whether to bring criminal proceedings in England, Wales or Northern Ireland, or to refer the matter to another prosecuting authority in England, Wales or Northern Ireland (see paragraph 12.4.1), it will apply the basic principles set out in the Code for Crown Prosecutors.14 When considering whether to prosecute a breach of the Money
EG 9.3.5RP
2The following are examples of types of behaviour which have previously resulted in the3FCA the deciding to issue a prohibition order or withdraw the approval of an approved person:(1) Providing false or misleading information to the FCA; including information relating to identity, ability to work in the United Kingdom, and business arrangements; (2) Failure to disclose material considerations on application forms, such as details of County
SUP 10C.9.9GRP

Table: Examples of how the need for dual FCA and PRA approval in relation to PRA-authorised persons is reduced

1Example

Whether FCA approval required

Whether PRA approval required

Comments

(1) A is appointed as chief risk officer and an executive director.

No. A4 is not treated as performing the executive director function.4

Yes

Chief risk officer is a PRA-designated senior management function. A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA-designated senior management function. To avoid the need for FCA approval, A’s appointment as director should not take effect before PRA approval for the chief risk officer role.

(2) Same as example (1), except that A will take up the role as an executive director slightly later because 4approval is needed from the firm's shareholders or governing body.

No

Yes

The answer for (1) applies. The arrangements in this section apply if the application to the PRA says that A will start to perform the potential FCA governing function around the time of the PRA approval as well as at that time.

(3) Same as example (1) but the application to the PRA does not mention that it is also intended that A is to be an executive director.

Yes, to perform the executive director function.4

Yes

SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply if the application for PRA approval does not say that A will also be performing what would otherwise be an FCA governing function.

(4) A is to be appointed as chief executive and an executive director.

No. A is not treated as performing the executive director function.4

Yes

Being a chief executive is a PRA-designated senior management function. A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA controlled function.

(5) A is appointed as chief risk officer. Later, A is appointed as an executive director while carrying on as chief risk officer.

Yes, when A takes up the director role. The executive director function4 applies.

Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.

SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply because, when the firm applied for approval for A to perform the PRA chief risk officer designated senior management function, there was no plan for A also to perform the executive director function4.

(6) A is appointed as an executive director. Later, A takes on the chief risk officer function and remains as an executive director.

Yes, when A is appointed as director. The executive director function4 applies.

Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.

When A is appointed as chief risk officer, A is still treated as carrying on the executive director function4. A retains the status of an FCA-approved person.

(7) A is appointed as chief risk officer. A then stops performing that role and for a while does not perform any controlled function for that firm. Later, A is appointed as an executive director with the same firm.

Yes, when A is appointed as an executive director. The executive director function4 applies.

Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.

SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply because there is no current PRA approval when A is being appointed as a director.

(8) A is appointed as an executive director and chief risk officer at the same time. Later, A gives up the role as chief risk officer but remains as an executive director.

No, on A’s first appointment (see example (1)). But when A gives up the role as chief risk officer, FCA approval is needed to perform the executive director function4.

Form E should be used. The application should state that it is being made as a result of A ceasing to perform a PRA-designated senior management function.

Form A should be used if there have been changes in A’s fitness (SUP 10C.10.9D(4))

Yes, on A’s first appointment.

When A stops being a chief risk officer, A stops performing a PRA-designated senior management function. However, being an executive director requires FCA approval. A does not have that approval because A did not need it when A was first appointed.

The combined effect of SUP 10C.9.8R and the relevant PRA rules is that the firm has three months to secure approval by the FCA. During that interim period, A keeps the status of a PRA approved person performing the director element of the PRA chief risk designated senior management function - which is included in that function under relevant PRA rules. The relevant PRA rules say that, during this transitional period, A is still treated as performing the PRA chief risk designated senior management function and SUP 10C.9.8R says that, for as long as A is performing a PRA-designated senior management function, A does not perform the executive director function4.

(9) A is appointed as the chief finance officer and an executive director at the same time. Later, A switches to being chief risk officer while remaining as an executive director.

No

Yes

The arrangements in SUP 10C.9.8R continue to apply, even though A switches between PRA-designated senior management functions4 after the PRA's first approval.

(10) A is appointed chief risk officer and an executive director. A goes on temporary sick leave. A takes up their old job when A4 comes back.

No, neither on A’s first appointment nor when A comes back from sick leave.

Yes

SUP 10C.9.8R still applies on A’s return because A does not stop performing either the PRA's chief risk function or what would otherwise have been the executive director function4 just because A goes on temporary sick leave.

(11) A is appointed to be chair4 of the governing body and chair4 of the nomination committee at the same time.

No. A does not need approval to perform the chair of the nomination committee function.

Yes, on first appointment.

Being chair4 of the governing body is a PRA-designated senior management function. Therefore, the answer for example (1) applies.

2(12) ‘A’ is to be appointed to perform the Head of Overseas Branch PRA-designated senior management function (SMF19) for a an overseas SMCR firm that is not an EEA SMCR firm.4 A is also an executive director of that firm’sUKbranch.

No. A is not treated as performing the executive director function4.

3

Yes

A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA controlled function.

Note 1: The relevant PRA rules can be found in the parts of the PRA Rulebook listed in SUP 10C.9.6G.4

Note 2: Where one of the examples in this table includes someone being chief risk or finance officer or chair of the governing body, the example assumes that the firm is of a type for which that function is a PRA-designated senior management function.4

MAR 10.5.7GRP
1 The powers of the FCA referred to in MAR 10.5.1G to MAR 10.5.3G can be applied to a person regardless of whether the person is situated or operating in the UK or abroad, where the relevant position relates to a commodity derivative or emission allowance of which the FCA is the competent authority or central competent authority, or economically equivalent OTC contracts.
COND 2.4.4GRP
(1) [deleted]88(2) Relevant matters to which the FCA may have regard when assessing whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, this threshold condition8may include but are not limited to:(a) (in relation to a firm other than a firm carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity),8 whether there are any indications that the firm may have difficulties if the application is granted, at the time of the grant or in the future, in complying with any of the
GENPRU 3.1.3AGRP
6If a mixed financial holding company is subject to equivalent provisions under this Chapter and under EEA prudential sectoral legislation in relation to the insurance sector as implemented in the United Kingdom and the FCA is the coordinator, the FCA may, on application by the firm and after consulting other relevant competent authorities, disapply such provisions of the EEA prudential sectoral legislation as implemented in the United Kingdom with regard to that undertaking which
FEES 4.2.11RRP

Table of periodic fees payable to the FCA65

65

1 Fee payer

2 Fee payable

3 Due date

4 Events occurring during the period leading to modified periodic fee

Any firm (except an AIFM qualifier,25ICVC or a UCITS qualifier)

(1) Unless (2) applies, as37 specified in FEES 4.3.1 R in relation to FEES 4 Annex 2AR and FEES 4 Annex 11 R65.37

(2) Where a firm is paying a ring-fencing implementation fee, as specified in FEES 4 Annex 2BR.37

(1) Unless (2) or (3) apply7, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.12

(2) Unless (3) applies, if 7an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year,64 30 days after the occurrence of that event, or if later the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.7

(3) Where the permission is for operating a multilateral trading facility or operating an organised trading facility41, the date specified in FEES 4 Annex 10FEES 4 Annex 10R41 (Periodic fees for MTF and OTF41 operators).

7764

Firm receives permission, or becomes authorised or registered under the Payment Services Regulations, article 8 of the MCD Order32, the DRS Regulations41 or the Electronic Money Regulations12;9 or firm9extends permission or its payment service activities916

679

Persons who hold a certificate issued by the FCA64 under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order (Advice given in newspapers etc.)

64

£1,15151

46314031

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice23

(2) If an event in column 4

occurs

during the course of a fee year,64 30 days after the occurrence of that event.51

2364

Certificate issued to person by the51FCA64 under article 4054 of the Regulated Activities Order46

64

Any manager of an AUT23;

23

In relation to each unit trust the amount specified in part 1 of 25FEES 4 Annex 4

Authorisation order is made in relation to the relevant scheme24

24Any authorised fund manager of an authorised contractual scheme;

In relation to each authorised contractual scheme the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4

Any ACD of an ICVC; and

In relation to each ICVC,25 the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4

Persons who, under the constitution or founding arrangements of a recognised scheme, are 33responsible for the management of the property held for or within the scheme;

In relation to each recognised scheme the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4

The relevant scheme becomes a recognised scheme25

Not applicable

AIFM of a UK ELTIF33

In relation to each ELTIF the amount specified in part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 433

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33

(2) If an event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event.33

The ELTIF is authorised by the FCA under the ELTIF regulation33

Designated professional body

FEES 4 Annex 5

On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23

23

Not applicable

UK recognised body

FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1 for a UK RIE ; and

FEES 4 Annex 6 R, part 1A for a UK RIE that is also an RAP13

65

(1) On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23

(2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event

2364

Recognition order is made.

The modified1166 periodic fee is specified in FEES 4 Annex 6 R, Part 1and (in the case of an RAP) Part 1A.131166

1166116611661166

ROIE65

65

FEES 4 Annex 6, part 2

(1) On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23

(2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event.

2364

Recognition order is made.

The modified1166 periodic fee is specified in FEES 4 Annex 6, Part 2.1166

1166116611661166

A listed issuer35 (in LR) of shares and certificates representing certain securities35.

33

FEES 4 Annex 14R35

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Listedissuer3 (in LR) becomes subject to listing rules

3

A sponsor35

FEES 4 Annex 14R35

3110122323311210231

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

35Approval of a35sponsor35

141414

All non-listed issuers (in DTR) of shares and certificates representing certain securities35.

66

FEES 4 Annex 14R35

29

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Non-listed issuer (in DTR) becomes subject to disclosure requirements36 and transparency rules629

29Any primary information provider

FEES 4 Annex 14R35

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

A person is approved as a primary information provider

6All firms reporting transactions in securities derivatives10to the FCA64 in accordance with SUP 17, and market operators who provide facilities for trading in securities derivatives.10

6410

FEES 4 Annex 9 R

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Not applicable

15Any issuer of a regulated covered bond.

FEES 4 Annex 11R

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R

(2) If an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event or, if later, the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R

64

A person becomes registered as an issuer of a regulated covered bond

26(i) An AIFM (other than a UK AIFM or an EEA AIFM with a branch in the UK) which has notified the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 57 of the AIFMD UK regulation and which has not ceased to market that AIF in the UK as at 1 April of the current fee year.

(ii) An AIFM which has notified the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation and which has not ceased to market that AIF in the UK as at 1 April of the current fee year.

For each notification made by the AIFM of the kind specified in part 2 of FEES 4 Annex 4, the amount specified in part 2 of FEES 4 Annex 4

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August, or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice

(2) If an event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event

The FCA receives a notification to market in the UK

26A small registered UK AIFM

The basic fee contained in part 3 of FEES 4 Annex 4

The AIFM is registered by the FCA under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation.

30

[deleted]41

45A third country legal representative

The tariff specified in FEES 4 Annex 15R

Payable in accordance with FEES 4.3.6R

Not applicable

45A benchmark endorser

The tariff specified in FEES 4 Annex 15R

Payable in accordance with FEES 4.3.6R

Not applicable

Note:Sponsors on the list of approved sponsors as at 1 April each year will be liable for the full year's annual fee unless FEES 4.3.13 R applies.2

SUP 13A.1.2GRP
This chapter does not apply to:(1) an EEA firm that wishes to carry on in the United Kingdom activities which are outside the scope of its EEA right and the scope of a permission granted under Schedule 4 to the Act; in this case the EEA firm requires a "top-up permission" under Part 4A16 of the Act (see the appropriate UK regulator's website www.fca.org.uk/firms/authorisation/apply-authorisation for the FCA and www.bankofengland.co.uk/pra/Pages/authorisations/newfirm/default.aspx