Related provisions for TC 2.1.2
81 - 100 of 202 items.
A depositary appointed under COLL 6.6A.8R(3) must: (1) ensure that it has the infrastructure necessary to keep in custody UCITS custodial assets that can be registered in a financial instruments account opened in the depositary’s books; (2) establish adequate policies and procedures sufficient to ensure the compliance of the depositary, including its managers and employees, with its obligations under the regulatory system; (3) have: (a) sound administrative and accounting procedures
A firm must take all reasonable steps to record telephone conversations, and keep a copy of electronic communications, that relate to the activities in financial instruments referred to in SYSC 10A.1.1R(2) (and that are not excluded by SYSC 10A.1.4R), and that are made with, sent from, or received on, equipment:(1) provided by the firm to an employee or contractor; or(2) the use of which by an employee or contractor has been accepted or permitted by the firm.[Note: article 16(7)
10For a common platform firm:
- (1)
the MiFID Org Regulation applies, as summarised in SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2G, SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2-AR and SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2-BR; and
- (2)
the rules and guidance apply as set out in the table below:
Subject
Applicable rule or guidance
Competent employees rule, knowledge and competence and segregation11 of functions
SYSC 5.1.2G to SYSC 5.1.5AG, SYSC 5.1.5AAR, SYSC 5.1.5ABR, SYSC 5.1.5ACG to SYSC 5.1.5AEG,11SYSC 5.1.7R, SYSC 5.1.8G to SYSC 5.1.11G
Certification regime
2If a firm requires employees who are not subject to a qualification7 requirement in TC to pass a relevant examination from the list of appropriate qualifications11 maintained by the FCA, or for the purposes of meeting its obligations under SYSC 5.1.5ABR11, the FCA10 will take that into account when assessing whether the firm has ensured that the employee satisfies the knowledge component of the competent employees rule.7777
A firm must take all appropriate9 steps to identify and to prevent or manage9 conflicts of interest between:3(1) the firm, including its managers, employees and appointed representatives (or where applicable, 2tied agents)2, or any person directly or indirectly linked to them by control, and a client of the firm; or2(2) one client of the firm and another client;that arise or may arise in the course of the firm providing any service referred to in SYSC 10.1.1R including those
6An AIFM must take all reasonable steps to identify conflicts of interest that arise, in the course of managing AIFs, between:(1) the AIFM, including its managers, employees or any person directly or indirectly linked to the AIFM by control, and an AIF managed by the AIFM or the investors in that AIF; or(2) an AIF or the investors in that AIF, and another AIF or the investors in that AIF; or(3) an AIF or the investors in that AIF, and another client of the AIFM; or(4) an AIF or
(1) A firm must notify the FCA11 of:3535(a) a significant breach of a rule (which includes a Principle, a Statement of Principle or a COCONrule)20; or2020(aa) a significant breach of any requirement imposed by the CCA or by regulations or an order made under the CCA (except if the breach is an offence, in which case (c) applies), but any notification under (aa) is required to be made only to the FCA; or 14(b) a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations
A firm must notify the FCA11 immediately if one of the following events arises and the event is significant:3535(1) it becomes aware that an employee may have committed a fraud against one of its customers; or(2) it becomes aware that a person, whether or not employed by it, may have committed a fraud against it; or(3) it considers that any person, whether or not employed by it, is acting with intent to commit a fraud against it; or(4) it identifies irregularities in its accounting
8The analysis must be set out in writing and dated before the date of issue of the capital instrument and the firm must be able to show that the analysis has been fully considered as part of its decision to proceed with the issue. The analysis must be conducted by a person or persons appropriately qualified to assess the relevant risks and that person may be an independent adviser or an employee of the firm who is not part of the business unit responsible for the transaction
The FCA4 is entitled to rely on any information it receives from a firm and to consider any notification received as being made by a person authorised by the firm to do so. A firm should therefore consider whether it needs to put procedures in place to ensure that only appropriate employees make notifications to the FCA4 on its behalf.7777
The word ‘communicate’ is extended under section 21(13) of the Act and includes causing a communication to be made. This means that a person who causes the communication of a financial promotion by another person is also subject to the restriction in section 21. Article 6(d) of the Financial Promotion Order also states that the word ‘communicate’ has the same meaning when used in exemptions in the Order. Article 6(a) also states that the word ‘communication’ has the same meaning
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 7B
2(1) |
The [UK RIE] must make transparent and non-discriminatory rules, based on objective criteria, governing access to, or membership of, its facilities. |
||
(2) |
In particular those rules must specify the obligations for users or members of its facilities arising from - |
||
(a) |
the constitution and administration of the [UK RIE]; |
||
(b) |
rules relating to transactions on its trading venues4; |
||
(c) |
its professional standards for staff of any investment firm or credit institution having access to or membership of a financial market operated by the [UK RIE]; |
||
(d) |
conditions established under sub-paragraph (3)(c) for access to or membership of a trading venue4 operated by the [UK RIE] by persons other than investment firms or credit institutions; and |
||
(e) |
the rules and procedures for clearing and settlement of transactions concluded on a trading venue4 operated by the [UK RIE]. |
||
(3) |
|||
[Note: see paragraph 9ZC below, replacing paragraph 7B(3)]4 |
|||
(4) |
Rules under this paragraph must enable - |
||
(a) |
an investment firm authorised under Article 5 of [MiFID], or |
||
(b) |
a credit institution authorised under the [CRD]4, |
||
by the competent authority of another EEA State (including a branch established in the United Kingdom of such a firm or institution) to have direct or remote access to or membership of, any trading venue4 operated by the [UK RIE] on the same terms as a UK firm. |
|||
(5) |
The [UK RIE] must make arrangements regularly to provide the [FCA]3 with a list of users or members of its facilities. 3 |
||
(6) |
This paragraph is without prejudice to the generality of paragraph 4. |
||
66(1) The rules and guidance relating to training and competence in SYSC 3 and SYSC 5 and in TC for a firm carrying on retail business extend to any employee of the firm in respect of whom the relevant rules apply.15(2) The specific knowledge and ability requirements in SYSC 28.2 and TC 4.2 for a firm with Part 4A permission to carry on insurance distribution activities apply to a relevant employee (as defined in SYSC 28.1.2R and TC 4.2.3R) of the firm.15(3) For the purposes of
The Ombudsman may dismiss a complaint413referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service before 9 July 2015 413without considering its merits if 413the Ombudsman413considers that:5(1) the complainant has not suffered (or is unlikely to suffer) financial loss, material distress or material inconvenience; or(2) the complaint is frivolous or vexatious; or(3) the complaint clearly does not have any reasonable prospect of success; or(4) the respondent has already made an offer of compensation
In determining whether a UK recognised body's arrangements for the investigation of complaints include appropriate arrangements for the complaint to be fairly and impartially investigated by an independent person (a "complaints investigator"), the FCA3 may have regard to:3(1) the arrangements made for appointing (and removing) a complaints investigator, including the terms and conditions of such an appointment and the provision for remuneration of a complaints investigator; (2)
1For the purposes of LR 15.2.11 R and LR 15.2.12-A R, the following are not independent:33(1) directors, employees, partners, officers or professional advisers of or to:(a) an investment manager of the applicant; or(b) a master fund or investment manager referred to in LR 15.2.11R (2); or(c) any other company in the same group as the investment manager of the applicant; or(2) directors, employees or professional advisers of or to other investment companies or funds that are:(a)
None of the following is to be liable in damages for anything done or omitted to be done in the discharge (or purported discharge) of any functions in connection with the Voluntary Jurisdiction:318(1) FOS Ltd;(2) any member of its governing body;(3) any member of its staff;(4) any person acting as an Ombudsman for the purposes of the Financial Ombudsman Service;except where:(5) the act or omission is shown to have been in bad faith; or(6) it would prevent an award of damages being
1For the purposes of LR 6.14.1R and LR 6.14.2R, shares are not held in public hands if they are:(1) held, directly or indirectly by:(a) a director of the applicant or of any of its subsidiary undertakings; or(b) a person connected with a director of the applicant or of any of its subsidiary undertakings; or(c) the trustees of any employees’ share scheme or pension fund established for the benefit of any directors and employees of the applicant and its subsidiary undertakings;
LR 9.3.11 R does not apply to:8(1) a listed company incorporated in the United Kingdom if a 8disapplication of statutory pre-emption rights has been authorised by shareholders in accordance with section 57053(Disapplication of pre-emption rights: directors acting under general authorisation) or section 571 (Disapplication of pre-emption rights by special resolution) of the Companies Act 2006 and the issue of equity securities78 or sale of treasury shares that are equity shares
(1) Independence is likely to be lost if, by means of executive power, either relevant party could control the action of the other.(2) The board of one relevant party should not be able to exercise effective control of the board of another relevant party. Arrangements which might indicate this situation include quorum provisions and reservations of decision-making capacity of certain directors.(3) For an AUT or ACS6, the FCA would interpret the concept of directors in common to
10When determining the adequacy of its internal controls, a firm should consider both the potential risks that might hinder the achievement of the objectives listed in SYSC 14.1.28 G, and the extent to which it needs to control these risks. More specifically, this should normally include consideration of:(1) the appropriateness of its reporting and communication lines (see SYSC 3.2.2 G);(2) how the delegation or contracting of functions or activities to employees, appointed representatives