Related provisions for MCOB 9.4.52

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CASS 11.11.5GRP
CASS debt management firms are reminded that they must, under SYSC 6.1.1 R, establish, implement and maintain adequate policies and procedures sufficient to ensure compliance of the firm with the rules in this chapter.
CASS 11.11.6GRP
So that a CASS debt management firm may check that it has sufficient money segregated in its client bank accounts to meet its obligations to clients for whom it is undertaking debt management activity, it is required periodically to carry out reconciliations of its internal records and accounts to check that the total amount of client money that it should have segregated in client bank accounts is equal to the total amount of client money it actually has segregated in client bank
CASS 11.11.7GRP
For a CASS small debt management firm to demonstrate it has maintained its records and accounts in a way envisaged by CASS 11.11.3 R, it should carry out checks of its internal records and accounts that are reasonable and proportionate to its business. CASS 11.11.8 R provides a rule that a CASS small debt management firm is obliged to follow to meet this obligation.
BIPRU 7.9.18GRP
If the CAD 1 model ceases to meet the requirements of the waiver, the firm should notify the appropriate regulator at once. The appropriate regulator may then revoke the waiver unless it is varied in accordance with section 138A of the Act. If the CAD 1 model waiver contains conditions it is a condition of using the CAD 1 model approach that the firm should continue to comply with those conditions.
BIPRU 7.9.19GRP
A firm with a complex portfolio is expected to demonstrate more sophistication in its modelling and risk management than a firm with a simple portfolio.
BIPRU 7.9.20GRP
A firm should be able to demonstrate that the risk management standards set out in BIPRU 7.9 are satisfied by each legal entity with respect to which the CAD 1 model approach is being used (even though they are expressed to refer only to a firm). This is particularly important for subsidiary undertakings in groups subject to matrix management where the business lines cut across legal entity boundaries.
BIPRU 7.9.26GRP
The appropriate regulator does not specify the methodology that a firm should employ in order to produce the appropriate outputs from its options risk aggregation CAD 1 model. However, BIPRU 7.9.27G - BIPRU 7.9.43G provide details of how a firm could meet the requirement to capture gamma, vega and rho risks using a scenario matrix approach. Where a firm adopts the scenario matrix approach then the standards set out in BIPRU 7.9.27G - BIPRU 7.9.43G should be followed. The firm
CASS 7.19.3RRP
A firm wishing to establish a sub-pool must establish and maintain adequate internal controls necessary to comply with the firm's obligations under CASS 7 for the general pool and each sub-pool that it may establish.
CASS 7.19.13RRP
(1) A firm must not hold client money for a sub-pool in a client bank account or a client transaction account used for holding client money for any other sub-pool or the general pool.(2) A firm that establishes a sub-pool must ensure that the name of each client bank account and each client transaction account (other than the net margined omnibus client account) maintained for that sub-pool includes a unique identifying reference or descriptor that enables the account to be identified
CASS 7.19.24RRP
A firm must inform the FCA in writing, without delay, if it has not complied, or is unable to comply with the requirements in CASS 7.19.11 R or the requirements in CASS 7.19.18 R.
COLL 6.6B.10GRP
If the depositary appointed in accordance with COLL 6.6A.8R(3) is an incoming EEA firm that has a top-up permission for acting as trustee or depositary of a UCITS, it must comply with the applicable capital requirements set out in IPRU(INV) 5.
COLL 6.6B.11RRP
A depositary appointed under COLL 6.6A.8R(3) must: (1) ensure that it has the infrastructure necessary to keep in custody UCITS custodial assets that can be registered in a financial instruments account opened in the depositary’s books; (2) establish adequate policies and procedures sufficient to ensure the compliance of the depositary, including its managers and employees, with its obligations under the regulatory system; (3) have: (a) sound administrative and accounting procedures
COLL 6.6B.25RRP
A depositary may delegate the functions in COLL 6.6B.18R and COLL 6.6B.19R to one or more third parties if:(1) the tasks are not delegated with the intention of avoiding the requirements of the UCITS Directive;(2) the depositary can demonstrate that there is an objective reason for the delegation;(3) the depositary:(a) has exercised all due skill, care and diligence in the selection and appointment of any third party to whom it intends to delegate parts of its tasks; and(b) continues
COLL 6.6B.27RRP
A depositary must ensure that a third party to whom the depositary has delegated functions under COLL 6.6B.25R does not, in turn, sub-delegate those functions unless the delegate complies with the same requirements that apply to the depositary, with any necessary changes, in relation to the delegation by the depositary of its functions in COLL 6.6B.25R and COLL 6.6B.26R. [Note: article 22a(3) third paragraph of the UCITS Directive]
COBS 11.2.14RRP
A firm must establish and implement effective arrangements for complying with the obligation to take all reasonable steps to obtain the best possible result for its clients. In particular, the firm must establish and implement an order execution policy to allow it to obtain, for its client orders, the best possible result in accordance with that obligation.42
COBS 11.2.30RRP
A firm must, when providing the service of portfolio management4,2 comply with the obligation to act in accordance with the best interests of its clients when placing orders with other entities for execution that result from decisions by the firm to deal in financial instruments on behalf of its client.42
COBS 11.2.31RRP
A firm must, when providing the service of reception and transmission of orders, comply with the obligation to act in accordance with the best interests of its clients when transmitting client orders to other entities for execution.4
COBS 11.2.32RRP
In order to comply with the obligation to act in accordance with the best interests of its clients when it places an order with, or transmits an order to, another entity for execution, a firm must:42(1) take all reasonable steps to obtain the best possible result for its clients taking into account the execution factors. The relative importance of these factors must be determined by reference to the execution criteria and, for retail clients,2 to the requirement to determine the
RCB 3.5.2DRP
If an owner proposes to transfer the asset pool to a new owner it must provide the FCA as a minimum with the following information in writing at least three months before the proposed transfer date:(1) name, address and contact details of the proposed new owner;(2) proposed transfer date and reasons for the transfer;(3) an explanation of how the proposed new owner will comply with the requirements imposed on it by the RCB Regulations and RCB; and(4) confirmation that the existing
RCB 3.5.4DRP
If an issuer proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond, it must inform the FCA of the following information to the FCA at least 3 months before the proposed date of the change:(1) details of the proposed change including proposed date of change and the reasons for it;(2) an assessment of the impact of the change on the ability of the issuer and owner to continue to comply with their requirements under the RCB Regulations and RCB; and
RCB 3.5.5GRP
The FCA will regard as material any change that may affect the ability of the issuer or the owner to continue to comply with the requirements made on them under the RCB Regulations and RCB.
REC 2.16A.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 9A-9H3

1(1)

[A UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility3 must also operate a regulated market3.

(2)

[A UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility3 must comply with those requirements of-

(a)

Chapter I of Title II of [MiFID];3 and

(b)

any directly applicable EU legislation made under Chapter I;3

which are applicable to a market operator3 ... operating such a facility.

(3)

The requirements of this paragraph do not apply for the purposes of section 292(3)(a) of the Act (requirements for overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses).

(4)3

A [UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility or organised trading facility must provide the FCA with a detailed description of -

(a)

the functioning of the multilateral trading facility or organised trading facility;

(b)

any links to another trading venue owned by the same [UK RIE] or to a systematic internaliser owned by the same exchange; and

(c)

a list of the facility’s members, participants and users.

[Note:MiFID ITS 19 prescribes the content and format of the description of the functioning of a MTF or OTF to be provided to the FCA]3

(5)3

Any multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility operated by the [UK RIE] must have at least three materially active members or users who each have the opportunity to interact with all the others in respect of price formation.

Paragraph 9B – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: execution of orders3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] must have non-discretionary rules for the execution of orders on a multilateral trading facility operated by it.

(2)3

A [UK RIE] must not on a multilateral trading facility operated by it -

(a)

execute any client orders against its proprietary capital; or

(b)

engage in matched principal trading.

Paragraph 9C – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: access to a facility3

The rules of the [UK RIE] about access to, or membership of, a multilateral trading facility regulated market operated by it must permit the [UK RIE] to give access to or admit to membership to (as the case may be) only -3

(a)

an investment firm authorised under Article 5 of the markets in financial instruments directive;

(b)

a credit institution authorised in accordance with the capital requirements directive; or

(c)

a person who –

(i)

is of sufficient good repute;

(ii)

has a sufficient level of trading ability, and competence and experience;

(iii)

where applicable, has adequate organisational arrangements; and

(iv)

has sufficient resources for the role it is to perform, taking account of the financial arrangements the [UK RIE] has established in order to guarantee the adequate settlement transactions.

Paragraph 9D – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: disclosure3

(1)3

The rules of the [UK RIE] must provide that where it, without obtaining the consent of the issuer, admits to trading on a multilateral trading facility operated by it a transferable security which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, the [UK RIE] may not require the issuer of that security to demonstrate compliance with the disclosure obligations.

(2)3

The [UK RIE] must maintain arrangements to provide sufficient publicly available information (or satisfy itself that sufficient information is publicly available) to enable users of a multilateral trading facility operated by it to form investment judgements, taking into account both the nature of the users and the types of instruments traded.

(3)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9E – SME growth markets3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility which has registered that facility as an SME growth market in accordance with Article 33 of the markets in financial instruments directive (an “exchange-operated SME growth market”) must comply with rules made by the FCA for the purposes of this paragraph.

[Note:REC 2.16A.1D]4

(2)3

An exchange-operated SME growth market must not admit to trading a financial instrument which is already admitted to trading on another SME growth market unless the issuer of the instrument has been informed of the proposed admission to trading and has not objected.

(3)3

Where an exchange-operated SME growth market exchange admits a financial instrument to trading in the circumstances of paragraph (2), that exchange-operated SME growth market may not require the issuer of the financial instrument to demonstrate compliance with -

(a)

any obligation relating to corporate governance, or

(b)

the disclosure obligations.

(4)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9F – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: execution of orders3

(1)3

[A UK RIE] operating an organised trading facility must -

(a)

execute orders on that facility on a discretionary basis in accordance with sub-paragraph (4);

(b)

not execute any client orders on that facility against its proprietary capital or the proprietary capital of any entity that is part of the same group or legal person as the [UK RIE] unless in accordance with sub-paragraph (2);

(c)

not operate a systematic internaliser within the same legal entity;

(d)

ensure that the organised trading facility does not connect with a systematic internaliser in a way which enables orders in an organised trading facility and orders or quotes in a systematic internaliser to interact; and

(e)

ensure that the organised trading facility does not connect with another organised trading facility in a way which enables orders in different organised trading facilities to interact.

(2)3

A [UK RIE] may only engage in -

(a)

matched principal trading on an organised trading facility operated by it in respect of-

(i)

bonds,

(ii)

structured finance products,

(iii)

emission allowances,

(iv)

derivatives which have not been declared subject to the clearing obligation in accordance with Article 5 of the EMIR regulation,

where the client has consented to that; or

(b)

dealing on own account on an organised trading facility operated by it, otherwise than in accordance with sub-paragraph (a), in respect of sovereign debt instruments for which there is not a liquid market.

(3)3

If the [UK RIE] engages in matched principal trading in accordance with sub-paragraph (2)(a) it must establish arrangements to ensure compliance with the definition of matched principal trading in article 4.1.38 of the markets in financial instruments directive.

(4)3

The discretion which the [UK RIE] must exercise in executing a client order may only be the discretion mentioned in sub-paragraph (5) or in sub-paragraph (6) or both.

(5)3

The first discretion is whether to place or retract an order on the organised trading facility.

(6)3

The second discretion is whether to match a specific client order with other orders available on the organised trading facility at a given time, provided the exercise of such discretion is in compliance with specific instructions received from the client and in accordance with the [UK RIE’s] obligations under Article 27 of the markets in financial instruments directive.

(7)3

Where the organised trading facility crosses client orders the [UK RIE] may decide if, when and how much of two or more orders it wants to match within the system.

(8)3

Subject to the requirements of this paragraph, with regard to a system that arranges transactions in non-equities, the [UK RIE] may facilitate negotiation between clients so as to bring together two or more comparable potentially trading interests in a transaction.

(9)3

The [UK RIE] must comply with rules made by the FCA as to how Articles 24, 25, 27 and 28 of the markets in financial instruments directive apply to its operation of an organised trading facility.

(10)3

Nothing in this paragraph prevents a [UK RIE] from engaging an investment firm to carry out market making on an independent basis on an organised trading facility operated by the [UK RIE]provided the investment firm does not have close links with the [UK RIE].

(11)3

In this paragraph -

“close links” has the meaning given in Article 4.1.1 of the markets in financial instruments directive;

“investment firm” has the meaning given in Article 4.1.1 of the markets in financial instruments directive;

“non-equities” means bonds, structured finance products, emissions allowances and derivatives traded on a trading venue to which Article 8(1) of the markets in financial instrument regulation applies.

Paragraph 9G – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: disclosure3

(1)3

The rules of the [UK RIE] must provide that where it, without obtaining the consent of the issuer, admits to trading on an organised trading facility operated by it a transferable security which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, the [UK RIE] may not require the issuer of that security to demonstrate compliance with the disclosure obligations.

(2)3

The [UK RIE] must maintain arrangements to provide sufficient publicly available information (or satisfy itself that sufficient information is publicly available) to enable users of the organised trading facility operated by it to form investment judgements, taking into account both the nature of the users and the types of instruments traded.

(3)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9H – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: FCA request for information3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] must, when requested to do so, provide the FCA with a detailed explanation in respect of an organised trading facility operated by it, or such a facility it proposes to operate, of -

(a)

why the organised trading facility does not correspond to and cannot operate as a multilateral trading facility, a regulated market or a systematic internaliser;

(b)

how discretion will exercised in executing client orders, and in particular when an order to the organized trading facility may be retracted and when and how two or more client orders will be matched within the facility; and

(c)

its use of matched principal trading.

(2)3

Any information required under sub-paragraph (1) must be provided to the FCA in the manner which it considers appropriate.
REC 2.16A.1BRRP
3For the purposes of compliance with paragraph 9F(9) of the Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, MAR 5A.3.9R applies to a UK RIE as though it was a firm.
REC 2.16A.2GRP
1In determining whether a UK RIE operating a multilateral trading facility (including an SME growth market) or organised trading facility)3 complies with this chapter3, the FCA will have regard to the compliance of the UK RIE with equivalent recognition requirements. A UK RIE operating such facilities should also have regard to the guidance set out in MAR 5 (Multilateral trading facilities (MTFs)) and MAR 5A (Organised trading facilities (OTFs))3. 22
LR 8.3.5ARRP
1If, in connection with the provision of a3sponsor service, a sponsor becomes aware that it, or a company with or applying for a premium listing of its securities8 is failing or has failed to comply with its obligations under3 the listing rules3, the3disclosure requirements7 or the transparency rules, the sponsor must promptly notify the FCA2.323
LR 8.3.8GRP
1In identifying conflicts of interest, sponsors should also take into account3 circumstances that could:333(1) 3create a perception in the market that a sponsor may not be able to perform its functions properly; or4(2) 3compromise the ability of a sponsor to fulfil its obligations to the FCA in relation to the provision of a sponsor service.
IFPRU 7.1.5RRP
For the purpose of article 6(4) of the EU CRR, a firm is exempt from compliance with the obligations in Part Six of the EU CRR (Liquidity) on an individual basis unless it meets both the following conditions:(1) it is an ILAS BIPRU firm; and(2) it is a significant IFPRU firm.
IFPRU 7.1.6RRP
For the purpose of article 11(3) of the EU CRR, a FCA consolidation group that meets the condition in IFPRU 7.1.7 R is exempt from compliance with the obligations in Part Six of the EU CRR (Liquidity) on a consolidated basis.
EG 7.6.6RP
2A private warning is not intended to be a determination by the FCA as to whether the recipient has breached the FCA'srules. However, private warnings, together with any comments received in response, will form part of the person's compliance history. In this sense they are no different to other FCA correspondence, but the weight the FCA attaches to a private warning is likely to be greater. They may therefore influence the FCA's decision whether to commence action for a penalty
EG 7.6.8RP
2Private warnings may be considered cumulatively, although they relate to separate areas of a firm's or other person's business, where the concerns which gave rise to those warnings are considered to be indicative of a person's compliance culture. Similarly, private warnings issued to different subsidiaries of the same parent company may be considered cumulatively where the concerns which gave rise to those warnings relate to a common management team.
PR 1.1.3RRP
A person must comply with all rules that are specified as being applicable to them.
PR 1.1.4RRP
If a rule does not specify who is responsible for complying with it, then the following persons must comply with it:(1) in relation to an offer:(a) the issuer; and(b) the offeror (if this is a person other than the issuer);(2) in relation to a request for the admission to trading of transferable securities:(a) the issuer; and(b) the person requesting admission to trading (if this is a person other than the issuer).
REC 4.7.4GRP
The FCA3 would be likely to consider the conditions in REC 4.7.3 G (2) or REC 4.7.3 G (3) to be triggered1in the following circumstances:31(1) the recognised body appears not to have the resources or management to be able to organise its affairs so as to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements; or212(2) the recognised body does not appear to be willing to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements; or212(3) the recognised body is failing or has failed
REC 4.7.5GRP
In addition to the relevant 1factors set out in REC 4.7.4 G, the FCA3 will usually consider that it would not be able to secure an ROIE's3 compliance with the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act by means of a direction under section 296 of the Act, if it appears to the FCA3 that the ROIE3 is prevented by any change in the legal framework or supervisory arrangements to which it is subject in its home territory from complying with the recognition requirements
DTR 8.5.1RRP
A primary information provider must submit to the FCA an annual report prepared by a reporting accountant qualified to act as auditor which states that the primary information provider has satisfied its continuing obligations in DTR 8.4 in the preceding 12 months.
DTR 8.5.6GRP
Situations when the FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a primary information provider can provide include (but are not limited to) where it appears to the FCA that:(1) the primary information provider's ability to satisfy its obligations in DTR 8.4 would be likely to be compromised; or(2) the primary information provider is proposing to make changes to its systems and controls or operations which would be likely to prevent it from satisfying any of its
REC 2.5A.5GRP
In accordance with section 1 of PIDA:(1) a "protected disclosure" is a qualifying disclosure which meets the relevant requirements set out in part 4A of the Employment Rights Act 19963;3(2) a "qualifying disclosure" is a disclosure, made in the public interest3, of information which, in the reasonable belief of the worker making the disclosure, tends to show that one or more of the following (a "failure") has been, is being, or is likely to be, committed:3(a) a criminal offence;
REC 2.5A.7GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body is a fit and proper person, the FCA2 may have regard to any relevant factor including, but not limited to, how the UK recognised body and key individuals have complied with any relevant law (see REC 2.4.3 G (9)).2
RCB 3.6.4GRP
The issuer or the owner, as the case may be, should review legal advice as necessary. For example, advice should be reviewed if a relevant statutory provision is amended or where a new decision or judgment of a court might have a bearing on the conclusions reached which is material to the issuer's or owner's compliance with the requirements of the RCB Regulations or the RCB.
RCB 3.6.5DRP
Unless otherwise stated, the issuer or the owner, as the case may be, must send the relevant forms and information to the FCA's address marked for the attention of the "Covered Bonds Team, Prudential Specialists Department1" by any of the following methods:(1) post; or(2) leaving it at the FCA's address and obtaining a time-stamped receipt; or(3) email to rcb@fca.org.uk.
MAR 10.2.2DRP
(1) 1A person must comply at all times with commodity derivative position limits established by the FCA, published at www.fca.org.uk. (2) A direction made under (1) applies where a commodity derivative is traded on a trading venue in the United Kingdom, provided that there is not a central competent authority established in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom. (3) Position limits established under (1) shall apply to the positions held by a person together with those held
MAR 10.2.4DRP
1A non-financial entity must complete the application form in MAR 10 Annex 1D for approval to be exempt from compliance with position limits established by the FCA in accordance with MAR 10.2.2D(1).
EG 8.3.3RP
1It is not possible to provide an exhaustive list of the situations that will give rise to such serious concerns, but they are likely to include one or more of the following characteristics: (1) information indicating significant loss, risk of loss or other adverse effects for consumers, where action is necessary to protect their interests; (2) information indicating that a firm's conduct has put it at risk of being used for the purposes of financial crime, or of being otherwise
EG 8.3.4RP
1The FCA will consider the full circumstances of each case when it decides whether an urgent variation of Part 4A permission or an imposition of a requirement is appropriate. The following is a non-exhaustive list of factors the FCA may consider. (1) The extent of any loss, or risk of loss, or other adverse effect on consumers. The more serious the loss or potential loss or other adverse effect, the more likely it is that the FCA’s urgent exercise of own-initiative powers will
EG 19.20.1RP
1The FCA has investigation and sanctioning powers in relation to both criminal and civil breaches of the Payment Services Regulations. The Payment Services Regulations impose requirements including, amongst other things, obligations on payment service providers to provide users with a range of information and various provisions regulating the rights and obligations of payment service users and providers.
EG 19.20.2RP
1The FCA's approach to enforcing the Payment Services Regulations will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. It will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate, responsive to the issue, and consistent with its publicly stated policies. It will also seek to ensure fair treatment when exercising its enforcement powers. Finally, it will aim to change the behaviour of the person who is the subject of its
MAR 10.3.4GRP
An operator of a trading venue referred to in MAR 10.3.1G may include provisions in its rulebook which impose appropriate obligations on its members or participants as part of compliance with its position management controls obligations.
MAR 10.3.5GRP
A firm must comply with the obligation in MAR 10.3.3R(4) by completing the form available at www.fca.org.uk.
COBS 11.7.3GRP
For the purposes of COBS 11.7.1R (1)(c), any other obligation of the firm under MiFID refers to a firm's obligations under the regulatory system that are not owed to a customer and any of the firm's obligations under another EEA States' implementation of MiFID where it operates a branch in the EEA.
COBS 11.7.5RRP
This section does not apply to the following kinds of personal transaction:(1) personal transactions effected under a discretionary portfolio management service where there is no prior communication in connection with the transaction between the portfolio manager and the relevant person or other person for whose account the transaction is executed;(2) personal transactions in units or shares in collective undertakings that comply with the conditions necessary to enjoy the rights