Related provisions for BIPRU 4.10.8
181 - 200 of 238 items.
Under PRIN 3.3.1 R, the territorial application of a number of Principles to a UK MiFID investment firm is extended to the extent that another applicable rule or EU regulation6 which is relevant to an activity has a wider territorial scope. Under PRIN 3.1.1 R, the territorial application of a number of Principles to an EEAMiFID investment firm is narrowed to the extent that responsibility for the matter in question is reserved to the firm'sHome State regulator. These modifications
Where a firm understands, or reasonably suspects, a customer has or may have a mental capacity limitation the firm should take particular care that the customer is not provided with credit which the firm knows, or reasonably believes, to be unsuitable to the customer's needs, even where the credit would be affordable.[Note: paragraph 4.43 of MCG]
1The FCA has powers under Part 8 of the Enterprise Act both as a “designated enforcer” in relation to domestic and Community infringements and as a “CPC enforcer” which gives the FCA and other CPC enforcers additional powers in relation to Community infringements so that they can meet their obligations as “competent authorities” under Regulation (EC) No.2006/2004 on co-operation between national authorities responsible for enforcement of consumer protection laws (the CPC Regulation).
(1) This rule applies in respect of the following rules:(a) SYSC 12.1.8R (2);(b) SYSC 12.1.10R (1), so far as it relates to SYSC 12.1.8R (2);(c) SYSC 12.1.10R (2); and(d) SYSC 12.1.11 R to SYSC 12.1.15 R.(2) The rules referred to in (1):(a) only apply with respect to a financial conglomerate if it is a UK-regulated EEA financial conglomerate;1919(b) (so far as they apply with respect to a group that is not a financial conglomerate) do not apply with respect to a group for
1However, there may be circumstances in which the FCA will choose to use the powers under section 382 or section 383 of the Act to apply to the court for an order for restitution against a firm. Those circumstances may include, for example, where: (1) the FCA wishes to combine an application for an order for restitution with other court action against the firm, for example, where it wishes to apply to the court for an injunction to prevent the firm breaching a relevant requirement11;
The matters referred to in FIT 2.1.1 G to which the FCA5 will have regard, and to which an SMCR firm6 should also have regard, 5include, but are not limited to:55(1) whether the person has been convicted of any criminal offence; this must include, where provided for by the Rehabilitation Exceptions Orders4to2 the Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974 or the Rehabilitation of Offenders (Northern Ireland) Order 1978 (as applicable)4, any spent convictions2; particular consideration
(1) An overseas firm, which is not an incoming firm, must notify the FCA4 within 30 business days of any person taking up or ceasing to hold the following positions:88(a) the firm's worldwide chief executive (that is, the person who, alone or jointly with one or more others, is responsible under the immediate authority of the directors for the whole of its business) if the person is based outside the United Kingdom;(b) the person within the overseas firm with a purely strategic
(1) This rule applies if a firm (F1), in the course of performing MiFID or equivalent third country business, receives an instruction to provide3 an investment or ancillary service on behalf of a client (C) through another firm (F2), if F2 is:(a) a MiFID investment firm or a third country investment firm; or(b) an investment firm that is:(i) a firm or authorised in another EEA State; and(ii) subject to equivalent relevant requirements.(2) F1 may rely upon:(a) any information about
1However, where the FCA has cancelled a firm'sPart 4A permission, it is required by section 33 of the Act to go on to give a direction withdrawing the firm'sauthorisation. Accordingly, the FCA may decide to keep a firm'sPart 4A permission in force to maintain the firm's status as an authorised person and enable it (the FCA) to monitor the firm's activities. An example is where the FCA needs to supervise an orderly winding down of the firm's regulated business (see SUP 6.4.22 (When
In assessing whether its connection with any person could affect whether a UK recognised body is a fit and proper person, the FCA4 may have regard to:4(1) the reputation and standing of that other person, including his standing with any relevant UK or overseas regulator;(2) breaches of any law or regulation by that other person; (3) the roles of any of the UK recognised body's key individuals who have a position within organisations under the control or influence of that other
A parent undertaking which wishes to make use of the exemption in relation to issuers subject to this chapter whose shares are admitted to trading on a regulated market must without delay, notify the following to the FCA:1(1) a list of the names of those management companies, investment firms or other entities, indicating the competent authorities that supervise them, but with no reference to the issuers concerned; and(2) a statement that, in the case of each such management company
Factors that may be relevant in the assessment of a MiFID complaint under DISP 1.1A.20R(2) include the following:
(1) all the evidence available and the particular circumstances of the complaint;(2)
similarities with other complaints received by the respondent;
(3) relevant guidance published by the FCA, other relevant regulators, the Financial Ombudsman Service or former schemes; and
(4) appropriate analysis of decisions by the Financial Ombudsman Service concerning similar
1Under the Criminal Justice Act 1987 the Director of the SFO may investigate any suspected offence which appears on reasonable grounds to involve serious or complex fraud and may also conduct, or take over the conduct of, the prosecution of any such offence. The SFO may investigate in conjunction with any other person with whom the Director thinks it is proper to do so; that includes a police force (or the FCA or any other regulator). The criteria used by the SFO for deciding
(1) A Chief Risk Officer should:(a) be accountable to the firm'sgoverning body for oversight of firm-wide risk management;(b) be fully independent of a firm's individual business units;(c) have sufficient authority, stature and resources for the effective execution of his responsibilities; (d) have unfettered access to any parts of the firm's business capable of having an impact on the firm's risk profile; (e) ensure that the data used by the firm to assess its risks are fit for
1An EEA UCITS management company that proposes to act as the authorised fund manager2 of an AUT, ACS or2ICVC that is a UCITS scheme, should be aware that it is required under paragraph 15A(1) of Schedule 3 to the Act to apply to the appropriate regulator for approval to do so. The form that the firm must use for this purpose is set out in SUP 13A Annex 3 R (EEA UCITS management companies: application for approval to manage a UCITS scheme established in the United Kingdom). In
1This
manual (DEPP) is relevant to firms, approved
persons and other persons,
whether or not they are regulated by the FCA.5 It sets out:5(1) the FCA's5 decision-making procedure for giving statutory
notices. These are warning
notices, decision notices and supervisory notices (DEPP 1.2 to DEPP 5);5(1A) the FCA's decision-making
procedure in cases where the PRA is
required to seek the FCA's consent
before approving an application (a) for Part
4A permission; (b) for the variation
(1) (a) If a depositary performs part of its functions through a branch in another EEA State, this is not a delegation by the depositary of its functions to a third party.(b) This is because ‘third party’ in COLL 6.6B.22R means any party that is not part of the same legal entity as the depositary.(2) Paragraph (1) also applies where the depositary is the UKbranch of an EEA firm and it performs part of its functions:(a) through a branch in another EEA State; or(b) from the EEA