Related provisions for SUP 11.7.1
521 - 540 of 635 items.
Section 340 of the Act gives the PRA6 power to make rules requiring an authorised person, or an authorised person falling into a specified class, to appoint an actuary3. The PRA has exercised its power to make such rules in PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Actuaries; and PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Actuarial Requirements.5 The rule-making powers of the PRA and FCA6 under section 340 of the Act also extend to an actuary's3 duties.636666663336
In addition to obligations under MiFID, similar whistleblowing obligations apply to miscellaneous persons subject to regulation by the FCA under the following non-exhaustive list of EU legislation(1) article 32(3) of the Market Abuse Regulation, as implemented in section 131AA of the Act;(2) article 71(3) of the CRD (see IFPRU 2.4.1R in respect of IFPRU investment firms);(3) article 99d(5) of the UCITS Directive (see SYSC 4.1.1ER in respect of UKUCITS management companies, and
The general scheme of this sourcebook is, wherever appropriate, to apply the financial and other prudential standards which applied to a firm immediately prior to it becoming authorised by the appropriate regulator under the Act. For convenience, the chapter numbers adopted in this sourcebook correspond with those of the rulebooks of previous regulators.
A primary pooling event occurs:(1) on the failure of a CASS debt management firm;(2) on the vesting of assets in a trustee in accordance with an 'assets requirement' imposed under section 55P(1)(b) or (c) (as the case may be) of the Act where such a requirement is imposed in respect of all client money held by the firm.
Section 351A of the Act provides that where an auditor of an AUT or ACS1 which is a master UCITS or a feeder UCITS, or any person acting on their behalf, makes a disclosure to comply with rules implementing Chapter VIII of the UCITS Directive, that disclosure is not to be taken as a contravention of any duty to which the person making the disclosure is subject. The OEIC Regulations (see regulation 83A) contain corresponding provisions for auditors of ICVCs that are feeder UCITS
2When the FCA1 decides whether to make a prohibition order against an approved person and/or withdraw their1 approval, the FCA will consider all the relevant circumstances of the case. These may include, but are not limited to those set out below. (1) The matters set out in section 61(2) of the Act.
(2) Whether the individual is fit and proper to perform functions in relation to regulated activities. The criteria for assessing the fitness and propriety of
The application of section 21 of the Act and of exemptions in the Financial Promotion Order to invitations or inducements about insurance distribution activities1 will vary depending on the type of activity. The implementation of the IDD1 has not led to any changes in the definitions of a controlled investment or a controlled activity under the Financial Promotion Order. So:(1) rights under any contract of insurance are a controlled investment;(2) rights to or interests in rights
The FCA5 recognises that there may be occasions when, because of a particular emergency, a person (generally a firm, but in certain circumstances, for example in relation to price stabilising rules, an unauthorised person) may be unable to comply with a particular rule in the Handbook. The purpose of GEN 1.3.2 R is to provide appropriate relief from the consequences of contravention of such a rule in those circumstances.1993
There is no standard application form for application for recognition as an ROIE2. An application should be made in accordance with any direction the FCA3 may make under section 287 (Application by an investment exchange) of the Act and should include:333(1) the information, evidence and explanatory material necessary to demonstrate to the FCA3 that the recognition requirements (set out in REC 6.3) will be met;(2) the application fee (see REC 7);(3) the address of the applicant's
Where an incoming EEA firm is exercising an EEA right11 and has established a branch in the United Kingdom, the EEA Passport Rights Regulations govern any changes to the details of that branch. Where an incoming EEA firm has complied with the relevant requirements in the EEA Passport Rights Regulations, then the firm'spermission given under Schedule 3 to the Act is to be treated as varied accordingly. All references to regulations in SUP 14 are to the EEA Passport Rights Regu
(1) SYSC 3.2.13 G includes assessing an individual's honesty, and competence. This assessment should normally be made at the point of recruitment. An individual's honesty need not normally be revisited unless something happens to make a fresh look appropriate.(2) Any assessment of an individual's suitability should take into account the level of responsibility that the individual will assume within the firm. The nature of this assessment will generally differ depending upon whether
Without prejudice to section 66A of the Act, a person will only be in breach of any of the rules in COCON where they are personally culpable. Personal culpability arises where: (1) a person's conduct was deliberate; or(2) the person's standard of conduct was below that which would be reasonable in all the circumstances.
1The FCA may require a firm or qualifying parent undertaking to include the additional information referred to in IFPRU 11.3.10G in its group recovery plan by using its power under:(1) section 55L of the Act to require a firm; or (2) section 192C of the Act to direct a qualifying parent undertaking.[Note: article 4(3) of RRD]
A firm which permits direct electronic access to an OTF it operates must:(1) not permit members or participants of the OTF to provide such services unless they are:(a) investment firms authorised under MiFID; or(b) CRD credit institutions; or(c) third country firms providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under article 46.1 of MiFIR; or(d) third country firms providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under article
(1) 2SUP 10C.1.4R reflects the provisions of section 59(8) of the Act and, where relevant, the Treaty.(2) It preserves the principle of Home State prudential regulation. (3) For an EEA SMCR firm5, the effect is to reserve to the Home State regulator the assessment of fitness and propriety of a person performing a function in the exercise of an EEA right. A member of the governing body, or the notified3UKbranchmanager, of an EEA SMCR firm5, acting in that capacity, will not, therefore,