Related provisions for BIPRU 7.10.55O
121 - 140 of 272 items.
(1) 1The FCA expects to have an open, cooperative and constructive relationship with data reporting services providers to enable it to understand and evaluate data reporting services providers’ activities and their ability to meet the requirements in the DRS Regulations. As part of that relationship the FCA expects a data reporting services provider to provide it with information about any proposed restructuring, reorganisation or business expansion which could have a significant
A firm must:
(1) have clear criteria as to the suitability requirements of persons to whom clearing services will be provided;
(2) apply those criteria;
(3) impose requirements on the persons to whom clearing services are being provided to reduce risks to the firm and to the market; and
(4) have a binding written agreement with any person to whom it is providing clearing services, detailing the essential rights and obligations of both parties arising from the provision of the
The purposes of SYSC are:(1) to encourage firms' directors and senior managers to take appropriate practical responsibility for their firms' arrangements on matters likely to be of interest to the FCA3 because they impinge on the FCA’s3 functions under the Act;(2) to increase certainty by amplifying Principle 3, under which a firm must take reasonable care to organise and control its affairs responsibly and effectively, with adequate risk management systems;1(3) to encourage
SYSC 18 (Whistleblowing) contains1 requirements on UK SMCR banking firms3 and certain insurers (see SYSC 18.1.1AR) in relation to the adoption and communication of appropriate internal procedures for handling reportable concerns as part of an effective risk management system. SYSC 18.1.1CG provides that firms not otherwise subject to SYSC 18 may nonetheless wish to adopt the provisions in that chapter as best practice1.2
Where a person intends to rely on article 11(6), (7), (8), 9) or (10) for an exemption from the obligation to implement risk management procedures set out in article 11(3) of EMIR, the person should make their application or notification to the FCA in accordance with EMIR requirements, including (where relevant) those set out in the EMIR technical standards on OTC derivatives2.
[Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 25 Annex 1G]4
(1) Where a firm uses the standardised approach set out in BIPRU 3 (Standardised approach to credit risk) for the calculation of risk weighted exposure amount for the standardised credit risk exposure class to which the securitised exposures would otherwise be assigned under BIPRU 3, then it must calculate the risk weighted exposure amount for a securitisation position in accordance with the standardised approach to securitisations set out in BIPRU 9.9, BIPRU 9.10, BIPRU 9.11
1Examples of situations where the FCA may use the own-initiative variation of approval power include where:(1) it has concerns about an SMF manager’s fitness to remain approved in relation to the performance of a designated senior management function but, in all the circumstances, it considers it appropriate to vary their approval by imposing one or more conditions or a time limitation, rather than making a prohibition order or withdrawing approval;(2) the nature or scope of the
A firm's run-off plan should describe how the firm proposes to manage the run-off of the with-profits fund. That description should include:(1) details of the expected duration and costs of fully running off the fund's liabilities;(2) an explanation as to how a solvent run-off will be funded; and(3) details of the firm's future strategy for managing the risks associated with the run-off of the fund.
A firm's run-off plan should explain how it will use and manage reinsurance (if it will), including:(1) any new inwards or outwards reinsurance it proposes to enter into as a result of the closure of the with-profits fund identifying, in each case, the proposed counterparty and the counterparty's relationship to the firm's group (if any); and(2) how it will manage the risk that the reinsurance in (1) will not perform as expected.
The5 following factors may5be taken into account in determining whether or not a person'sbehaviour5 is in pursuit of legitimate business, and are indications that it is:(1) the extent to which the relevant trading by the person is carried out in order to hedge a risk, and in particular the extent to which it neutralises and responds to a risk arising out of the person's legitimate business; or(2) whether, in the case of a transaction on the basis of inside information about a
5With reference to article 9(4) of the Market Abuse Regulation, examples of using inside information solely for the purpose of proceeding with a merger or public takeover may include:(1) seeking from holders of securities, issued by the target, irrevocable undertakings or expressions of support to accept an offer to acquire those securities (or not to accept such an offer);(2) making arrangements in connection with an issue of securities that are to be offered as consideration
(1) [deleted]88(2) In this context, the FCA will interpret the term 'appropriate88' as meaning sufficient in terms of quantity, quality and availability, and 'resources' as including all financial resources (though only in the case of firms not carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity)8, non-financial resources and means of managing its resources; for example, capital, provisions against liabilities, holdings of or access to cash and other liquid assets, human
(1) [deleted]88(2) Relevant matters to which the FCA may have regard when assessing whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, this threshold condition8may include but are not limited to:(a) (in relation to a firm other than a firm carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity),8 whether there are any indications that the firm may have difficulties if the application is granted, at the time of the grant or in the future, in complying with any of the
The rates of mortality or morbidity should contain prudent margins for adverse deviation7. In setting those rates, a firm should take account of:(1) the systems and controls applied in underwriting long-term insurance contracts and whether they provide adequate protection against anti-selection (that is, selection against the firm) including:(a) adequately defining and identifying non-standard risks; and(b) where such risks are underwritten, allocating to them an appropriate weighting;(2)
An additional provision for diseases covered by INSPRU 1.2.60G (5)(c) may be needed, in particular for unit-linked policies. In determining whether such a provision is needed a firm may take into consideration any ability to increase product charges commensurately (provided that such increase does not infringe on its regulatory duty to treat its customers fairly), but a provision would still be required for the period until such an increase could be brought into effect.
(1) 7A UCITS scheme may invest in a transferable security only to the extent that the transferable security fulfils the following criteria:(a) the potential loss which the UCITS scheme may incur with respect to holding the transferable security is limited to the amount paid for it;(b) its liquidity does not compromise the ability of the authorised fund manager to comply with its obligation to redeemunits at the request of any qualifying unitholder (see COLL 6.2.16 R (3) );(c)
(1) A transaction in a derivative must:(a) be in an approved derivative; or(b) be one which complies with COLL 5.2.23 R (OTC transactions in derivatives).(2) The underlying of a transaction in a derivative must consist of any one or more of the following to which the scheme is dedicated:(a) transferable securities permitted under COLL 5.2.8 R (3)(a) to (c) and COLL 5.2.8 R (3)(e)7;(b) approved money-market instruments7 permitted underCOLL 5.2.8 R (3)(a) to COLL 5.2.8 R (3)(d)7;77(c)
(1) If arrangements made by a firm under SYSC 10.1.7 R9 are not sufficient to ensure, with reasonable confidence, that risks of damage to the interests of a client will be prevented, the firm must clearly disclose the following9 to the client before undertaking business for the client:93(a) the general nature or sources of conflicts of interest, or both; and9(b) the steps taken to mitigate those risks.9(2) The disclosure must:(a) be made in a durable medium; 9(b) clearly state
5A management company must be structured and organised in such a way as to minimise the risk of a UCITS scheme's, EEA UCITS scheme's or client's interests being prejudiced by conflicts of interest between the management company and its clients, between two of its clients, between one of its clients and a UCITS scheme or an EEA UCITS scheme, or between two such schemes.[Note: articles 12(1)(b) and 14(1)(d) of the UCITS Directive]
The regulated activity of dealing in investments as principal applies to specified transactions relating to any security or to any contractually based investment (apart from rights under funeral plan contracts or rights to or interests in such contracts). The activity is cut back by exclusions as follows.(1) Of particular significance is the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc). This applies where dealing in investments as principal
The regulated activity of dealing in investments as agent applies to specified transactions relating to any security or to any relevant investment (apart from rights under funeral plan contracts or rights to or interests in such rights). In addition, the activity is cut back by exclusions as follows.(1) An exclusion applies to certain transactions entered into by an agent who is not an authorised person which depend on him dealing with (or through) an authorised person. It does
(1) The risk management process should take account of the investment objectives and policy of the non-UCITS retail scheme as stated in its most recent prospectus.(2) The depositary should take reasonable care to review the appropriateness of the risk management process in line with its duties under COLL 6.6.4 R (General duties of the depositary) and COLL 6.6.14 R (Duties of the depositary and authorised fund manager: investment and borrowing powers)2, as appropriate.2(3) An authorised
(1) If a firm wishes to use the rolling stock method to perform a physical asset reconciliation it must first establish and document in writing its reasons for concluding that the way in which it will carry out its physical asset reconciliations is adequately designed to mitigate the risk of the firm's records being manipulated or falsified.(2) A firm must retain any documents created under (1) for a period of at least five years after the date it ceases to use the rolling stock
In assessing its wholesale funding risk, a firm must:(1) identify its wholesale liabilities;(2) determine how those liabilities behave under normal financial conditions;(3) assess how they will behave under the stresses required by BIPRU 12.5.6R; and(4) divide its wholesale liabilities into funding which the firm assesses as having a higher than average likelihood of withdrawal in response to actual or perceived changes in the firm's credit-worthiness (Type A wholesale funding)
In assessing how its liabilities behave under stress, the firm should categorise its liabilities according to value, maturity and estimated speed of outflow. The firm should bear in mind that wholesale funding risk may crystallise as an acute loss of funds in the short term, or as a longer-term gradual leakage of funds, or as both.