Related provisions for CONC 8.7.7
21 - 40 of 611 items.
2(1) The purpose of these rules is to set out the requirements for registered societies and sponsoring bodies to pay application fees3.2(2) This set of rules is in respect of the registration functions relating to registered societies transferred to the FCA by section 50 of the Financial Services Act 2012, other than friendly societies authorised under section 31 of the Act.2
The application fee payable to register a new society is a tiered fee: the amount payable for registration of a new society is dependent on whether the rules are based on a free draft or on model rules. Further, where model rules are used in the case of the registration of a new society other than a credit union, then the number of amendments made to the model rules will affect the fee. The application fee payable by a sponsoring body for a new set of model rules is a flat f
In these rules:(1) an “R” in the margin or heading indicates that the provision is a rule, which creates binding obligations;(2) a “G” in the margin or heading indicates that the provision is guidance, which is designed to throw light on a particular aspect of these rules, but which is not binding nor an exhaustive description of a person's obligations.
This chapter applies to the communication or approval of a financial promotion of qualifying credit as follows:
Application and purpose |
|
The fair, clear and not misleading rules |
MCOB 3A.2, except MCOB 3A.2.5 R |
Other general requirements for financial promotions |
|
Qualifying credit financial promotions |
|
MCD financial promotions (note 1) |
|
Systems and controls |
|
Note 1: This item does not apply to non-MCDfinancial promotions of qualifying credit. |
|
This chapter applies to the communication or approval of a financial promotion of a home purchase plan as follows:
Application and purpose |
|
Fair, clear and not misleading rule for approval of home purchase plan financial promotions |
|
Home purchase plan financial promotions |
Except for MCOB 3A.2.4R (2) and MCOB 3A.5, this chapter does not apply to a firm in relation to a financial promotion of qualifying credit that is of a kind listed in MCOB 3A.1.9 R, except if the firm approves the financial promotion, then the following apply:(1) MCOB 3A.1 (Application and purpose);(2) MCOB 3A.2.4 R (Fair, clear and not misleading financial promotions);(3) MCOB 3A.4.4 G to MCOB 3A.4.7 G (Approval of qualifying credit promotions; No approval of real time qualifying
The application under MCOB 3A.1.13 R is relevant both when a firmcommunicates a financial promotion itself and when a firmapproves a non-real time financial promotion for communication by others. However, see also MCOB 3A.1.15 R (Exceptions to territorial scope: rules without territorial limitation for approval of financial promotions).
Subject to MCOB 3A.1.16 R, the following parts of this chapter apply without any territorial limitation if a firmapproves a financial promotion of qualifying credit, a home reversion plan or a regulated sale and rent back agreement:(1) MCOB 3A.1 (Application and purpose);(2) rules requiring a financial promotion to be fair, clear and not misleading (see MCOB 3A.2.4 R); and (3) provisions regarding the approval of financial promotions (except those relating to approval of financial
(1) Notwithstanding MCOB 3A.1.13 R and MCOB 3A.1.15 R, where a firm which satisfies the conditions in (2) communicates a financial promotion of qualifying credit, the rules in (3) do not apply.(2) The conditions are that:(a) the firmcommunicates the financial promotion of qualifying credit from an establishment maintained by the firm in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom, and not from an establishment maintained by the firm in the United Kingdom or outside the EEA;(b)
(1) This rule applies to a prospectus relating to:(a) equity shares;(b) warrants or options to subscribe for equity shares, that are issued by the issuer of the equity shares; and(c) other transferable securities that have similar characteristics to transferable securities referred to in paragraphs (a) or (b).(2) Each of the following persons are responsible for the prospectus:(a) the issuer of the transferable securities;(b) if the issuer is a body corporate:(i) each person who
(1) This rule applies to a prospectus relating to transferable securities other than those to which PR 5.5.3 R applies.(2) Each of the following persons are responsible for the prospectus:(a) the issuer of the transferable securities;(b) each person who accepts, and is stated in the prospectus as accepting, responsibility for the prospectus;(c) in relation to an offer, the offeror of the transferable securities, if this is not the issuer;(d) in relation to a request for an admission
A person is not responsible for a prospectus under PR 5.5.3 R (2)(d) or PR 5.5.4 R (2)(c) if:(1) the issuer is responsible for the prospectus in accordance with the rules in this section;(2) the prospectus was drawn up primarily by the issuer, or by one or more persons acting on behalf of the issuer; and(3) the offeror is making the offer in association with the issuer.
The following is a non-exhaustive list of examples of conduct that would be in breach of rule 1.(1) Misleading (or attempting to mislead) by act or omission:(a) a client; or(b) the firm for whom the person works (or its auditors); or(c) the FCA or;(d) the PRA.(2) Falsifying documents.(3) Misleading a client about:(a) the risks of an investment;(b) the charges or surrender penalties of products;(c) the likely performance of products by providing inappropriate projections of future
The following is a non-exhaustive list of examples of conduct by any conduct rules staff that would be in breach of rule 2.(1) Failing to inform:(a) a customer; or(b) their firm (or its auditors);of material information in circumstances where the member of conduct rules staff was aware, or ought to have been aware, of such information, and of the fact that they should provide it, including the following:(i) failing to explain the risks of an investment to a customer;(ii) failing
The following is a non-exhaustive list of examples of conduct by a manager that would be in breach of rule 2.(1) Failing to take reasonable steps to ensure that the business of the firm for which the manager has responsibility:(a) is controlled effectively;(b) complies with the relevant requirements and standards of the regulatory system applicable to that area of the business; and(c) is conducted in such a way to ensure that any delegation of responsibilities is to an appropriate
3Rule 2 in COCON 2.1.3R applies to a director (whether executive or non-executive) when taking part in the activities of the Board, other governing body or of its committees. This includes, for example, participating in meetings, preparing papers or other submissions for meetings and reporting to the body or committee.
For the purpose of rule 3 in COCON 2.1.3R, regulators other than the FCA and the PRA are those which have recognised jurisdiction in relation to activities to which COCON applies and have a power to call for information from the firm or from individuals performing certain functions in connection with those regulated activities. This may include an exchange or an overseas regulator.
The following is a non-exhaustive list of examples of conduct that would be in breach of rule 3.(1) Failing to report promptly in accordance with their firm's internal procedures (or, if none exist, direct to the regulator concerned), information in response to questions from the FCA, the PRA, or both the PRA and the FCA.(2) Failing without good reason to: (a) inform a regulator of information of which the approved person was aware in response to questions from that regulator;
Rule 4 in COCON 2.1.4R applies to all conduct rules staff, regardless of whether that person has direct contact or dealings with customers of the firm. Persons subject to the rules in COCON should consider how their actions (or their failure to act) can affect the interests of customers or result in customers being treated unfairly.
The following is a non-exhaustive list of examples of conduct that would be in breach of rule 4.(1) Failing to inform a customer of material information in circumstances where they were aware, or ought to have been aware, of such information and of the fact that they should provide it, including the following:(a) failing to explain the risks of an investment to a customer;(b) failing to disclose to a customer details of the charges or surrender penalties of investment products;
A general consideration about whether or not a person's conduct complies with the relevant requirements and standards of the market, is whether they, or the firm, comply2 with relevant market codes and exchange rules. Compliance with2 relevant market codes and exchange rules will tend to show compliance with rule 5 in COCON 2.1.5R.2
(1) A notification claiming exemption under DISP 1.1.12 R from the complaints reporting rules and the rules relating to the funding of the Financial Ombudsman Service must be given to the
FCA
by the Society on behalf of any member eligible for an exemption. (2) The Society must notify the
FCA
if the conditions relating to such an exemption no longer apply to a member who is exempt.
Members will individually comply with this chapter if and only if all complaints by policyholders against members are dealt with under the Lloyd's complaints procedures. Accordingly, certain of the obligations under this chapter, for example the obligation to report on complaints received and the obligation to pay fees under the rules relating to the funding of the Financial Ombudsman Service (FEES 5), must be complied with by the Society on behalf of members. Managing agents
Any rule in the Handbook which has the status letter "E" in the margin or heading:(1) is to be taken also to provide that contravention of the rule does not give rise to any of the consequences provided for by provisions of the Act other than section 138C36 (Evidential provisions); and36(2) incorporates the status letter "E" in the margin or heading as part of the rule.
(1) The rules to which section 138C36 of the Act applies ("evidential provisions") are identified in the Handbook by the status letter "E" in the margin or heading.36(2) Other provisions in the Handbook, although also identified by the status letter "E" in the margin or heading, are actually not rules but provisions in codes and GEN 2.2.3 R does not apply to them.17361313
A general rule (that is a rule made by the FCA18 the general rule making powers36) is to be interpreted as:3636(1) applying to a firm with respect to the carrying on of all regulated activities, except to the extent that a contrary intention appears; and(2) not applying to a firm with respect to the carrying on of unregulated activities, unless and then only to the extent that a contrary intention appears.
(1) This rule applies to Handbook provisions20 where the PRA have made commensurate provisions in the PRA Rulebook. It may affect their application by the FCA to PRA-authorised persons and PRA approved persons20.3616151615(2) Where a Handbook provision (or part of one) goes beyond the FCA's20 powers or regulatory responsibilities, it is to be interpreted as applied20 to the extent of the FCA’s20 powers and regulatory responsibilities only.(3) The extent of a Handbook provision
An example of a rule20 being interpreted as cut back by GEN 2.2.23R is SYSC 6.1.1R, which requires a firm to maintain adequate policies and procedures to ensure compliance with its obligations under the regulatory system; SYSC 6.1.1R should be interpreted as applied by the FCA in respect of a PRA-authorised person’s compliance with regulatory obligations that are the responsibility of the FCA (for example, in respect of a bank maintaining policies and procedures to ensure compliance
A firm must communicate to the consumer all the contractual terms and conditions and the information referred to in the distance marketing disclosure rules (CONC 2.7.2 R to CONC 2.7.5 R) in a durable medium1. That information must be made available and accessible to the consumer in good time before the consumer is bound by any distance contract or offer.1[Note: regulation 8(1) of SI 2004/2095][Note: articles 4(5) and 5(1) of the Distance Marketing Directive]
In the case of a distance contract comprising an initial service agreement, followed by successive operations or a series of separate operations of the same nature performed over time, the rules in this chapter only apply to the initial agreement.[Note: regulation 5(1) of SI 2004/2095][Note: article 1(2) of the Distance Marketing Directive]
(1) If there is no initial service agreement but the successive or separate operations of the same nature performed over time are performed between the same contractual parties, the distance marketing disclosure rules (CONC 2.7.2 R to CONC 2.7.5 R) will only apply:(a) when the first operation is performed; and(b) if no operation of the same nature is performed for more than a year, when the next operation is performed (the next operation being deemed the first in a new series
(1) A firm must not enforce, or seek to enforce, any obligations under a distance contract against a consumer in the event of an unsolicited supply of services. The absence of a reply does not constitute consent.(2) This rule does not apply to the tacit renewal of a distance contract.[Note: regulation 15 of SI 2004/2095][Note: article 9 of the Distance Marketing Directive]
If a firm proposes to enter into a distance contract with a consumer that will be governed by the law of a country outside the EEA, the firm must ensure that the consumer will not lose the protection created by the rules in this section if the distance contract has a close link with the territory of one or more EEA States.[Note: regulation 16(3) of SI 2004/2095][Note: articles 12 and 16 of the Distance Marketing Directive]
A firm must communicate to the consumer all the contractual terms and conditions and the information referred to in the distance marketing disclosure rules in writing or another durable medium available and accessible to the consumer in good time before conclusion of any distance contract.[Note: article 5(1) of the Distance Marketing Directive]
In the case of a distance contract comprising an initial service agreement, followed by successive operations or a series of separate operations of the same nature performed over time, the rules in this section only apply to the initial agreement.[Note: article 1(2) of the Distance Marketing Directive]
If there is no initial service agreement but the successive operations or separate operations of the same nature performed over time are performed between the same contractual parties, the distance marketing disclosure rules will only apply:(1) when the first operation is performed; and(2) if no operation of the same nature is performed for more than a year, when the next operation is performed (the next operation being deemed to be the first in a new series of operations).[Note:
(1) A firm must not enforce, or seek to enforce, any obligations under a distance contract against a consumer, in the event of an unsolicited supply of services, the absence of reply not constituting consent.(2) This rule does not apply to the tacit renewal of a distance contract.[Note: article 9 of the Distance Marketing Directive]
If a firm proposes to enter into a distance contract with a consumer that will be governed by the law of a country outside the EEA, the firm must ensure that the consumer will not lose the protection created by the rules in this section if the distance contract has a close link with the territory of one or more EEA States.[Note: articles 12 and 16 of the Distance Marketing Directive]
5
For an EEA MiFID investment firm, in our view, rules in this chapter that are within the scope of MiFID apply only to its MiFID business to the exSUP 12 Annex 3Rtent they relate to the knowledge and competence of one or more of its UK tied agents. An EEA MiFID investment firm should complete the Appointed representative appointment form in when appointing a UK tied agent to carry on MiFID business on its behalf.
[Note: article 29(3) of MiFID]
5
In addition to those rules in SUP 12 relating to the MiFID business of appointed representatives and tied agents, there are other MiFID obligations in the Handbook relevant to the knowledge and competence of tied agents and related compliance obligations (see SYSC 5.1, TC and FIT (in respect of appointed representatives that are approved persons)). These provisions are subject to the territorial application requirements in their respective chapters.
The chapter also sets out the FCA'srules, and guidance on these rules, that apply to a firm before it appoints, when it appoints and when it has appointed an appointed representative. The main purpose of these rules is to place responsibility on a firm for seeking to ensure that: (1) its appointed representatives are fit and proper to deal with clients in its name; and (2) clients dealing with its appointed representatives are afforded the same level of protection as if they had
2This chapter also sets out:5(1) guidance about section 39A of the Act, which is relevant to a UK MiFID investment firm that is considering appointing an FCA registered tied agent; and5(2) the FCA’s rules, and guidance on those rules, in relation to the appointment of:5(a) an EEA tied agent by a UK MiFID investment firm;5(b) a MiFID optional exemption appointed representative; and5(c) a structured deposit appointed representative.5
10For a common platform firm:
- (1)
the MiFID Org Regulation applies, as summarised in SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2G, SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2-AR and SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2-BR; and
- (2)
the rules and guidance apply as set out in the table below:
Subject
Applicable rule or guidance
Competent employees rule, knowledge and competence and segregation11 of functions
SYSC 5.1.2G to SYSC 5.1.5AG, SYSC 5.1.5AAR, SYSC 5.1.5ABR, SYSC 5.1.5ACG to SYSC 5.1.5AEG,11SYSC 5.1.7R, SYSC 5.1.8G to SYSC 5.1.11G
Certification regime
10For a MiFID optional exemption firm and a third country firm:(a) the rules and guidance in this chapter apply to them as if they were rules or as guidance in accordance with SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2CR(1); and(b) those articles of the MiFID Org Regulation in SYSC 1 Annex 1 2.8AR and SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2CR apply to them as if they were rules or as guidance in accordance with SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2CR(2).
2If a firm requires employees who are not subject to a qualification7 requirement in TC to pass a relevant examination from the list of appropriate qualifications11 maintained by the FCA, or for the purposes of meeting its obligations under SYSC 5.1.5ABR11, the FCA10 will take that into account when assessing whether the firm has ensured that the employee satisfies the knowledge component of the competent employees rule.7777
11A firm must ensure, and be able to demonstrate to the FCA, at the FCA’s request, that any relevant individuals possess the necessary knowledge and competence so as to ensure that the firm is able to meet its obligations under:(1) those rules which implement articles 24 and 25 of MiFID (including those rules which implement related provisions under the MiFID Delegated Directive); and(2) related provisions of the MiFID Org Regulation.[Note: article 25(1) of MiFID]
UK RIEs1which, under their rules, have market contracts are required to have default rules enabling them (among other things) to take action in relation to a member who appears to be unable to meet his obligations in respect of one or more unsettled market contracts. The detailed recognition requirements relating to the default rules are set out in REC 2.17. 1
The default rules are designed to ensure that rights and liabilities between the defaulter and any counterparty to an unsettled market contract are discharged, and for there to be paid between the defaulter and each counterparty one net sum. The Companies Act 1989 contains provisions which protect action taken under default rules from the normal operation of insolvency law which might otherwise leave this action open to challenge by a relevant office-holder.
The Companies Act 1989 also gives the FCA1 powers to supervise the taking of action under default rules. Under section 166 of the Companies Act 1989 (Powers of the appropriate regulator1 to give directions) (see REC 4.5.4 G), the FCA1 may direct a UK RIE1to take, or not to take, action under its default rules. Before exercising these powers the FCA1 must consult the UK RIE.1 The FCA1 may also exercise these powers if a relevant office-holder applies to it under section 167 of
The Companies Act 1989: section 166
The FCA1 may issue a "positive" direction (to take action) under section 166(2)(a) of the Companies Act 1989: 1 |
|
Where in any case a [UK RIE] has not taken action under its default rules- if it appears to [the FCA] that it could take action, [the FCA may direct it to do so,1 1 |
|
but under section 166(3)(a) of the Companies Act 1989: |
|
Before giving such a direction the [FCA] shall consult the [UK RIE] in question; and [the FCA] shall not give a direction unless [the FCA] is satisfied, in the light of that consultation that failure to take action would involve undue risk to investors or other participants in the market, or that the direction is necessary having regard to the public interest in the financial stability of the United Kingdom, or that the direction is necessary to facilitate a proposed or possible use of a power under Part 1 of the Banking Act 2009 or in connection with a particular exercise of a power under that Part.1 1 |
|
The FCA1 may issue a "negative" direction (not to take action) under section 166(2)(b) of the Companies Act 1989: 1 |
|
Where in any case a [UK RIE] has not taken action under its default rules - if it appears to the [FCA] that it is proposing to take or may take action, [the FCA] may direct it not to do so.1 1 |
|
but under section 166(3)(b) of the Companies Act 1989: |
|
Before giving such a direction the [FCA] shall consult the [UK RIE] in question; and the [FCA] shall not give a direction unless [the FCA] is satisfied, in the light of that consultation that the taking of action would be premature or otherwise undesirable in the interests of investors or other participants in the market, or that the direction is necessary having regard to the public interest in the financial stability of the United Kingdom, or that the direction is necessary to facilitate a proposed or possible use of a power under Part 1 of the Banking Act 2009 or in connection with a particular exercise of a power under that Part.1 1 |
|
Under section 166(7) of the Companies Act 1989, where a UK RIE has taken action either of its own accord or in response to a direction, the FCA may direct it to do or not to do specific things subject to these being within the powers of the UK RIE under its default rules. However,11(1) 1where the UK RIE is acting in accordance with a direction given by the FCA to take action under section 166(2)(a) of the Act on the basis that failure to take action would involve undue risk to
Where, in relation to a member (or designated non-member) of a UK RIE :1(1) a bankruptcy order; or(2) an award of sequestration of his estate; or(3) an order appointing an interim receiver of his property; or(4) an administration or winding-up order; or(5) a resolution for a voluntary winding-up; or(6) an order appointing a provisional liquidator; has been made or passed and the UK RIE1 has not taken action under its default rules as a result of this event or of the matters giving
The procedure is that the FCA1 must notify the UK recognised body of the application and, unless within three business days after receipt of that notice, the UK recognised body: 1(1) takes action under its default rules; or(2) notifies the FCA1 that it proposes to take action forthwith; or1(3) is directed to take action by the FCA1 under section 166(2)(a) of the Companies Act 1989; 1the provisions of sections 158 to 165 of the Companies Act 1989 do not apply in relation to market
An actuary appointed under firms PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 6,6 must take reasonable steps to satisfy himself that he is free from bias, or from any conflict of interest from which bias may reasonably be inferred. He must take appropriate action where this is not the case.225
(1) Actuaries appointed under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 6,6 are subject to regulations5 made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator7). Section 343 and the regulations also apply to an actuary of an authorised person in his capacity as an actuary of a person with close links with the authorised person.47(2)
An actuary2 who has ceased to be appointed under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 66 or who has been formally notified that he will cease to be so 2appointed, must notify the appropriate regulator5 without delay:222525(1) of any matter connected with the cessation which he thinks ought to be drawn to the appropriate regulator's attention; or(2) that there is no such matter.
Where an ROIE1 has notice that any licence, permission or authorisation which it requires to conduct any regulated activity in its home territory has been or is about to be:1(1) revoked; or(2) modified in any way which would materially restrict the ROIE1 in performing any regulated activity in its home territory or in the United Kingdom;1it must immediately notify the FCA1 of that fact and must give the FCA1 the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 6.7.9
Table: To whom does COCON apply? 9
9Persons to whom COCON applies |
Comments9 |
(1) An SMF manager.9 |
|
(2) An employee (“P”) of an SMCR firm12 who:9 (a) performs the function of an SMF manager;9 (b) is not an approved person to perform the function in question; and9 (c) is required to be an approved person at the time P performs that function.9 |
|
(3) An employee of an SMCR firm12 who would be performing an FCA-designated senior management function12 but for SUP 10C.3.13R (The 12-week rule). 9 |
|
(4) A certification employee of an SMCR firm12.9 |
This applies even if the certification employee has not been notified that COCON applies to them or notified of the rules that apply to them.9 |
(5) An employee of an SMCR firm who would be performing an FCA certification function but for SYSC 27.5.1R (Emergency appointments) or SYSC 27.5.3R (Temporary12 UK role). 9 12 |
|
(6) Any employee of an SMCR firm12 not coming within another row of this table, except one listed in column (2) of this row (6) of this table12. 9 |
(A)12 This row (6)12 does not apply to an employee of an SMCR firm12 who only performs functions falling within the scope of the following roles:9 (a) receptionists; (b) switchboard operators; (c) post room staff; (d) reprographics/print room staff; (e) property/facilities management; (f) events management; (g) security guards; (h) invoice processing; (i) audio visual technicians; (j) vending machine staff; (k) medical staff; (l) archive records management; (m) drivers; (n) corporate social responsibility staff; (o) taking part in following activities of the firm:14 14 (i) the firm’s activities as a data controller; or 14(ii) the firm’s activities of data processing; as defined in the data protection legislation, but subject to Note (1) of this table14;data protection legislation;10 (p) cleaners; (q) catering staff; (r) personal assistant or secretary; (s) information technology support (ie, helpdesk); and (t) human resources administrators /processors. (B) This row (6) also does not apply to an employee of an SMCR insurance firm until 10 December 2019.12 |
(7) [deleted]12 9 |
9 |
(8) A board director of: a UK SMCR firm.12 9999 |
9 |
| 9 | |
14Note (1): A function is only within paragraph (o) of column (2) (Comments) of row (6) of this table if the function does not require the employee concerned to exercise a significant amount of discretion or judgment. |
|
(1) Rules SC1 to SC4 in COCON 2.2 apply to all senior conduct rules staff members (subject to (2)).9(2) SC1 to SC3 in COCON 2.2 do not apply to a senior conduct rules staff member within paragraph (d) of the definition of senior conduct rules staff member (P)12 unless P also falls into paragraph (a) or (b) of that definition.129
(1) COCON applies to the conduct of 6conduct rules staff set out in (2) 6wherever it is performed.(2) 6This rule applies to:(a) a senior conduct rules staff member; and(b) a certification employee performing FCA certification function (6)12 (material risk takers) in the table in SYSC 27.7.3R for a UK SMCR firm12.12
(1) This rule applies to members of a firm’sconduct rules staff apart from conduct rules staff in COCON 1.1.9R. 6522(2) Subject to (3), COCON only applies to the conduct of persons to whom this rule applies (as set out in (1)) if that conduct:6(a) 6is performed from an establishment maintained in the United Kingdom by the SMCR firm; or12(b) 6involves dealing with a client of the firm in the United Kingdom from an establishment overseas.5(3) 6Paragraph (2)(b) only applies to a
9For a common platform firm:
- (1)
the MiFID Org Regulation applies, as summarised in SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2G, SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2-AR and SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2-BR; and
- (2)
the rules and guidance in the table below apply:
Subject
Applicable rule or guidance
Provision of services
Identifying conflicts
Types of conflicts
Managing conflicts
Conflicts policy
- (3)
SYSC 10.1.7AR (Proportionality – insurance distribution activities), SYSC 10.1.8R (Disclosure of conflicts) and SYSC 10.1.11ABR (Contents of policy) also apply in relation to the carrying on of insurance distribution activities.12
(1) If arrangements made by a firm under SYSC 10.1.7 R9 are not sufficient to ensure, with reasonable confidence, that risks of damage to the interests of a client will be prevented, the firm must clearly disclose the following9 to the client before undertaking business for the client:93(a) the general nature or sources of conflicts of interest, or both; and9(b) the steps taken to mitigate those risks.9(2) The disclosure must:(a) be made in a durable medium; 9(b) clearly state
3Other firms (except common platform firms, UCITS management companies and insurance intermediaries12 )9 should take account of the rules relating to conflicts of interest policies (see SYSC 10.1.10 R and SYSC 10.1.11 R) in accordance with SYSC 1 Annex 1.3.2BR, SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2CR and SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.3R9.4
3The rules relating to:(1) types of conflict (see SYSC 10.1.4 R);(2) records of conflicts (see SYSC 10.1.6 R); and(3) conflicts of interest policies (see SYSC 10.1.10 R and SYSC 10.1.11 R);also apply to a firm which is not a common platform firm when it produces, or arranges for the production of, investment research that is intended or likely to be subsequently disseminated to clients of the firm or to the public10, and when it produces or disseminates non-independent research,10
5For a management company, references to client in SYSC 10.1.4 R and in the other rules in this section should be construed as referring to any UCITS scheme or EEA UCITS scheme managed by that firm or which it intends to manage, and with or for the benefit of which the relevant activity is to be carried on.
In accordance with rule SC 2 in COCON 2.2.1R5, it is the responsibility of each individual member of the governing body5 who is a senior conduct rules staff member5to understand, and ensure that the credit union complies with, the requirements of all the relevant Acts, secondary legislation and rules.
SYSC 9.1.1 R requires that a credit union takes reasonable care to make and retain adequate records of all matters governed by the Act or the CCA, 4 secondary legislation under the Act or the CCA, 4 or rules (including accounting records). These records should be capable of being reproduced in the English language and on paper.
The purposes of an internal audit are:(1) to ensure that the policies and procedures of the credit union are followed;(2) to provide the governing body5 with a continuous appraisal of the overall effectiveness of the control systems, including proposed changes;(3) to recommend improvements where desirable or necessary;(4) to determine whether the internal controls established by the governing body5 are being maintained properly and operated as laid down in the policy, and comply
The internal audit work programme should include items such as:(1) verification of cash (counting and reconciliation) without prior notification;(2) bank reconciliation (checking records against bank statements);(3) verification of passbooks or account statements;(4) checking for compliance with policies and procedures;(5) checking for compliance with relevant Acts, secondary legislation and rules;(6) checking minutes and reports of the governing body5 and other sub-committees
(1) Subject to (3), this22 section applies to the authorised fund manager and the depositary of a non-UCITS retail scheme and to an ICVC which is a non-UCITS retail scheme.(2) Where this section contains a reference to a rule in any of COLL 5.1 to COLL 5.5 , these rules and any rules to which they refer or any relevant guidance should be read as if any reference to a UCITS scheme is to a non-UCITS retail scheme.(3) Other than COLL 5.6.3R(1), 5.6.4AG, 5.6.14R, 5.6.15R, 5.6.22R(2),
(1) This section contains rules on the types of permitted investments and any relevant limits with which non-UCITS retail schemes must comply. These rules allow for the relaxation of certain investment and borrowing powers from the requirements of the UCITS Directive. Consequently, a scheme authorised as a non-UCITS retail schemewill not qualify for the cross border passporting rights conferred by the UCITS Directive on a UCITS scheme.(2) Some examples of the different investment
(1) An authorised fund manager must ensure that, taking account of the investment objectives and policy of the non-UCITS retail scheme as stated in its most recently published prospectus, the scheme property of the non-UCITS retail scheme aims to provide a prudent spread of risk(1A) For a feeder NURS, (1) applies only to the extent that the feeder NURS invests in assets other than units of its qualifying master scheme.17(2) Subject to (3) and (4), the 10rules in this section relating
(1) The scheme property of a non-UCITS retail scheme may, subject to the rules in this section, comprise any assets or investments to which it is dedicated.(2) For an ICVC, the scheme property may also include movable or immovable property that is necessary for the direct pursuit of the ICVC's business of investing in those assets or investments.(3) The scheme property must be invested only in accordance with the relevant provisions in this section that are applicable to that
(1) This rule does not apply in respect of a transferable security or an approved money-market instrument to which COLL 5.6.8R (Spread: government and public securities) applies21. (2) Not more than 20% in value of the scheme property is to consist of deposits with a single body.(3) Not more than 10% in value of the scheme property is to consist of transferable securities or money-market instruments issued by any single body subject to COLL 5.6.23 R (Schemes replicating an index).(3A)
(1) This rule applies in respect of a transferable security or an approved money-market instrument (“such securities”) that is issued or guaranteed by:21(a) 21an EEA State; or(b) 21a local authority of an EEA State; or(c) 21a non-EEA State; or(d) 21a public international body to which one or more EEA States belong.(2) The requirements in COLL 5.2.12 R (Spread: government and public securities) apply to investment in such securities21by a non-UCITS retail scheme, except for COLL
(1) 21A non-UCITS retail scheme that is not a feeder NURS may, if the conditions in (2) to (5) are met, invest in units of:(a) a feeder UCITS; or(b) a feeder NURS; or(c) a schemededicated to units in a single property authorised investment fund; or(d) a schemededicated to units in a recognised scheme.(2) (a) The relevant master UCITS must comply with COLL 5.2.13R(2), (3) and (4) as if it were the second scheme for the purpose of that rule.(b) The relevant qualifying master scheme,
(1) Any investment in land or a building held within the scheme property of a non-UCITS retail scheme must be an immovable within (2) to (5).(2) An immovable must:(a) be situated in a country or territory identified in the prospectus for the purpose of this rule; and(b) if situated in:(i) England and Wales or Northern Ireland, be a freehold or leasehold interest; or(ii) Scotland, be any interest or estate in or over land or heritable right including a long lease; or(c) if not
(1) The following requirements apply in relation to the appointment of a valuer:(a) the authorised fund manager must ensure that any immovables in the scheme property are valued by an appropriate valuer (standing independent valuer) appointed by the authorised fund manager; and(b) the appointment must be made with the approval of the depositary at the outset and upon any vacancy.18(2) The standing independent valuer in (1) must be:(a) for an AUT or ACS18, independent of the authorised
The following rules in Chapter 5 apply to a non-UCITS retail scheme:(1) COLL 5.2.7 R (Transferable securities);(2) COLL 5.5.1 R(Application) and COLL 5.5.2 R (Table of application)2;(3) COLL 5.5.3 R (Cash and near cash);(4) COLL 5.5.4 R (1), COLL 5.5.4 R (2), COLL 5.5.4 R (3) and COLL 5.5.4R (8) (General power to borrow);(5) COLL 5.5.5 R (1) and3COLL 5.5.5 R (2) (Borrowing limits);33(6) COLL 5.5.6 R (Restrictions on lending of money) ;(7) COLL 5.5.7 R (1), (2) and (4)2 (Restrictions
(1) In relation to a scheme which is an umbrella, the provisions in this section apply to each sub-fund as they would for a non-UCITS retail scheme.(2) A sub-fund may invest in or dispose of units of15 another sub-fund of the same umbrella (the second sub-fund) only if the following conditions are satisfied:1515(a) the second sub-fund does not hold units in any other sub-fund of the same umbrella;15(b) the conditions in COLL 5.2.16 R (Investment in other group schemes) and COLL
(1) A firm's risk management and compliance functions should have appropriate input into setting the remuneration policy for other business areas. The procedures for setting remuneration should allow risk and compliance functions to have significant input into the setting of individual remuneration awards where those functions have concerns about the behaviour of the individuals concerned or the riskiness of the business undertaken.(2) Contravention of (1) may be relied on as
(1) Taking account of the remuneration principles proportionality rule, the appropriate regulator8 does not generally consider it necessary for a firm to apply the rules referred to in (2) where, in relation to an individual ("X"), both the following conditions are satisfied:8(a) Condition 1 is that Xs variable remuneration is no more than 33% of total remuneration; and(b) Condition 2 is that Xs total remuneration is no more than 500,000.(2) The rules referred to in (1) are those
(1) A firm must ensure that a substantial portion, which is at least 50%, of any variable remuneration consists of an appropriate balance of:(a) shares or equivalent ownership interests, subject to the legal structure of the firm concerned, or share-linked instruments or equivalent non-cash instruments in the case of a non-listed firm; and(b) 3where possible other instruments which are eligible as Additional Tier 1 instruments or are eligible as Tier 2 instruments or other instruments
(1) A firm should reduce unvested deferred variable remuneration when, as a minimum:(a) there is reasonable evidence of employee misbehaviour or material error; or(b) the firm or the relevant business unit suffers a material downturn in its financial performance; or(c) the firm or the relevant business unit suffers a material failure of risk management.(2) For performance adjustment purposes, awards of deferred variable remuneration made in shares or other non-cash instruments
(1) Subject to (1A) to (3), the rules1 in SYSC 19A Annex 1.1R to 1.4R1 apply in relation to the prohibitions on Remuneration Code staff being remunerated in the ways specified in:11(a) SYSC 19A.3.40 R (guaranteed variable remuneration);(b) SYSC 19A.3.49 R (6deferred variable remuneration); and(c) (replacing payments recovered or property transferred).(1A) Paragraph (1) applies only to those prohibitions as they apply in relation to a firm that satisfies at least one of the conditions
(1) Sections 137H and 137I of the Act enables the FCA6 to make rules that render void any provision of an agreement that contravenes specified prohibitions in the Remuneration Code, and that provide for the recovery of any payment made, or other property transferred, in pursuance of such a provision. SYSC 19A.3.53A R and1SYSC 19A.3.54 R (together with SYSC 19A Annex 1) are such rules1 and render1 void provisions of an agreement that contravene the specified prohibitions on guaranteed
A notification required from a firm under any notification rule must be given in writing, and in English, and must be submitted on the form specified for that notification rule, or if no form is specified, on the form inSUP 15 Ann 4 R3 (Notification form), and must give the firm's Firm Reference Number unless:237(1) the notification rule states otherwise; or(2) the notification is provided solely in compliance with Principle 11 (see SUP 15.3.7 G).
Unless stated in the notification rule, or on the relevant form (if specified), a written notification required from a firm under any notification rule must be:2(1) given to or addressed for the attention of the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA4 and77(2) delivered to the FCA4 by one of the methods in SUP 15.7.5AR6.777
If a notification rule requires notification within a specified period:(1) the firm must give the notification so as to be received by the FCA4 no later than the end of that period; and 77(2) if the end of that period falls on a day which is not a business day, the notification must be given so as to be received by the FCA4 no later than the first business day after the end of that period. 77