Related provisions for SYSC 19D.3.28

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To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

IFPRU 1.2.2GRP
The articles in IFPRU 1.2.1 G do not always carry the same wording in describing what may be significant in terms of a firm's scope, nature, scale, internal organisation and complexity, but the articles have a general policy to restrict the application of those requirements to institutions which pose higher risks by virtue of broadly their size, types of business and complexity of activities. The FCA's policy is to apply an objective definition with pre-defined thresholds to determine
SUP 10C.12.33GRP
Where a firm is expanding or transforming its business model or its risk profile and there are identifiable upcoming milestones, the FCA may wish to link the duration of a candidate's approval to these milestones.
COLL 12.2.3RRP
A UK UCITS management company that operates an EEA UCITS scheme must in relation to that activity comply with the rules which relate to:(1) the organisation of the management company, including delegation arrangements;(2) risk-management procedures;(3) prudential rules and supervision;(4) operating conditions; and(5) reporting requirements.[Note: article 19(1) of the UCITS Directive]
SUP 10C.8.7GRP
[deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SUP 10C.5A.3G]44
SYSC 5.2.38GRP
[deleted] Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 27.8.9G]88
DTR 7.1.3RRP
An issuer must ensure that, as a minimum, the relevant body must:(1) monitor the financial reporting process and submit recommendations or proposals to ensure its integrity4;(2) monitor the effectiveness of the issuer’s internal quality control4 and risk management systems and, where applicable, its internal audit, regarding the financial reporting of the issuer, without breaching its independence4; (3) monitor the statutory audit of the annual and consolidated financial statements,
DISP App 3.7.8ERP
If a firm chooses to make this presumption, then it should do so fairly and for all relevant complainants in a relevant category of sale. It should not, for example, only use the approach for those complainants it views as being a lower underwriting risk or those complainants who have cancelled their policies.
SUP 7.3.2GRP
The FCA 5 may also5 seek to exercise its own-initiative powers in certain situations,5 including the following:55(1) If the FCA5 determines that a firm's management, business or internal controls give rise to material risks that are not fully addressed by existing requirements, the FCA5may seek to use its own-initiative powers.555(2) If a firm becomes or is to become involved with new products or selling practices which present risks not adequately addressed by existing requirements,
IPRU-INV 12.1.3GRP
Prudential standards have an important role in minimising the risk of harm to consumers by requiring a firm to behave prudently in monitoring and managing business and financial risks.
IPRU-INV 5 App 1.1GRP

1The following words or terms throughout IPRU-INV 5 appearing in bold (other than headings and titles) are to have the meanings given to them below if not inconsistent with the subject or context. If a defined term is italicised the definition appearing in the main Handbook Glossary applies.

Term

Meaning

accounting reference date

means:

(a)

the date to which a firm's accounts are prepared in order to comply with the relevant Companies Act legislation. In the case of a firm not subject to Companies Act legislation, the equivalent date selected by the firm; and

(b)

in the case of an OPS firm which is not subject to the relevant Companies Act legislation, the date to which the accounts of the OPS in respect of which the firm acts are prepared.

annual expenditure

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.5.1 (Determination).

category a body

means:

(a)

the government or central bank of a zone a country; or

(b)

EU or Euratom (the European Atomic Energy Community); or

(c)

the government or central bank of any other country, provided the receivable in question is denominated in that country's national currency.

category b body

means:

(a)

the European Investment Bank (EIB) or a multi-lateral development bank; or

(b)

the regional government or local authority of a zone a country; or

(c)

an investment firm or credit institution authorised in a zone a country; or

(d)

a recognised clearing house or exchange; or

(e)

an investment firm or credit institution authorised in any other country, which applies a financial supervision regime at least equivalent to the Capital Adequacy Directive.

counterparty

means any person with or for whom a firm carries on regulated business or an ancillary activity.

counterparty risk requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.11.1R (Counterparty risk requirement).

expenditure based requirement

means the requirement calculated in accordance with IPRU-INV 5.9.1R (Expenditure based requirement).

financial resources

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.2.3R (Financial resources).

financial resources requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.4.1R (Determination of requirement).

financial resources rules

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.2.

financial return

means quarterly financial return or monthly financial return as the case may be.

foreign exchange position

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.14.1R (Foreign exchange requirement).

investment

means a designated investment in the main Glossary.

investment business

means designated investment business in the main Glossary.

investment firm

has the meaning given to investment firm in the main Glossary except that it excludes persons to which MiFID does not apply as a result of articles 2 or 3 of MiFID.

Note: An investment firm is not necessarily a firm for the purposes of the rules.

investment manager

means a person who, acting only on behalf of a customer, either:

(a)

manages an account or portfolio in the exercise of discretion; or

(b)

has accepted responsibility on a continuing basis for advising on the composition of the account or portfolio.

liquid capital

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.3.1R (Calculation of own funds and liquid capital).

liquid capital requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.4.4R (Liquid capital requirement).

non-retail client

means a professional client or an eligible counterparty.

OPS or occupational pension scheme

means any scheme or arrangement which is comprised in one or more instruments or agreements and which has, or is capable of having, effect in relation to one or more descriptions or categories of employment so as to provide benefits, in the form of pensions or otherwise, payable on termination of service, or on death or retirement, to or respect of earners with qualifying service in an employment of any such description or category.

OPS firm

means:

(a)

a firm which:

(i)

carries on OPS activity but not with a view to profit; and

(ii)

is one or more of the following:

(A)

a trustee of the occupational pension scheme in question;

(B)

a company owned by the trustees of the occupational pension scheme in question;

(C)

a company which is:

(I)

an employer in relation to the occupational pension scheme in question in respect of its employees or former employees or their dependants; or

(II)

a company within the group which includes an employer within (I); or

(III)

an administering authority subject to the Local Government Superannuation Regulations 1986; or

(b)

a firm which:

(i)

has satisfied the requirements set out in (a) at any time during the past 12 months; but

(ii)

is no longer able to comply with those requirements because of a change in the control or ownership of the employer referred to in (a)(ii) during that period.

otc derivative

means interest rate and foreign exchange contracts covered by Annex III to the previous version of the Banking Consolidation Directive (i.e. Directive (2000/12/EC) and off balance sheet contracts based on equities which are not traded on a recognised or designated investment exchange or other exchange where they are subject to daily margin requirements, excluding any foreign exchange contract with an original maturity of 14 calendar days or less.

other assets requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.17.1R (Other assets requirement).

own funds

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.3.1R and IPRU-INV 5.3.2R, as applicable.

own funds requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.4.3R and IPRU-INV 5.4.4R (Own funds requirement), as applicable.

permitted business

means regulated activity which a firm has permission to carry on.

position risk requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.11.1R (Position risk requirement).

prescribed subordinated loan agreement

means the subordinated loan agreement prescribed by the appropriate regulator for the purposes of IPRU-INV 5.6.4R.

qualifying capital instrument

means that part of a firm's capital which is a security of indeterminate duration, or other instrument, that fulfils the following conditions:

(a)

it may not be reimbursed on the bearer's initiative or without the prior agreement of the appropriate regulator;

(b)

the debt agreement must provide for the firm to have the option of deferring the payment of interest on the debt;

(c)

the lender's claims on the firm must be wholly subordinated to those of all non-subordinated creditors;

(d)

the documents governing the issue of the securities must provide for debt and unpaid interest to be such as to absorb losses, whilst leaving the firm in a position to continue trading; and

(e)

only fully paid-up amounts shall be taken into account.

qualifying capital item

means that part of a firm's capital which has the following characteristics:

(a)

it is freely available to the firm to cover normal banking or other risks where revenue or capital losses have not yet been identified;

(b)

its existence is disclosed in internal accounting records; and

(c)

its amount is determined by the management of the firm and verified by independent auditors, and is made known to, and is monitored by, the FCA.

Note: Verification by internal auditors will suffice until such time as EU provisions making external auditing mandatory have been implemented.

qualifying property

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.7.1R (Qualifying property and qualifying amount defined).

qualifying subordinated loan

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.6 (Qualifying subordinated loans).

qualifying undertaking

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.7.3R (Qualifying undertakings).

readily realisable investment

means a unit in a regulated collective investment scheme, a life policy or any marketable investment other than one which is traded on or under the rules of a recognised or designated investment exchange so irregularly or infrequently:

(a)

that it cannot be certain that a price for that investment will be quoted at all times; or

(b)

that it may be difficult to effect transactions at any price which may be quoted.

regulated business

means designated investment business in the main Glossary.

relevant foreign exchange items

means:

(a)

all assets less liabilities, including accrued interest, denominated in the currency (all investments at market or realisable value);

(b)

any currency future, at the nominal value of the contract;

(c)

any forward contract for the purchase or sale of the currency, at the contract value, including any future exchange of principal associated with currency swaps;

(d)

any foreign currency options at the net delta (or delta-based) equivalent of the total book of such options;

(e)

any non-currency option, at market value;

(f)

any irrevocable guarantee;

(g)

any other off-balance sheet commitment to purchase or sell an asset denominated in that currency.

reporting currency

means the currency in which the firm's books of account are maintained.

specified trustee business

1.

means any investment business carried on in the UK by a trustee firm, but excluding each of the following activities:

(a)

Dealing or arranging deals in investments

(i)

where the deal is transacted or arranged by a trustee firm with or through a PTP; or

(ii)

where the dealing or arranging is done in the course of, or is incidental to, an activity of management falling within paragraph (b) below; or

(iii)

where the trust is a unit trust scheme and the deal is or the arrangements are made with a view to either an issue or sale of units in such a scheme to, or a redemption or repurchase or conversion of such units or a dealing in investments for such a scheme carried out by with or through, the operator or on the instructions of the operator; or

(iv)

where the trustee firm, being a bare trustee (or, in Scotland, a nominee) holding investments for another person, is acting on that person's instructions; or

(v)

where any arrangements do not or would not bring about the transaction in question.

(b)

Managing investments

(i)

where the trustee firm has no general authority to effect transactions in investments at discretion; or

(ii)

if and to the extent that all day-to-day decisions in relation to the management of the investments or any discrete part of the investments are or are to be taken by a PTP; or

(iii)

if and to the extent that investment decisions in relation to the investments or any discrete part of the investments are or are to be taken substantially in accordance with the advice given by a PTP; or

(iv)

where the trustee firm is a personal representative or executor and is acting in that capacity; or

(v)

where the trust is a unit trust scheme and all day-to-day investment decisions in the carrying on of that activity are or are to be taken by the operator of the scheme.

(c)

Investment advice

(i)

where the relevant advice:

(A)

does not recommend the entry into any investment transaction or the exercise of any right conferred by any investment to acquire, dispose of, underwrite or convert such an investment; and

(ii)

if and to the extent that the relevant advice is in substance the advice of a PTP; or

(iii)

where the relevant advice is given by the trustee firm acting in the capacity of personal representative or executor.

(d)

Establishing, operating or winding up a collective investment scheme including acting as trustee of an authorised unit trust scheme but only to the extent that such activities do not otherwise constitute specified trustee business.

(e)

Any trustee activity undertaken as trustee of an issue of debentures or government or public securities:

(i)

where the issue is made by a company listed on a recognised investment exchange or on a designated investment exchange (or by a wholly-owned subsidiary of such a company); or

(ii)

where the issue is listed or traded either on a recognised investment exchange or on a designated investment exchange or on the Société de la Bourse de Luxembourg; or

(iii)

where the issue is made by a government, local authority or international organisation; or

(iv)

where the aggregate amounts issued (pursuant to the trust deed or any deed supplemental thereto and ignoring any amounts redeemed, repurchased or converted) exceed the sum of £10,000,000.

2.

For the purpose of this definition of "specified trustee business":

(a)

a transaction is entered into through a person if that person:

(i)

enters into it as agent; or

(ii)

arranges for it to be entered into as principal or agent by another person and the arrangements are such that they bring about the transaction in question;

(b)

investment transaction means a transaction to purchase, sell, subscribe for or underwrite a particular investment and "investment decision" means a decision relating to an investment transaction;

(c)

debentures means any securities falling within article 77 of the RAO;

(d)

government or public securities means any securities falling within article 78) of the RAO;

(e)

government, local authority or international organisation means:

(i)

the government of the United Kingdom, of Northern Ireland, or of any country or territory outside the United Kingdom;

(ii)

a local authority in the United Kingdom or Anywhere; or

(iii)

an international organisation the members of which include the United Kingdom or another EEA State.

(f)

in determining the size of an issue of debentures or government or public securities made in a currency other than sterling, the amount of the issue shall be converted into sterling at the exchange rate prevailing in London on the date of issue.

total capital requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.4.5R (Total capital requirement).

trading book

in relation to a firm's business or exposures, means:

(a)

its proprietary positions in financial instruments:

(i)

which are held for resale and/or are taken on by the firm with the intention of benefiting in the short term from actual and/or expected differences between their buying and selling prices or from other price or interest-rate variations;

(ii)

arising from matched principal broking;

(iii)

taken in order to hedge other elements of the trading book;

(b)

exposures due to unsettled securities transactions, free deliveries, OTC derivative instruments, repurchase agreements and securities lending transactions based on securities included in (a)(i) to (iii) above, reverse repurchase agreements and securities borrowing transactions based on securities included in (a)(i) to (iii) above; and

(c)

fees, commission, interest and dividends, and margin on exchange-traded derivatives which are directly related to the items included in (a) and (b) above.

trustee activity

means, in relation to a firm, any activity undertaken in the course of or incidental to the exercise of any of its powers, or the performance of any of its duties, when

unit trust manager

means the manager of a unit trust scheme.

zone b country

means a country which is not a Zone A country in the Glossary.
IFPRU 11.7.4RRP
A firm or qualifying parent undertaking must notify the FCA by sending an e-mail to its usual supervisory contact.
REC 2.6.27GRP
2The FCA5 may also have regard to the extent to which the UK recognised body's rules, procedures and the arrangements for monitoring and overseeing the use of its facilities:5(1) include appropriate measures to prevent the use of its facilities for abusive or improper purposes;(2) provide appropriate safeguards for investors against fraud or misconduct, recklessness, negligence or incompetence by users of its facilities;(3) provide appropriate information to enable users of its
COLL 8.4.8RRP
(1) An authorised fund manager must, as frequently as necessary to ensure compliance with COLL 8.4.7 R (2) and COLL 8.4.7 R (4), re-calculate the amount of cover required in respect of derivatives and forwards positions in existence under this chapter.(2) Derivatives and forwards positions may be retained in the scheme property only so long as they remain covered globally under COLL 8.4.7 R.(3) An authorised fund manager must use a risk management process enabling it to monitor
IFPRU 4.5.2GRP
The FCA would not expect a firm to treat an obligor as part of a single obligor under IFPRU 4.5.1 G if the firm rates its exposures on a standalone basis or if its rating is notched. (For these purposes, a rating is notched if it takes into account individual risk factors or otherwise reflects risk factors that are not applied on a common group basis.) Accordingly, if a group has two members which are separately rated, the FCA will not expect that the default of one will necessarily
BIPRU 7.4.40RRP
A firm must safeguard against other risks, apart from the delta risk, associated with commodity options.
SUP 16.18.4EURP

Reporting to competent authorities

1.

In order to comply with the requirements of the second subparagraph of Article 24(1) and of point (d) of Article 3(3) of Directive 2011/61/EU, an AIFM shall provide the following information when reporting to competent authorities:

(a)

the main instruments in which it is trading, including a break-down of financial instruments and other assets, including the AIF's investment strategies and their geographical and sectoral investment focus;

(b)

the markets of which it is a member or where it actively trades;

(c)

the diversification of the AIF's portfolio, including, but not limited to, its principal exposures and most important concentrations.

The information shall be provided as soon as possible and not later than one month after the end of the period referred to in paragraph 3. Where the AIF is a fund of funds this period may be extended by the AIFM by 15 days.

2.

For each of the EU AIFs they manage and for each of the AIFs they market in the Union, AIFMs shall provide to the competent authorities of their home Member State the following information in accordance with Article 24(2) of Directive 2011/61/EU:

(a)

the percentage of the AIF's assets which are subject to special arrangements as defined in Article 1(5) of this Regulation arising from their illiquid nature as referred to in point (a) of Article 23(4) of Directive 2011/61/EU;

(b)

any new arrangements for managing the liquidity of the AIF;

(c)

the risk management systems employed by the AIFM to manage the market risk, liquidity risk, counterparty risk and other risks including operational risk;

(d)

the current risk profile of the AIF, including:

(i)

the market risk profile of the investments of the AIF, including the expected return and volatility of the AIF in normal market conditions;

(ii)

the liquidity profile of the investments of the AIF, including the liquidity profile of the AIF's assets, the profile of redemption terms and the terms of financing provided by counterparties to the AIF;

(e)

information on the main categories of assets in which the AIF invested including the corresponding short market value and long market value, the turnover and performance during the reporting period; and

(f)

the results of periodic stress tests, under normal and exceptional circumstances, performed in accordance with point (b) of Article 15(3) and the second subparagraph of Article 16(1) of Directive 2011/61/EU.

3.

The information referred to in paragraphs 1 and 2 shall be reported as follows:

(a)

on a half-yearly basis by AIFMs managing portfolios of AIFs whose assets under management calculated in accordance with Article 2 in total exceed the threshold of either EUR 100 million or EUR 500 million laid down in points (a) and (b) respectively of Article 3(2) of Directive 2011/61/EU but do not exceed EUR 1 billion, for each of the EU AIFs they manage and for each of the AIFs they market in the Union;

(b)

on a quarterly basis by AIFMs managing portfolios of AIFs whose assets under management calculated in accordance with Article 2 in total exceed EUR 1 billion, for each of the EU AIFs they manage, and for each of the AIFs they market in the Union;

(c)

on a quarterly basis by AIFMs which are subject to the requirements referred to in point (a) of this paragraph, for each AIF whose assets under management, including any assets acquired through use of leverage, in total exceed EUR 500 million, in respect of that AIF;

(d)

on an annual basis by AIFMs in respect of each unleveraged AIF under their management which, in accordance with its core investment policy, invests in non-listed companies and issuers in order to acquire control.

4.

By way of derogation from paragraph 3, the competent authority of the home Member State of the AIFM may deem it appropriate and necessary for the exercise of its function to require all or part of the information to be reported on a more frequent basis.

5.

AIFMs managing one or more AIFs which they have assessed to be employing leverage on a substantial basis in accordance with Article 111 of this Regulation shall provide the information required under Article 24(4) of Directive 2011/61/EU at the same time as that required under paragraph 2 of this Article.

6.

AIFMs shall provide the information specified under paragraphs 1, 2 and 5 in accordance with the pro-forma reporting template set out in the Annex IV.

7.

In accordance with point (a) of Article 42(1) of Directive 2011/61/EU, for non-EU AIFMs, any reference to the competent authorities of the home Member State shall mean the competent authority of the Member State of reference.

[Note: Article 110 of the AIFMD level 2 regulation]
CASS 6.1.23GRP
The rules in this chapter are designed primarily to restrict the commingling of client and the firm's assets and minimise the risk of the client'ssafe custody assets2 being used by the firm without the client's agreement or contrary to the client's wishes, or being treated as the firm's assets in the event of its insolvency.2
PERG 2.7.19IGRP
15A credit agreement is also an exempt agreement17 in the following cases:(1) if it is a borrower-lender agreement, the lender is a credit union and the rate of the total charge for credit (see CONC App 1) does not exceed 42.6 per cent provided that:42(a) the agreement is not an MCD regulated mortgage contract or an article 3(1)(b) credit agreement; or42(b) the agreement is an MCD regulated mortgage contract or an article 3(1)(b) credit agreement but:42(i) the agreement is of