Related provisions for PERG 8.3.4

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PR 1.2.1UKRP

Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FCA will be required:

85

(1)

It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made.

(2)

It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made.

(3)

A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable –

(a)

on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;

(b)

on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both.

(4)

A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.

(5)

Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R].

(6)

Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R].

(7)

"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities.

86

Exempt offers to the public

(1)

A person does not contravene section 85(1) if –

(a)

the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only;

(b)

the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 1502 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State;

(c)

the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount);

3

(d)

the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 100,0003 euros (or equivalent amounts);

33

(e)

the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered in the EEA states3 cannot exceed 8,000,000 euros (or an equivalent amount); or3

3

3(f)

the offer falls within subsection (1A).

3(1A)

An offer (“the current offer”) falls within this subsection where transferable securities are resold or placed through a financial intermediary where:

3(a)

the transferable securities have previously been the subject of one or more offers to the public;

3(b)

in respect of one or more of those previous offers, any of paragraphs (a) to (e) of subsection (1) applied;

3(c)

a prospectus is available for the securities which has been approved by the FCA and meets either of the conditions in subsection (1B);4 and

4

3(d)

the issuer or other person who was responsible for drawing up the prospectus has given written consent to the use of the prospectus for the purpose of the current offer.4

4(1B)

The conditions referred to in subsection (1A)(c) are:

(a)

that the prospectus was approved by the FCA no earlier than 12 months before the date the current offer is made, and is supplemented by every supplementary prospectus which was required to be submitted under section 87G; or

(b)

in the case of non-equity transferable securities falling within article 5(4)(b) of the prospectus directive, that the securities concerned have not ceased to be issued in a continuous or repeated manner.

(2)

Where -

(a)

a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within point (1) of Section 1 of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive3 to act as his agent; and

3

(b)

the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client,

an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client.

(3)

For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to –

(a)

trustees of a trust,

(b)

members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or

(c)

two or more persons jointly,

is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person.

(4)

In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which –

(a)

was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and

(b)

had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e).

(5)

For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account.

(6)

The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made.

(7)

"Qualified investor",6 in relation to an offer of transferable securities,3 means –

(a)

a person described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(b)

a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to that directive and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with that relevant firm (or each of those relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(c)

a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of that directive and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of that directive;3

3

3(d)

a person whom –6

6(i)

any relevant firm was6 authorised to continue to treat as a professional client immediately before 3 January 2018 by virtue of article 71.6 (transitional provisions) of Directive 2004/39/EC on markets in financial instruments; and6

6(ii)

the firm may continue to treat as a professional client from 3 January 2018 by virtue of Section II.2 of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive.

3(8)

In subsection (7) “relevant firm” means an investment firm or credit institution acting in connection with the offer.

3(9)

Investment firms and credit institutions which are authorised persons7 must communicate their classification of their clients as being or not being qualified investors on request to an issuer, subject to complying with data protection legislation7.

3(10)

In subsections (8) and (9) -

“credit institution” means -

(a) a credit institution authorised under the banking consolidation directive; or

(b) an institution which would satisfy the requirements for authorisation as a credit institution under that directive if it had its registered office (or if it does not have one, its head office) in an EEA State.
PR 1.2.2RRP
In accordance with section 85(5)(b) of the Act, section 85(1) of the Act does not apply to offers of the following types of transferable securities:(1) shares issued in substitution for shares of the same class already issued, if the issue of the new shares does not involve any increase in the issued capital;(2) transferable securities offered in connection with a takeover by means of an exchange offer, if a document is available containing information which is regarded by the
PR 1.2.3RRP
In accordance with section 85(6)(b) of the Act, section 85(2) of the Act does not apply to the admission to trading of the following types of transferable securities:(1) transferable securities referred to in article 1(5)(a) of the Prospectus Regulation5;(2) shares issued in substitution for shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same regulated market, if the issue of the shares does not involve any increase in the issued capital;(3) transferable securities
SYSC 19A.1.4GRP
Subject to the requirements of SYSC 19A.1.5 R, in the FCA’s7 view SYSC 19A.1.3 R does not require a firm to breach requirements of applicable contract or employment law.[Note: recital 697 of the CRD7]
SYSC 19A.1.7GRP
(1) 7In addition to the notification requirements in the Remuneration Code7 general circumstances in which the FCA7 expects to be notified by firms of matters relating to their compliance with requirements under the regulatory system are set out in SUP 15.3 (General notification requirements). (2) In particular, in relation to remuneration matters such circumstances should take into account unregulated activities as well as regulated activities and the activities of other members
SYSC 19A.1.8GRP
The FCA's policy on individual guidance is set out in SUP 9. Firms should in particular note the policy on what the FCA considers to be a reasonable request for guidance (see SUP 9.2.5 G). For example, where a firm is seeking guidance on a proposed remuneration structure the FCA will expect the firm to provide a detailed analysis of how the structure complies with the Remuneration Code, including the general requirement for remuneration policies, procedures and practices to be
SUP 5.1.1ARRP
7In respect of the FCA's power in section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons), reference to a firm in SUP 5.5.1 R, SUP 5.5.5 R and SUP 5.5.9 R includes a recognised investment exchange.
SUP 5.1.1BGRP
7In respect of the FCA's power in section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons), the guidance in this chapter applies to a recognised investment exchange in the same way as it applies to a firm.
SUP 5.1.3GRP
7The purpose of this chapter is to give guidance on the FCA’s4 use of the power in section 166 (Reports by skilled persons) and section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act. The purpose is also to make rules requiring a firm to give assistance to a skilled person and, where a firm is required to appoint a skilled person, to include certain provisions in its contract with a skilled person. These rules are designed to ensure that the
PERG 9.10.4GRP
The restrictions mentioned in PERG 9.10.3 G are subject to a number of exemptions. For example, the controls in sections 238 and 240 do not apply to financial promotions about certain kinds of collective investment scheme. These are:(1) open-ended investment companies formed in Great Britain and authorised by the FCA under the Open-ended Investment Companies Regulations 2001;(2) authorised unit trust schemes;6(2A) authorised contractual schemes; and6(3) collective investment schemes
PERG 9.10.6GRP
The FCA has also made rules under section 238(5) which allow authorised persons to communicate or approve a financial promotion for an open-ended investment company that is an unregulated collective investment scheme (that is, one that does not fall within PERG 9.10.4 G). The circumstances in which such a communication or approval is allowed are explained in COBS 4.12.4 R535
PERG 9.10.10GRP
7(1) A person carrying on the regulated activity of establishing, operating or winding up a collective investment scheme that is constituted as an open-ended investment company will need permission for those activities. In line with section 237(2) of the Act (Other definitions), the operator of a collective investment scheme that is an open-ended investment company is the company itself and therefore the starting point for an open-ended investment company that is incorporated
GEN 4.3.1BGRP
15An example for GEN 4.3.1A G would be where a letter covers business for which the FCA is the competent authority under the IDD10 and under MiFID.
GEN 4.3.2AGRP
15For a UK domestic firm that is not a PRA-authorised person, the required disclosure in GEN 4 Annex 1 R is "Authorised and regulated by the Financial Conduct Authority".
GEN 4.3.2BGRP
15For a UK domestic firm that is a PRA-authorised person, the required disclosure in GEN 4 Annex 1AR is "Authorised by the Prudential Regulation Authority and regulated by the Financial Conduct Authority and the7 Prudential Regulation Authority".
MAR 5.3A.3RRP
A firm must:(1) have written agreements with all investment firms pursuing a market making strategy on trading venues operated by it (market making agreements);(2) have schemes, appropriate to the nature and scale of a trading venue, to ensure that a sufficient number of investment firms enter into market making agreements which require them to post firm quotes at competitive prices with the result of providing liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis;(3) monitor
MAR 5.3A.7RRP
The firm must report the parameters mentioned in MAR 5.3A.6R to the FCA in writing, by electronic mail to an address for the usual supervisory contact of the firm at the FCA, and obtain an electronic confirmation of receipt.[Note: article 48(5) of MiFID]
MAR 5.3A.8RRP
A firm must have systems and procedures to notify the FCA if:(1) an MTF operated by the firm is material in terms of the liquidity of trading of a financial instrument in the EEA; and(2) trading is halted in that instrument.[Note: article 48(5) of MiFID]
SUP 10C.8.1RRP
2A person performs the other local responsibility function in relation to a branch maintained in the United Kingdom by an overseas SMCR firm4 if that person: (1) is performing:(a) a function allocated to that person under SYSC 26.3.1R (Main rules)4 in relation to the firm; or (b) FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility (z)4 in the table in SYSC 24.2.6R4 (functions in relation to CASS) allocated to that person under SYSC 24.2 (Allocation of FCA-prescribed senior management
SUP 10C.8.3GRP

Table: Examples of how the other local responsibility function applies

Example

Comments

(1) ‘A’ is allocated local responsibility for one of a branch’s main business lines. A is also appointed to perform a PRA-designated senior management function for the same branch.

A only needs approval to perform the PRA-designated senior management function.

(2) ‘A’ is outside the branch’s management structure and A’s responsibilities for the branch are limited to setting overall strategy for the branch. A does not have responsibility for implementing that strategy.

A is not performing the other local responsibility function. The reason for this is explained in SYSC 26.8.3G4. SUP 10C.8.1R(2) is irrelevant to this example.

4

(3) A small branch undertakes two business lines (wholesale lending and corporate investments). ‘A’ is head of wholesale lending and is also an executive director of the branch. ‘B’ is head of corporate investments and does not sit on the branch management committee but reports to it on corporate investments. The branch allocates local responsibility for these functions to A and B. Neither A nor B performs any other FCA-designated senior management function or PRA-designated senior management function4.

A only needs approval to perform the executive director function4. B needs approval to perform the other local responsibility function.

3

(4) A branch does not have a Head of Internal Audit. ‘P’ is allocated local responsibility for internal audit in relation to that branch.

P needs approval to perform the other local responsibility function. However, if P has already been approved to perform another FCA-designated senior management function or PRA-designated senior management function for that firm4, then P will not be performing the other local responsibility function.

(5) ‘A’ is appointed to perform the executive director function4. The same branch also allocates local responsibility for some branch functions to A.

3

A only needs approval to perform the executive director function4.

3

(6) ‘A’ is approved to perform the other local responsibility function. Later, A is appointed to perform the executive director function4 for the same firm.

3

A requires approval for the other local responsibility function when A is first appointed. When A is later approved to perform the executive director function4, A stops performing the other local responsibility function. The firm should use Form E to apply for approval for A to perform the executive director function and to notify the FCA that A is no longer performing the other local responsibility function.4

33

(7) ‘A’ is appointed to perform:

(a) the compliance oversight function for one firm (Firm X) in a group (which may or may not be an SMCR firm to which the other local responsibility function applies4); and

(b) a function coming within the scope of the other local responsibility function for the United Kingdombranch of4 another firm (which is an overseas SMCR firm to which the other local responsibility function applies4) in the same group (Firm Y).

A needs approval to perform the compliance oversight function for Firm X and the other local responsibility function for Firm Y.

(8) ‘A’ is appointed to take on some functions that come within the other local responsibility function. Later, A is appointed as chief risk officer. A is a type of firm for which being chief risk officer is a PRA designated senior management function.4

On A’s first appointment, A will need to be approved to perform the other local responsibility function.

On being approved as chief risk officer, A stops performing the other local responsibility function4.

(9) ‘A’ is appointed as an executive director. A then resigns and takes up a job with the same firm coming within the other local responsibility function4.

On A’s first appointment, A will need to be approved to perform the executive director function4. A will need to get approval to perform the other local responsibility function before A takes up their new responsibilities4.

3

Note: Local responsibility is explained in SYSC 26 (Senior managers and certification regime: Overall and local responsibility).4
SUP 10C.8.5GRP
[deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SUP 10C.8A.3G]4
PERG 6.6.2GRP
The 'assumption of risk' by the provider is an important descriptive feature of all contracts of insurance. The 'assumption of risk' has the meaning in (1) and (3), derived from the case law in (2) and (4) below. The application of the 'assumption of risk' concept is illustrated in PERG 6.7.2 G (Example 2: disaster recovery business).(1) Case law establishes that the provider's obligation under a contract of insurance is an enforceable obligation to respond (usually, by providing
PERG 6.6.3GRP
Contracts, under which the amount and timing of the payments made by the recipient make it reasonable to conclude that there is a genuine pre-payment for services to be rendered in response to a future contingency, are unlikely to be regarded as insurance. In general, the FCA expects that this requirement will be satisfied where there is a commercially reasonable and objectively justifiable relationship between the amount of the payment and the cost of providing the contract
PERG 6.6.7GRP
Under most commercial contracts with a customer, a provider will assume more than one obligation. Some of these may be insurance obligations, others may not. The FCA will apply the principles in PERG 6.5.4 G, in the way described in (1) to (3) to determine whether the contract is a contract of insurance.(1) If a provider undertakes an identifiable and distinct obligation that is, in substance an insurance obligation as described in PERG 6.5.4 G, then, other things being equal,
MAR 5A.5.3RRP
A firm must:(1) have written agreements with all investment firms pursuing a market making strategy on trading venues operated by it (market making agreements);(2) have schemes, appropriate to the nature and scale of a trading venue, to ensure that a sufficient number of investment firms enter into market making agreements which require them to post firm quotes at competitive prices with the result of providing liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis; (3) monitor
MAR 5A.5.7RRP
The firm must report the parameters mentioned in MAR 5A.5.6R to the FCA in writing, by electronic mail to an address for the usual supervisory contact of the firm at the FCA, and obtain an electronic confirmation of receipt.[Note: article 48(5) of MiFID]
MAR 5A.5.8RRP
A firm must have systems and procedures to notify the FCA if:(1) an OTF operated by it is material in terms of the liquidity of the trading of a financial instrument in the EEA; and(2) trading is halted in that instrument.[Note: article 48(5) of MiFID]
SUP 10C.1.2GRP
This chapter is also relevant to FCA-approved SMF managers of an SMCR firm5.
SUP 10C.1.5GRP
(1) 2SUP 10C.1.4R reflects the provisions of section 59(8) of the Act and, where relevant, the Treaty.(2) It preserves the principle of Home State prudential regulation. (3) For an EEA SMCR firm5, the effect is to reserve to the Home State regulator the assessment of fitness and propriety of a person performing a function in the exercise of an EEA right. A member of the governing body, or the notified3UKbranchmanager, of an EEA SMCR firm5, acting in that capacity, will not, therefore,
SUP 10C.1.8GRP
(1) SUP 10A.1.15R to SUP 10A.1.16DG (Appointed representatives) deal with the approved persons regime for appointed representatives of SMCR firms5. (2) In general this chapter does not apply to appointed representatives of SMCR firms5. SUP 10A applies instead.(3) In theory, a person employed by an appointed representative of an SMCR firm5 could come within one of the controlled functions in this chapter. If so, that person will be performing a senior management function and
FIT 2.1.1GRP
In determining a person's honesty, integrity and reputation, the FCA5 will have regard to all relevant 3matters including, but not limited to, those set out in FIT 2.1.3 G which may have arisen either in the United Kingdom or elsewhere. The FCA5 should be informed of these matters (see SUP 10A.14.17 R and SUP 10C.14.18R5), but will consider the circumstances only where relevant to the requirements and standards of the regulatory system. For example, under FIT 2.1.3 G(1), conviction
FIT 2.1.2GRP
In considering the matters in FIT 2.1.1 G, the FCA5 will look at whether the person's reputation might have an adverse impact upon the firm for which the controlled function is or is to be performed and at the person's responsibilities.5
FIT 2.1.3GRP
The matters referred to in FIT 2.1.1 G to which the FCA5 will have regard, and to which an SMCR firm6 should also have regard, 5include, but are not limited to:55(1) whether the person has been convicted of any criminal offence; this must include, where provided for by the Rehabilitation Exceptions Orders4to2 the Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974 or the Rehabilitation of Offenders (Northern Ireland) Order 1978 (as applicable)4, any spent convictions2; particular consideration
MCOB 5.9.1RRP
(1) 1A firm must, as soon as a customer expresses an interest in becoming a SRB agreement seller, ensure that the 2disclosures and warnings set out in (1A) are 2made to the customer2, both orally and confirmed in writing, and he is given an adequate opportunity to consider them. The firm must not demand or accept any fees, charges or other sums from the customer, or undertake any action that commits the customer in any way to entering into a specific agreement, until:2222(a) 2the
MCOB 5.9.3RRP
(1) A SRB intermediary2must ensure that, on first making contact with a prospective SRB agreement seller, whether or not he is the firm'scustomer, who is proposing to enter into a regulated sale and rent back agreement with an unauthorised SRB agreement provider, it provides him with the written warning in (2) before he enters into any such agreement.2(2) The warning in (1) is that:(a) the agreement provider is not authorised or regulated by the FCA, and that key protections under
MCOB 5.9.5GRP
A person may enter into a regulated sale and rent back agreement as agreement provider without being regulated by the FCA (or an exempt person) if the person does not do so by way of business. However, a SRB intermediary should at all times be conscious of its obligations under Principle 6 (Customers' interests). Should the firm have any reason to believe or entertain any suspicions that the SRB agreement seller may be proposing to enter into a regulated sale and rent back agreement
LR 1.4.1RRP
(1) If it appears to the FCA that there is, or there may be, a breach of the listing rules or the disclosure requirements6 and transparency rules4 by an issuer with a premium listing4, the FCA may in writing require the issuer to appoint a sponsor to advise the issuer on the application of the listing rules, the disclosure requirements6 and the transparency rules4.4(2) If required to do so under (1), an issuer must, as soon as practicable, appoint a sponsor to advise it on the
LR 1.4.3RRP
A listed overseas company must, if required to do so by the FCA, provide the FCA with a letter from an independent legal adviser explaining why compliance with a requirement referred to in LR 1.4.2 R is contrary to the law in its country of incorporation.
LR 1.4.6RRP
A document that is required under a listing rule to be filed, notified to a RIS, provided to the FCA or sent to security holders must be in English.
SYSC 4.1.1RRP
3(1) A firm must have robust governance arrangements, which include a clear organisational structure with well defined, transparent and consistent lines of responsibility, effective processes to identify, manage, monitor and report the risks it is or might be exposed to, and internal control mechanisms, including sound administrative and accounting procedures and effective control and safeguard arrangements for information processing systems.8(2) [deleted]1313[Note: article 74
SYSC 4.1.1FGRP
19SYSC 18 (Guidance on Public Interest Disclosure Act: Whistleblowing) contains further guidance on the effect of the Public Interest Disclosure Act 1998 in the context of the relationship between firms and the FCA.
SYSC 4.1.8GRP
The matters dealt with in a business continuity policy should include:(1) resource requirements such as people, systems and other assets, and arrangements for obtaining these resources;(2) the recovery priorities for the firm's operations; (3) communication arrangements for internal and external concerned parties (including the FCA21, clients and the press);(4) escalation and invocation plans that outline the processes for implementing the business continuity plans, together with
SYSC 4.1.9RRP
A 21management company10 must establish, implement and maintain accounting policies and procedures that enable it, at the request of the FCA20, to deliver in a timely manner to the FCA20 financial reports which reflect a true and fair view of its financial position and which comply with all applicable accounting standards and rules.[Note: 21article 4(4) of the UCITS implementing Directive]10
SUP 4.3.8GRP
The FCA9 is concerned to ensure that every actuary appointed by a firm under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 6,9 has the necessary skill and experience to provide the firm with appropriate actuarial advice from a conduct perspective9. SUP 4.3.9 R to SUP 4.3.10 G set out the FCA’s9 rules and guidance aimed at achieving this.11
SUP 4.3.11RRP
A firm must not appoint under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act or for the purposes of9 rule 6.1 of the PRA9 Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business,9 an actuary who is disqualified by the FCA10 under section 345 of the Act (Disciplinary measures: FCA) or the PRA under section 345A of the Act (Disciplinary measures: PRA10) from acting as an actuary either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm. 1181010
SUP 4.3.12GRP
If it appears to the FCA9 that an actuary1 has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it has9 the power to and10 may disqualify him under section 3459 of the Act. A list of actuaries who are disqualified may be found on the FCA10 website (http://www.fca.org.uk10).101011055110101010
LR 18.2.6GRP
The FCA may modify LR 18.2.5 R to allow partly paid securities if it is satisfied that their transferability is not restricted and investors have been provided with appropriate information to enable dealings in the securities to take place on an open and proper basis. [Note: Articles 46 and 54 CARD]
LR 18.2.7GRP
The FCA may, in exceptional circumstances, modify or dispense with LR 18.2.5 R where the issuer has the power to disapprove the transfer of securities if the FCA is satisfied that this power would not disturb the market in those securities.
LR 18.2.9GRP
The FCA may modify LR 18.2.8 R to accept a percentage lower than 25% if it considers that the market will operate properly with a lower percentage in view of the large number of certificates of the same class and the extent of their distribution to the public. For that purpose, the FCA may take into account certificates of the same class that are held (even though they are not listed) in states that are not EEA States. 1[Note: Article 48 CARD]
SUP 12.5.3GRP
(Subject to SUP 12.5.3AG) a 13firm should satisfy itself that the terms of the contract with its appointed representative (including an introducer appointed representative):13(1) are designed to enable the firm to comply properly with any limitations or requirements on its own permission;(2) require the appointed representative to cooperate with the FCA as described in SUP 2.3.4 G (Information gathering by the FCA on its own initiative: cooperation by firms) and give access to
SUP 12.5.3AGRP
13To the extent that the appointment of the appointed representative includes CBTL business, a firm should satisfy itself that the terms of the contract with its appointed representative:(1) are designed to enable the firm to comply properly with any direction issued or imposed under article 19 of the MCD Order; and(2) require the appointed representative to deal with the FCA in an open and co-operative manner and give access to its premises, as set out in SUP 2.3.4G and SUP 2.3.5R(2),
SUP 12.5.9GRP
8Under section 39A(6)(a) of the Act a UK MiFID investment firm must ensure that the contract it uses to appoint an FCA registered tied agent complies with the requirements that would apply under the Appointed Representatives Regulations17 if it were appointing an appointed representative.
SUP 12.5.10RRP
12A firm must ensure that, if appointing an appointed representative to carry on MCD credit intermediation activity, its written contract requires the appointed representative to provide such evidence to the FCA as to the knowledge and competence of the staff of the appointed representative, as the FCA may require from time to time. [Note: article 9(4) of the MCD]
TC 2.1.10AGRP
16TC Appendix 5G sets out:(1) the criteria which the FCA may take into account when assessing a qualification provider; and(2) the information the FCA will expect the qualification provider to provide if it asks the FCA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4E.
TC 2.1.30GRP
The Glossary definition of accredited body contains a list of bodies recognised by the FCA for the purpose of providing the independent verification required under TC 2.1.27 R. Information on accredited bodies, including guidance on the process for including a body in the list is set out inTC Appendix 6G and the obligation to pay the application fee is set out in FEES 3.2.1717
TC 2.1.31RRP
17A firm must notify the FCA as soon as reasonably practicable after it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that any of the following events has occurred or may have occurred in relation to any of its retail investment advisers, and the event is significant:(1) a retail investment adviser, who has been assessed as competent for the purposes of TC 2.1.1 R, is no longer considered competent for those purposes; (2) a retail investment adviser has failed to
TC 2.1.33GRP
17The Retail Investment Adviser Competence Notification Form approved by the FCA for notifications under TC 2.1.31 R may be found at the FCA's website www.fca.org.uk/firms/regulatory-reporting/adviser-reporting-requirements23.
LR 15.4.8RRP
Unless LR 15.4.8A R applies, a6closed-ended investment fund must :666166(1) submit any proposed material change to its published investment policy to the FCA for approval; and6(2) having obtained the FCA's approval, obtain the prior approval of its shareholders to any material change to its published investment policy.6
LR 15.4.8ARRP
6A closed-ended investment fund is not required to seek the FCA’s approval for a material change to its published investment policy if:(1) the change is proposed to enable the winding up of the closed-ended investment fund; and(2) the winding up: (a) is in accordance with the constitution of the closed-ended investment fund; and(b) will be submitted for approval by the shareholders of the closed-ended investment fund at the same time as the proposed material change to the investment
LR 15.4.28RRP
(1) 5A closed-ended investment fund is not required to comply with LR 9.2.23 R in so far as it relates to LR 9.2.2A R, LR 9.2.2E R and LR 9.2.2F R.(2) A closed-ended investment fund is not required to comply with LR 9.2.24 R to LR 9.2.25 R.
SUP 6.1.3AGRP
(1) 7In SUP 6 the "relevant regulator" is the regulator to which a firm with a Part 4A permission has made or can make (in accordance with SUP 6) an application to vary or cancel its Part 4A permission or to have imposed on it a new requirement or to vary or cancel any existing requirement (see SUP 6.2.3A G to SUP 6.2.3E G).(2) Where the PRA can only determine an application with the consent of the FCA, the FCA may request further information as if it were the relevant regulator.(3)
SUP 6.1.5GRP
This chapter also outlines the relevant regulator's powers to withdraw authorisation from a firm whose Part 4A permission7 has been cancelled at the firm's request.727
SUP 6.1.6GRP
7This chapter does not cover the FCA's use of its own-initiative variation power to vary or cancel a firm'sPart 4A permission or its own-initiative requirement power to impose, vary or cancel a requirement (see SUP 7 (Individual requirements) and EG 8 (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FCA's own initiative and intervention against incoming firms)).