Related provisions for SYSC 22.6.5

81 - 100 of 202 items.
Results filter

Search Term(s)

Filter by Modules

Filter by Documents

Filter by Keywords

Effective Period

Similar To

To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

COLL 6.6B.11RRP
A depositary appointed under COLL 6.6A.8R(3) must: (1) ensure that it has the infrastructure necessary to keep in custody UCITS custodial assets that can be registered in a financial instruments account opened in the depositary’s books; (2) establish adequate policies and procedures sufficient to ensure the compliance of the depositary, including its managers and employees, with its obligations under the regulatory system; (3) have: (a) sound administrative and accounting procedures
COLL 6.6B.30RRP
A depositary must have appropriate procedures for its employees to report potential or actual breaches of national provisions transposing the UCITS Directive internally through a specific, independent and autonomous channel. [Note: article 99d(5) of the UCITS Directive]
FEES 4.4.9DRP
3To the extent that a firm4 has provided the information required by FEES 4.4.7 D to the FCA as part of its compliance with another provision of the Handbook, it is deemed to have complied with the provisions of that direction.444
SYSC 10A.1.6RRP
A firm must take all reasonable steps to record telephone conversations, and keep a copy of electronic communications, that relate to the activities in financial instruments referred to in SYSC 10A.1.1R(2) (and that are not excluded by SYSC 10A.1.4R), and that are made with, sent from, or received on, equipment:(1) provided by the firm to an employee or contractor; or(2) the use of which by an employee or contractor has been accepted or permitted by the firm.[Note: article 16(7)
SYSC 10A.1.7RRP
A firm must take all reasonable steps to prevent an employee or contractor from making, sending, or receiving relevant telephone conversations and electronic communications on privately-owned equipment which the firm is unable to record or copy.[Note: article 16(7) of MiFID, eighth subparagraph]
SYSC 5.1.-2GRP

10For a common platform firm:

  1. (1)

    the MiFID Org Regulation applies, as summarised in SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2G, SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2-AR and SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2-BR; and

  2. (2)

    the rules and guidance apply as set out in the table below:

    Subject

    Applicable rule or guidance

    Competent employees rule, knowledge and competence and segregation11 of functions

    SYSC 5.1.2G to SYSC 5.1.5AG, SYSC 5.1.5AAR, SYSC 5.1.5ABR, SYSC 5.1.5ACG to SYSC 5.1.5AEG,11SYSC 5.1.7R, SYSC 5.1.8G to SYSC 5.1.11G

    Certification regime

    SYSC 5.2

SYSC 5.1.5AGRP
2If a firm requires employees who are not subject to a qualification7 requirement in TC to pass a relevant examination from the list of appropriate qualifications11 maintained by the FCA, or for the purposes of meeting its obligations under SYSC 5.1.5ABR11, the FCA10 will take that into account when assessing whether the firm has ensured that the employee satisfies the knowledge component of the competent employees rule.7777
SYSC 10.1.3RRP
A firm must take all appropriate9 steps to identify and to prevent or manage9 conflicts of interest between:3(1) the firm, including its managers, employees and appointed representatives (or where applicable, 2tied agents)2, or any person directly or indirectly linked to them by control, and a client of the firm; or2(2) one client of the firm and another client;that arise or may arise in the course of the firm providing any service referred to in SYSC 10.1.1R including those
SYSC 10.1.23RRP
6An AIFM must take all reasonable steps to identify conflicts of interest that arise, in the course of managing AIFs, between:(1) the AIFM, including its managers, employees or any person directly or indirectly linked to the AIFM by control, and an AIF managed by the AIFM or the investors in that AIF; or(2) an AIF or the investors in that AIF, and another AIF or the investors in that AIF; or(3) an AIF or the investors in that AIF, and another client of the AIFM; or(4) an AIF or
SUP 15.3.11RRP
(1) A firm must notify the FCA11 of:3535(a) a significant breach of a rule (which includes a Principle, a Statement of Principle or a COCONrule)20; or2020(aa) a significant breach of any requirement imposed by the CCA or by regulations or an order made under the CCA (except if the breach is an offence, in which case (c) applies), but any notification under (aa) is required to be made only to the FCA; or 14(b) a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations
SUP 15.3.17RRP
A firm must notify the FCA11 immediately if one of the following events arises and the event is significant:3535(1) it becomes aware that an employee may have committed a fraud against one of its customers; or(2) it becomes aware that a person, whether or not employed by it, may have committed a fraud against it; or(3) it considers that any person, whether or not employed by it, is acting with intent to commit a fraud against it; or(4) it identifies irregularities in its accounting
GENPRU 2.2.119GRP
For the purpose of GENPRU 2.2.118 R, an independent legal opinion may be given by an employee of that firm, but if an employee does so he should not be part of the business unit responsible for the transaction (including the drafting of the issue documentation).
8The analysis must be set out in writing and dated before the date of issue of the capital instrument and the firm must be able to show that the analysis has been fully considered as part of its decision to proceed with the issue. The analysis must be conducted by a person or persons appropriately qualified to assess the relevant risks and that person may be an independent adviser or an employee of the firm who is not part of the business unit responsible for the transaction
SUP 15.7.3GRP
The FCA4 is entitled to rely on any information it receives from a firm and to consider any notification received as being made by a person authorised by the firm to do so. A firm should therefore consider whether it needs to put procedures in place to ensure that only appropriate employees make notifications to the FCA4 on its behalf.7777
SYSC 4.4.6GRP

Frequently asked questions about allocation of functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R

Question

Answer

1

Does an individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 4.4.5 R need to be an approved person or a certification employee8?

An individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 4.4.5 R will be performing the apportionment and oversight function (CF 8, see SUP 10A.7.1 R17) and an application must be made under section 59 of the Act for approval of the individual before the function is performed. There are exceptions from this in SUP 10A.117 (Approved persons - Application).

The apportionment and oversight function does not apply to a relevant authorised person. However, a person performing the role in SYSC 4.4.5R will fall into the certification regime in SYSC 5.2 (Certification Regime), unless the person performing it is an approved person. A person performing the role in SYSC 4.4.5R may be an approved person because of another role that they perform (such as being an executive director).8

1717

2

If the allocation is to more than one individual, can they perform the functions, or aspects of the functions, separately?

If the functions are allocated to joint chief executives under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2, they are expected to act jointly. If the functions are allocated to an individual under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2, in addition to individuals under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3, the former may normally be expected to perform a leading role in relation to the functions that reflects his position. Otherwise, yes.

3

What is meant by "appropriately allocate" in this context?

The allocation of functions should be compatible with delivering compliance with Principle 3, SYSC 4.4.3 R and SYSC 4.1.1 R. The appropriate regulator considers that allocation to one or two individuals is likely to be appropriate for most firms.

4

If a committee of management governs a firm or group, can the functions be allocated to every member of that committee?

Yes, as long as the allocation remains appropriate (see Question 3). If the firm also has an individual as chief executive, then the functions must be allocated to that individual as well under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2 (see Question 7).

5

Does the definition of chief executive include the possessor of equivalent responsibilities with another title, such as a managing director or managing partner?

Yes.

6

Is it possible for a firm to have more than one individual as its chief executive?

Although unusual, some firms may wish the responsibility of a chief executive to be held jointly by more than one individual. In that case, each of them will be a chief executive and the functions must be allocated to all of them under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2 (see also Questions 2 and 7).

7

If a firm has an individual as chief executive, must the functions be allocated to that individual?

Normally, yes, under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2.

But if the firm is a body corporate and a member of a group, the functions may, instead of being allocated to the firm'schief executive, be allocated to a director or senior manager from the group responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division, so long as this is appropriate (see Question 3). Such individuals may nevertheless require approval under section 59 (see Question 1).

If the firm chooses to allocate the functions to a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of a relevant group division, the FSA would expect that individual to be of a seniority equivalent to or greater than a chief executive of the firm for the allocation to be appropriate.

See also Question 14.

8

If a firm has a chief executive, can the functions be allocated to other individuals in addition to the chief executive?

Yes. SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3, permits a firm to allocate the functions, additionally, to the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers as long as this is appropriate (see Question 3).

9

What if a firm does not have a chief executive?

Normally, the functions must be allocated to one or more individuals selected from the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3.

But if the firm:

(1) is a body corporate and a member of a group; and

(2) the group has a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division;

then the functions must be allocated to that individual (together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate) under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2.

10

What do you mean by "group division within which some or all of the firm's regulated activities fall"?

A "division" in this context should be interpreted by reference to geographical operations, product lines or any other method by which the group's business is divided.

If the firm's regulated activities fall within more than one division and the firm does not wish to allocate the functions to its chief executive, the allocation must, under SYSC 4.4.5 R, be to:

(1) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group; or (2) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of one of those divisions;

together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate. (See also Questions 7 and 9.)

11

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R apply to an overseas firm which is not an incoming EEA firm, incoming Treaty firm or UCITS qualifier?

The firm must appropriately allocate those functions to one or more individuals, in accordance with SYSC 4.4.5 R, but:

(1) The responsibilities that must be apportioned and the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to activities carried on from a UK establishment with certain exceptions (see

SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.8R). Note that SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.10R does not extend the territorial scope of SYSC 4.4 for an overseas firm.

(2) The chief executive of an overseas firm is the person responsible for the conduct of the firm's business within the United Kingdom (see the definition of "chief executive"). This might, for example, be the manager of the firm'sUK establishment, or it might be the chief executive of the firm as a whole, if he has that responsibility.

The apportionment and oversight function applies to such a firm, unless it falls within a particular exception from the approved persons regime (see Question 1).

12

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R apply to an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm?

SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.1R(2) and SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.8R restrict the application of SYSC 4.4.5 R for such a firm. Accordingly:

(1) Such a firm is not required to allocate the function of dealing with apportionment in SYSC 4.4.5R (1).

(2) Such a firm is required to allocate the function of oversight in SYSC 4.4.5R (2). However, the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to matters which the appropriate regulator, as Host State regulator, is entitled to regulate (there is guidance on this in SUP 13A Annex 2). Those are primarily, but not exclusively, the systems and controls relating to the conduct of the firm's activities carried on from its UK branch.

(3) Such a firm need not allocate the function of oversight to its chief executive; it must allocate it to one or more directors and senior managers of the firm or the firm'sgroup under SYSC 4.4.5 R, row (2).

(4) An incoming EEA firm which has provision only for cross border services is not required to allocate either function if it does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom; for example if they fall within the overseas persons exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order.

See also Questions 1 and 15.

13

What about a firm that is a partnership or a limited liability partnership?

The appropriate regulator envisages that most if not all partners or members will be either directors or senior managers, but this will depend on the constitution of the partnership (particularly in the case of a limited partnership) or limited liability partnership. A partnership or limited liability partnership may also have a chief executive (see Question 5). A limited liability partnership is a body corporate and, if a member of a group, will fall within SYSC 4.4.5 R, row (1) or (2).

14

What if generally accepted principles of good corporate governance recommend that the chief executive should not be involved in an aspect of corporate governance?

The Note to SYSC 4.4.5 R provides that the chief executive or other executive director or senior manager need not be involved in such circumstances. For example, the UK Corporate Governance Code5 recommends that the board of a listed company should establish an audit committee of independent,9 non-executive directors to be responsible (among other things) for overseeing the effectiveness9 of the audit process and the objectivity and independence of the external auditor9. That aspect of the oversight function may therefore be allocated to the members of such a committee without involving the chief executive. Such individuals may require approval under section 59 in relation to that function (see Question 1).

5

15

What about incoming electronic commerce activities carried on from an establishment in another EEA State with or for a person in the United Kingdom?

SYSC does not apply to an incoming ECA provider acting as such.

PERG 8.6.1GRP
The word ‘communicate’ is extended under section 21(13) of the Act and includes causing a communication to be made. This means that a person who causes the communication of a financial promotion by another person is also subject to the restriction in section 21. Article 6(d) of the Financial Promotion Order also states that the word ‘communicate’ has the same meaning when used in exemptions in the Order. Article 6(a) also states that the word ‘communication’ has the same meaning
SYSC 4.5.7RRP
[deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 25.2.3R]3
REC 2.7.1AUKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 7B

2(1)

The [UK RIE] must make transparent and non-discriminatory rules, based on objective criteria, governing access to, or membership of, its facilities.

(2)

In particular those rules must specify the obligations for users or members of its facilities arising from -

(a)

the constitution and administration of the [UK RIE];

(b)

rules relating to transactions on its trading venues4;

(c)

its professional standards for staff of any investment firm or credit institution having access to or membership of a financial market operated by the [UK RIE];

(d)

conditions established under sub-paragraph (3)(c) for access to or membership of a trading venue4 operated by the [UK RIE] by persons other than investment firms or credit institutions; and

(e)

the rules and procedures for clearing and settlement of transactions concluded on a trading venue4 operated by the [UK RIE].

(3)

4

[Note: see paragraph 9ZC below, replacing paragraph 7B(3)]4

(4)

Rules under this paragraph must enable -

(a)

an investment firm authorised under Article 5 of [MiFID], or

(b)

a credit institution authorised under the [CRD]4,

by the competent authority of another EEA State (including a branch established in the United Kingdom of such a firm or institution) to have direct or remote access to or membership of, any trading venue4 operated by the [UK RIE] on the same terms as a UK firm.

(5)

The [UK RIE] must make arrangements regularly to provide the [FCA]3 with a list of users or members of its facilities.

3

(6)

This paragraph is without prejudice to the generality of paragraph 4.

SUP 12.6.10GRP
66(1) The rules and guidance relating to training and competence in SYSC 3 and SYSC 5 and in TC for a firm carrying on retail business extend to any employee of the firm in respect of whom the relevant rules apply.15(2) The specific knowledge and ability requirements in SYSC 28.2 and TC 4.2 for a firm with Part 4A permission to carry on insurance distribution activities apply to a relevant employee (as defined in SYSC 28.1.2R and TC 4.2.3R) of the firm.15(3) For the purposes of
DISP 3.3.4RRP
The Ombudsman may dismiss a complaint413referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service before 9 July 2015 413without considering its merits if 413the Ombudsman413considers that:5(1) the complainant has not suffered (or is unlikely to suffer) financial loss, material distress or material inconvenience; or(2) the complaint is frivolous or vexatious; or(3) the complaint clearly does not have any reasonable prospect of success; or(4) the respondent has already made an offer of compensation
SUP 10C.14.26GRP
(1) The obligations to supply information to the FCA under:(a) SUP 10C; or(b) the sections of the Act listed in SUP 10C.14.22R;apply notwithstanding any agreement (for example, a 'COT 3' Agreement settled by the Advisory, Conciliation and Arbitration Service (ACAS)) or any other arrangements entered into by a firm and an employee upon termination of the employee's employment. (2) A firm should not enter into any such arrangements or agreements that could conflict with its obligations
REC 2.16.4GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body's arrangements for the investigation of complaints include appropriate arrangements for the complaint to be fairly and impartially investigated by an independent person (a "complaints investigator"), the FCA3 may have regard to:3(1) the arrangements made for appointing (and removing) a complaints investigator, including the terms and conditions of such an appointment and the provision for remuneration of a complaints investigator; (2)
SUP 12.3.4GRP
1SYSC 6.1.1 R requires a MiFID investment firm and a credit firm2to ensure the compliance of its appointed representative with obligations under the regulatory system. The concept of a relevant person in SYSC includes an officer or employee of a tied agent.
LR 15.2.12ARRP
1For the purposes of LR 15.2.11 R and LR 15.2.12-A R, the following are not independent:33(1) directors, employees, partners, officers or professional advisers of or to:(a) an investment manager of the applicant; or(b) a master fund or investment manager referred to in LR 15.2.11R (2); or(c) any other company in the same group as the investment manager of the applicant; or(2) directors, employees or professional advisers of or to other investment companies or funds that are:(a)
DISP 4.2.8RRP
None of the following is to be liable in damages for anything done or omitted to be done in the discharge (or purported discharge) of any functions in connection with the Voluntary Jurisdiction:316(1) FOS Ltd;(2) any member of its governing body;(3) any member of its staff;(4) any person acting as an Ombudsman for the purposes of the Financial Ombudsman Service;except where:(5) the act or omission is shown to have been in bad faith; or(6) it would prevent an award of damages being
LR 6.14.3RRP
1For the purposes of LR 6.14.1R and LR 6.14.2R, shares are not held in public hands if they are:(1) held, directly or indirectly by:(a) a director of the applicant or of any of its subsidiary undertakings; or(b) a person connected with a director of the applicant or of any of its subsidiary undertakings; or(c) the trustees of any employees’ share scheme or pension fund established for the benefit of any directors and employees of the applicant and its subsidiary undertakings;