Related provisions for GEN 1.1.2
261 - 280 of 640 items.
DTR 7.1 does not apply to:(1) any issuer which
is a subsidiary undertaking of
a parent undertaking where the parent undertaking is subject to:3(a) DTR 7.1, or to requirements implementing article 39 of the Audit Directive in any other EEA State; and3(b) articles 11(1), 11(2) and 16(5) of the Audit Regulation;3[Note: article 39(3)(a)3 of the Audit Directive](2) any issuer the sole
business of which is to act as the issuer of asset-backed
securities provided the entity makes a statement
(1) A proposal that an authorised fund should be involved in a scheme of arrangement is subject to written notice to and approval by the FCA under section 251 of the Act (Alteration of schemes and changes of manager or trustee), section 261Q of the Act (Alteration of contractual schemes and changes of operator or depositary)2 or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company). Effect cannot be given to such a change
(1) If a scheme of arrangement is entered into in relation to an authorised fund ("transferor fund") or a sub-fund of a scheme which is an umbrella ("transferor sub-fund"), an authorised fund manager must ensure that the unitholders of the transferor fund or sub-fund do not become unitholders of units in a collective investment scheme other than a regulated collective investment scheme.(2) For a UCITS scheme or a sub-fund of a UCITS scheme, (1) applies as if the reference to a
The FCA may, on a case-by-case basis, require a firm which does not meet any of the conditions in IFPRU 1.2.3 R to comply with the rules and requirements that apply to a significant IFPRU firm if the FCA considers it appropriate to do so to meet its strategic objective or to advance one or more of its operational objectives under the Act.
(1) A firm may apply to the FCA under section 138A of the Act to waive any one or more of the conditions in IFPRU 1.2.3 R if it believes that one or more of the governance requirements in (2) that apply to a significant IFPRU firm may be disproportionate to it. In its application for such waiver, the FCA expects the firm to demonstrate, taking into account size, nature, scope and complexity of its activities in the context of it being a member of a group and the internal organisation
(1) SUP 10C.12 describes the regime for conditional and time-limited approvals.(2) In particular, SUP 10C.12 sets out the FCA's policies on giving approval under section 59 subject to conditions or for a limited period only, as required by section 63ZD of the Act (Statement of policy relating to conditional approval and variation).(3) The policies described in SUP 10C.12 also apply when the FCA is considering whether to give its consent to an application made to the PRA for approval.(4)
The provisions in: (1) section 59 of the Act that say a firm should take reasonable care to ensure that no person performs a controlled function without approval (see SUP 10C.10.3G); and(2) section 63A of the Act, under which a person performing a controlled function without approval may be subject to a penalty (see SUP 10C.10.4G);apply not only to the performance of an FCA-designated senior management function by someone who has not been approved to perform that function but
Sections 59 and 63A of the Act show that failure to observe a condition does not in itself necessarily2 invalidate an approval. Instead, both the firm and the SMF manager may be subject to a penalty for breach of the Act. Such a failure may also:(1) involve a breach of FCArules by the firm and a breach by the SMF manager of COCON; and(2) call into question the fitness of the SMF manager.
This chapter gives guidance to a firm, which is considering appointing an appointed representative, on how the provisions of section 39 of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives) work. For example, it gives guidance on the conditions that must be satisfied for a person to be appointed as an appointed representative. It also gives guidance to a firm on the implications, for the firm itself, of appointing an appointed representative.
2This chapter also sets out:5(1) guidance about section 39A of the Act, which is relevant to a UK MiFID investment firm that is considering appointing an FCA registered tied agent; and5(2) the FCA’s rules, and guidance on those rules, in relation to the appointment of:5(a) an EEA tied agent by a UK MiFID investment firm;5(b) a MiFID optional exemption appointed representative; and5(c) a structured deposit appointed representative.5
In the3 case of a senior staff committee,3 the
decision will be taken by FCA3 staff who have not been directly involved in establishing the
evidence on which the decision is based
or by two or more FCA staff
who include a person not directly involved in establishing that evidence,3 except in accordance with section 395(3) of the Act.33
(1) 4A firm to which this rule applies must submit a Remuneration Benchmarking Information Report to the FCA annually.(2) The firm must complete the Remuneration Benchmarking Information Report in the format set out in SUP 16 Annex 33A.(3) The firm must submit the Remuneration Benchmarking Information Report to the FCA within four months of the firm'saccounting reference date.(4) A firm that:(a) is not part of a UK lead regulated group must complete that report on an unconsolidated
(1) A firm to which this rule applies must submit a High Earners Report to the FCA4 annually.104(2) The firm must submit that report to the FCA4 within four months of the end of the firm'saccounting reference date.104(3) A firm that is not part of a UK lead regulated group must complete that report on an unconsolidated basis in respect of remuneration awarded in the last completed financial year to all high earners of the firm who mainly undertook their professional activities
There is power in the Act for the Treasury to specify the circumstances in which a person is or is not to be regarded as carrying on regulated activities by way of business. The Business Order has been made using this power (partly reflecting differences in the nature of the different activities). As such, the business test for insurance distribution activity1 is distinguished from the standard test for 'investment business' in article 3 of the Business Order. Under article 3(4)
1If an individual appears to be unable to pay a regulated activity debt, or to have no reasonable prospect of doing so, then section 372 of the Act permits the FCA to petition for the individual's bankruptcy, or in Scotland, for the sequestration of the individual's estate. The FCA will petition for bankruptcy or sequestration only if it believes that the individual is, in fact, insolvent. In determining this, as a general rule, the FCA will serve a demand requiring the individual
1If the FCA believes that the individual is insolvent, the factors it will consider when it decides whether to seek a bankruptcy order or sequestration award include: (1) whether others have taken steps to deal with the individual's insolvency, including a proposal by the individual of a voluntary arrangement, a petition by the individual for his own bankruptcy or sequestration, or a petition by a third party for the individual's bankruptcy or the sequestration of the individual's
Another consequence of a breach of section 21 of the Act is that certain agreements could be unenforceable (see section 30 of the Act (Enforceability of agreements resulting from unlawful communications)). This applies to agreements entered into by a person as a customer as a consequence of a communication made in breach of section 21.
In assessing whether to terminate a relationship with an appointed representative, a firm should be aware that the notification rules in SUP 15 require notification to be made immediately to the FCA if certain events occur. Examples include a matter having a serious regulatory impact or involving an offence or a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or orders made under the Act by the Treasury.
If a contract with an appointed representative is terminated, or if it is amended in a way which gives rise to a requirement to notify under SUP 12.8.1R, a firm must take all reasonable steps to ensure that:(1) if the termination is by the firm, the appointed representative is notified in writing before, or if not possible, immediately on, the termination of the contract and informed that it will no longer be an exempt person for the purpose of the Act because of the contract
Section 333T of the Act (Funding of action against illegal money lending) requires the Treasury to notify the FCA of the amount of the Treasury’s illegal money lending costs. The FCA must make rules requiring authorised persons, or any specified class of authorised person, to pay to the FCA the specified amounts or amounts calculated in a specified way, with a view to recovering the amounts notified to it by the Treasury.
Under section 21(4) of the Act, the Treasury has the power to specify circumstances in which a person is viewed as ‘acting in the course of business’ or ‘not acting in the course of business’. The power under section 21(4) relates only to financial promotions and is distinct from the power in section 419 which relates to regulated activities. To date, the Treasury has not used the power in section 21(4). As a result, the phrase has its ordinary or natural meaning.
The FCA considers that ‘in the course of business’ requires a commercial interest on the part of the communicator. This does not necessarily have to be a direct interest. And the communicator does not need to be carrying on regulated activities (the test in section 19 of the Act) as or as part of his business. Neither does the communication need to be made in the course of carrying on activities as a business in their own right (the test in article 3 of the Financial Services
(1) The effect of section 59 of the Act is that if a person is to perform certain functions (which are known as controlled functions) for a credit union, the credit union should first apply for approval to:2(a) the FCA (if the controlled function is specified by the FCA in its rules); or2(b) the PRA (if the controlled function is specified by the PRA in its rules).2(2) The firm should not allow the person to perform that function until the firm receives the approval.2(3) A person
1Exceptionally, the FCA will consider making such a challenge using its powers in sections 356 and 357 of the Act after considering, in particular, the following matters: (1) The composition of the creditors of the company including the ratio of consumer to non-consumer creditors or the nature of their claims;
(2) whether the FCA has concerns, or is aware of concerns of creditors, about the regularity of the meeting or the identification of connected or associated
1This section applies to a firm:(1) communicating with a customer; or(2) communicating or approving a financial promotion other than:(a) a financial promotion that would benefit from an exemption in the Financial Promotion Order if it were communicated by an unauthorised person;(b) a promotion of an unregulated collective investment scheme that would breach section 238(1) of the Act if made by an authorised person (firms may not communicate or approve such promotions).
4As well as potentially breaching the requirements in this section, misleading statements by a firm may involve a breach of Principle 7 (Communications with clients) or section Part 7 (Offences relating to financial services) of the Financial Services Act 2012, as well as giving rise to private law actions for misrepresentation.
2In general, although the legislation governing transfers of engagements involves friendly societies is the Friendly Societies Act 1992, similar issues arise in these transfers as in insurance business transfers under Part VII of the Act and so the regulators would expect firms to be subject to a similar process followed under the Act. Accordingly, firms should usually first discuss the procedural aspects for dealing with friendly society transfers and amalgamations with the PRA.
For an amalgamation the successor society, and for a transfer the transferee, may need to apply for permission, or to vary its permission, under Part 4A2 of the Act. The regulators2 will need sufficient time before a transfer is confirmed2 to consider whether any necessary permission or variation should be given. If the transferee is an EEA firm or a Swiss general insurance company, then confirmation will be needed from its Home State regulator that it meets the Home State's solvency
The criteria that the appropriate authority2 must use in determining whether to confirm a proposed amalgamation or transfer are set out in schedule 15 to the Friendly Societies Act 1992. These criteria include that:2(1) confirmation must not be given if the appropriate authority2 considers that:2(a) there is a substantial risk that the successor society or transferee will be unable lawfully to carry out the engagements to be transferred to it;(b) information material to the members'
A public sector issuer that seeks admission of debt securities referred to in paragraphs 2 and 4 of Schedule 11A of the Act must submit to the FCA in final form a completed Application for Admission of Securities to the Official List.Note: The Application for Admission of Securities to the Official List form can be found on the UKLA section of the FCA's website.1
Under section 115 of the Act, the appropriate regulator3 has the power to give a certificate confirming that a firm possesses any necessary margin of solvency,1 to facilitate an insurance business transfer to the firm under overseas legislation from a firm authorised in another EEA State or from a Swiss general insurance company. This section provides guidance on how the appropriate regulator3 would exercise this power and on related matters.313