Related provisions for PERG 7.4.13
181 - 200 of 258 items.
1When deciding whether to petition on this ground the FCA will consider all relevant facts including: (1) whether the needs of consumers and the public interest require the company or partnership to cease to operate; (2) the need to protect consumers' claims and client assets; (3) whether the needs of consumers and the public interest can be met by using the FCA's other powers; (4) in the case of an authorised person, where the FCA considers that the authorisation should be withdrawn
A firm which permits direct electronic access to an MTF it operates must:(1) not permit members or participants of the MTF to provide such services unless they are: (a) investment firms authorised under MiFID; or(b) CRD credit institutions; or(c) third country firms providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under article 46.1 of MiFIR; or(d) third country firms providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under article
1The Money Laundering Regulations add to the range of options available to the FCA for dealing with anti-money laundering and anti-terrorist financing 2 failures. These options include2:• to prosecute a relevant person, including but not limited to an 2authorised firm, an 2Annex I financial institution or an auction platform, as well as any responsible officer2;2• to fine or censure a relevant person, including but not limited to an2 authorised firm, an2 Annex I financial institution
On becoming authorised by the appropriate regulator a firm will have to comply with the particular chapter of this sourcebook appropriate to its business. The firm will be able to seek guidance on this during the authorisation procedure. If subsequently, the business for which a firm has permission changes it may be necessary for it to comply with a different set of financial resources requirements.
Firms will be able to discuss this aspect with the appropriate regulator
An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must ensure a high level of security during the electronic data processing referred to in COLL 6.13.5 R as well as the integrity and confidentiality of the recorded information, as appropriate.[Note: article 7(2) of the UCITS implementing Directive]
Controlled activity and controlled investment are defined in Schedule 1 to the Financial Promotion Order and are listed in PERG 8.36.3 G and PERG 8.36.4 G. Broadly speaking, controlled activities and controlled investments are similar to regulated activities and specified investments under the Regulated Activities Order. However, with controlled activities, the exclusions set out in the Regulated Activities Order do not, in most cases, apply. It is important to note, however,
4For each 8sponsor service requiring the submission of a document to the FCA or contact with the FCA, a sponsor must:8(1) at the time of submission or on first making contact with the FCA8notify the FCAof the name and contact details of a key 8contact within8 the sponsor for that matter8; and8888(2) ensure that its key8contact : 88(a) has8 sufficient knowledge about the listed company or applicant and the proposed matter8to be able to answer queries from the FCA about it; 888(b)
(1) As a result of the new legal framework for threshold conditions described in COND 1.1A.1G (1), PRA-authorised persons and firms seeking to become PRA-authorised persons are subject to two sets of threshold conditions:(i) the FCA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(ii)and(ii) one of the two PRA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(iii) or (iv), depending on the PRA-regulated activities which the PRA-authorised person or firm carries on, or is
(1) 2SUP 10C.1.4R reflects the provisions of section 59(8) of the Act and, where relevant, the Treaty.(2) It preserves the principle of Home State prudential regulation. (3) For an EEA SMCR firm5, the effect is to reserve to the Home State regulator the assessment of fitness and propriety of a person performing a function in the exercise of an EEA right. A member of the governing body, or the notified3UKbranchmanager, of an EEA SMCR firm5, acting in that capacity, will not, therefore,
(1) Subject to (2) and (3), this section applies to a firm that carries on any distance marketing activity from an establishment in the UK, with or for a consumer in the UK or another EEA State.(2) This section does not apply to an authorised professional firm with respect to its non-mainstream regulated activities.(3) This section does not apply to an activity in relation to a consumer hire agreement.
Persons who may be carrying on the activity of advising on investments or making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments will only require authorisation or exemption if they are carrying on those activities by way of business. This is the effect of section 22(1) of the Act. Under section 419 of the Act, the Treasury has the power, by order, to require activities which would otherwise be treated as carried on by way of business to be treated as not carried on by
The matters referred to in FIT 2.1.1 G to which the FCA5 will have regard, and to which an SMCR firm6 should also have regard, 5include, but are not limited to:55(1) whether the person has been convicted of any criminal offence; this must include, where provided for by the Rehabilitation Exceptions Orders4to2 the Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974 or the Rehabilitation of Offenders (Northern Ireland) Order 1978 (as applicable)4, any spent convictions2; particular consideration
A person may enter into a regulated sale and rent back agreement as agreement provider without being regulated by the FCA (or an exempt person) if the person does not do so by way of business. However, a SRB intermediary should at all times be conscious of its obligations under Principle 6 (Customers' interests). Should the firm have any reason to believe or entertain any suspicions that the SRB agreement seller may be proposing to enter into a regulated sale and rent back agreement
1A firm must classify persons holding positions in commodity derivatives or emission allowances according to the nature of their main business, taking account of any applicable authorisation or registration, as:(1)
investment firms or credit institutions; or(2)
investment funds, either as a UCITS, or an AIF or an AIFM; or(3)
other financial institutions, including:(a) insurance undertakings and reinsurance undertakings as defined in the Solvency II Directive; and
(b) institutions
A firm (with the exception of a common platform firm and a 21sole trader who does not employ any person who is required to be approved under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements))3 must, taking into account the nature, scale and complexity of the business of the firm, and the nature and range of the financial services, claims management services and other23 activities undertaken in the course of that business:3103(1) (if it is 21a management company)10 establish,