Related provisions for PERG 7.4.13

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EG 16.4.2RP
1A disapplication order in relation to exempt regulated activities made against a member will be relevant should that member subsequently apply for authorisation under the Act. Whether or not such an application for authorisation is successful will depend on many factors, including the FCA's grounds for making the disapplication order. For example, if the order for disapplication of the exemption was made on the grounds of a breach of rules made under section 332(1) of the Act,
EG 2.3.1RP
1The FCA often takes a different approach to that described above where firms no longer meet the threshold conditions. The FCA views the threshold conditions as being fundamental requirements for authorisation and it will generally take action in all such cases which come to its attention and which cannot be resolved through the use of supervisory tools. The FCA does not generally appoint investigators in such cases. Instead, firms are first given an opportunity to correct the
PERG 7.7.3GRP
The FCA may revoke a certificate at the request of its holder or on the FCA's own initiative if the FCA considers that it is no longer justified. If the FCA revokes a certificate on its own initiative, it would normally expect to give advance notice to the holder of the certificate together with a statement of the reasons for the proposed revocation, and give the holder of the certificate an opportunity to make representations. Where a certificate is revoked, the holder of the
EG 7.5.5RP
1Rule1.5.33 in the FCA's Prudential Sourcebook for Insurers (INSPRU) prohibits a long- term insurer (including a firm qualifying for authorisation under Schedule 3 or 4 to the Act), which is not a mutual, from paying a financial penalty from a long-term insurance fund.
COLL 12.3.2GRP
(1) An EEA UCITS management company may be the authorised fund manager1 of an AUT or ACS,1 or the ACD of an ICVC, that is a UCITS scheme (see SUP 13A (Qualifying for authorisation under the Act)).1(2) An EEA UCITS management company that acts as the authorised fund manager1 of an AUT or ACS,1 or the ACD of an ICVC, that is a UCITS scheme may conduct its business from a branch in the United Kingdom or under the freedom to provide cross border services (without establishing a branch
COLL 12.3.5RRP
An EEA UCITS management company that manages a UCITS scheme must comply with the rules of the FCAHandbook which relate to the constitution and functioning of the UCITS scheme (the fund application rules), as follows:(1) the setting up and authorisation of the UCITS scheme (COLL 1 (Introduction), COLL 2 (Authorised fund applications), COLL 3 (Constitution), COLL 6.5 (Appointment and replacement of the authorised fund manager and the depositary), COLL 6.6 (Powers and duties of
COLL 6.9.2GRP
(1) Regulation 15(8)(f) of the OEIC Regulations (Requirements for authorisation) requires independence between the depositary, the ICVC and the ICVC's directors, as does section 243(4) of the Act (Authorisation orders) for the trustee and manager of an AUT, and section 261D(4) of the Act (Authorisation orders) for the depositary and authorised fund manager of an ACS6. COLL 6.9.3 G to COLL 6.9.5 G give the6FCA's view of the meaning of independence of these relationships. An ICVC,
COLL 6.9.11RRP
An ICVC must notify the FCA within 14 days of the occurrence of any of the following:(1) any amendment to the instrument of incorporation;(2) any change in the address of the head office of the ICVC;(3) any change of director;(4) any change of depositary;(5) in respect of any director or depositary, any change in the information mentioned in regulation 12(1)(b) or (c) of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation);(6) any change of the auditor of the ICVC;(7) any order
CONC 2.5.3RRP
A firm must:(1) where it has responsibility for doing so, explain the key features of a regulated credit agreement to enable the customer to make an informed choice as required by CONC 4.2.5 R;[Note: paragraphs 4.27 to 4.30 of CBG and 2.2 of ILG](2) take reasonable steps to satisfy itself that a product it wishes to recommend to a customer is not unsuitable for the customer's needs and circumstances;[Note: paragraph 4.22 of CBG](3) advise a customer to read, and allow the customer
CONC 2.5.8RRP
A firm must not:(1) make or cause to be made unsolicited calls to numbers entered on the register kept under regulation 25 or 26 of the Privacy and Electronic Communications (EC Directive) Regulations 2003 or to a customer who has notified the firm not to call the number being used to call; [Note: paragraph 3.9a of CBG](2) other than where:(a) [deleted]4(b) [deleted]4(c) [deleted]4(ca) (i) the firm has obtained the contact details of a customer (C) in the course of the sale or
COND 2.5.2GRP
(1) [deleted]1515(2) The FCA15 will also take into consideration anything that could influence a firm's continuing ability to satisfy the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2E and 3D of Schedule 6 to the Act15. Examples include the firm's position within a UK or international group, information provided by overseas regulators about the firm, and the firm's plans to seek to vary its Part 4A permission15 to carry on additional regulated activities once it has been granted
COND 2.5.6GRP
Examples of the kind of particular considerations to which the FCA may have regard when assessing whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, this threshold condition include, but are not limited to, whether:1515(1) the firm has been open and co-operative in all its dealings with the FCA15and any other regulatory body (see Principle 11 (Relations with regulators)) and is ready, willing and organised to comply with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system
SUP 12.2.2GRP
(1) A person (other than a firm with only a limited permission)15must satisfy the conditions in section 39(1) of the Act to become an appointed representative. These are that:(a) the person must not be an authorised person, that is, he must not have permission under the Act to carry on any regulated activity in his own right (section 39(1) of the Act); (b) the person must have entered into a contract with an authorised person, referred to in the Act as the 'principal', which:(i)
SUP 12.2.2AGRP
(1) 15Under sections 20(1) and (1A) of the Act (Authorised persons acting without permission), if an authorised person carries on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom, or purports to do so, otherwise than in accordance with his permission, he is to be taken to have contravened a requirement imposed by the FCA (in the case of a FCA-authorised person) or the FCA and the PRA (in the case of a PRA-authorised person).(2) In addition, under section 23(1A) of the Act (Contravention
PERG 2.5.1GRP
In addition to the requirements as to the business test and the link to the United Kingdom, two other essential elements must be present before a person needs authorisation under the Act. The first is that the investments must come within the scope of the system of regulation under the Act (see PERG 2.6). The second is that the activities, carried on in relation to those specified investments, are regulated under the Act (see PERG 2.7). Both investments and activities are defined
PERG 2.5.4GRP
It remains the Government's responsibility to ensure the proper implementation of MiFID2. Certain2persons subject to the requirements of MiFID2 must be brought within the scope of regulation under the Act. A core element of MiFID is the concept of investment firm.2 An investment firm is any person whose regular occupation or2 business is2 the provision of one or more2investment services to third parties or the performance of one or more investment activities on a professional
SUP 13.3.2GRP
A UK firm17 cannot establish a branch in another EEA State for the first time under an EEA right unless the relevant13 conditions in paragraphs 19(2), (4) and (5)12 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act are satisfied. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to contravene this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act). These conditions are that:913121213(1) the UKfirm has given the appropriate UK regulator,20 in accordance with the
SUP 13.3.6GRP
(1) Save where (1A) applies, if19 the appropriate UK regulator20 gives a consent notice, it will inform the UK firm in writing that it has done so.20(1A) If the UK firm’sEEA right derives from the IDD, where the appropriate UK regulator has given a consent notice and the Host State regulator has acknowledged receipt of that notice, the appropriate UK regulator must give written notice to the UK firm concerned that the Host State regulator has received the consent notice.19(2)
PERG 2.3.7GRP
5In the FCA's view the following factors are relevant in deciding whether a person (referred to in this paragraph as "an individual") is to be treated as carrying on his own business (in which case he may require authorisation unless an exemption or exclusion is available) or whether he is carrying on the business of the person for whom he works (in which case he will not require authorisation). In this paragraph, the person for whom the individual works is referred to as the
PERG 2.3.11GRP
5Although the overall relationship between a home collected credit provider (the principal firm) and a person providing the services described in PERG 2.3.10 G (the individual) will need to be taken into account, meeting the following criteria is likely to mean that the individual is carrying on the business of the principal firm (as its agent) and not his own, meaning that the individual does not require authorisation or to be exempt:(1) the principal firm appoints the individual
SUP 13.4.4GRP
8(2) [deleted]17(2A) If the UK firm’sEEA right derives from the IDD, paragraph 20(3B)(a) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the appropriate UK regulator to send a copy of the notice of intention to the Host State regulator within one month of receipt.198(2B) Where a consent notice is given under the UCITS Directive, the FCA20 will at the same time:1020(a) communicate to the Host State regulator details of the compensation scheme intended to protect investors; and10(b)
SUP 13.4.4-AGRP
(1) 14If the UKfirm'sEEA right derives from AIFMD (other than the EEA right to market an AIF (referred to in (3)) and the condition in (2) is met, paragraph 20(3D) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the FCA to:(a) send a copy of the notice of intention to the Host State regulator within one month of receipt; (b) include confirmation that the UKfirm has been authorised by the FCA under AIFMD; and(c) immediately inform the UKfirm that the notice of intention and confirmation
PERG 5.11.4GRP
The restrictions placed on the exclusions listed in PERG 5.11.3 G5 have the following effects:5(1) Unauthorised persons who:(a) introduce clients or customers to an independent financial adviser with a view to a transaction; or(b) deal as agent on behalf of their clients or customers with or though an authorised person; or(c) arrange for their clients or customers to enter into a transaction with or though an authorised person;will not be able to rely on articles 29 or 33 to avoid
PERG 5.11.6GRP
(1) The5 exclusion for groups and joint enterprises in article 69 of the Regulated Activities Order (Groups and joint enterprises) does not apply to transactions relating to contracts of insurance. This will affect5 a company providing services for:(a) other members of its group; or(b) other participants in a joint enterprise of which it is a participant.(2) Such companies might typically provide risk or treasury management or administration services which may include regulated
SUP 6.4.6GRP
(1) In addition to applying for cancellation of Part 4A permission24 in accordance with SUP 6.4.5 D, a firm may discuss prospective cancellations with its supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator.244 Alternatively a firm can contact the Contact Centre on 0300 500 0597.1424424241414(2) To contact the Cancellations Team: 424(a) write to: Cancellations Team, The Financial Conduct24Authority, 12 Endeavour Square, London, E20 1JN19; or24; or2424(b) email cancellation.team@fca.org.uk24(3)
SUP 6.4.18GRP
(1) A firm which is applying for cancellation of Part 4A permission and which is not otherwise authorised by, or under, the Act should, at the same time:15(a) comply with:15(i) SUP 10A.14.8R (for a firm that is not an SMCR firm20);15(ii) SUP 10C.14.5R (for an SMCR firm20); or15(iii) the corresponding PRA requirements; and15(b) notify the the FCA or PRA20 of persons ceasing to perform controlled functions specified by that regulator.15(2) These forms should give the effective date
SUP App 3.9.5GRP

3Table 2: MiFIDinvestment services and activities

Part II RAO Activities13

Part III RAO Investments

A MiFIDinvestment services and activities

1.

Reception and transmission of orders in relation to one or more financial instruments

Article 252

Article 76-81, 82B,12 83-85, 89

2.

Execution of orders on behalf of clients

Article 14, 21

A Article 76-81,82B,12 83-85, 89

3.

Dealing on own account

Article 14

Article 76-81, 82B,12 83-85, 89

4.

Portfolio management

Article 37 (14, 21, 25 - see Note 1) 2

Article 76-81, 82B,12 83-85, 89

5.

Investment advice

Article 53(1)10

Article 76-81, 82B,12 83-85, 89

6.

Underwriting of financial instruments and/or placing of financial instruments on a firm commitment basis

Article 14, 21

Article 76-81, 82B,12 83-85, 89

7.

Placing of financial instruments without a firm commitment basis

Article 21, 25

Article 76-81, 82B,12 83-85, 89

8.

Operation of Multilateral Trading Facilities

Article 25D5 (see Note 2)

5

Article 76-81, 82B,12 83-85, 89

12 9.

Operation of an OTF

Article 25DA (see Note 3)

Article 77, 77A, 78, 79, 80, 81, 82B, 83-85, 89

Ancillary services

Part II RAO Activities

Part III RAO Investments

1.

Safekeeping and administration of financial instruments for the account of clients, including custodianship and related services such as cash/collateral management

Article 40, 45, 64

Article 76-81, 82B,12 83-85, 89

2.

Granting credits or loans to an investor to allow him to carry out a transaction in one or more of the relevant instruments where the firm granting the credit or loan is involved

3.

Advice to undertakings on capital structure, industrial strategy and related matters and advice and services relating to mergers and the purchase of undertakings

Article 14, 21, 25, 53(1)10, 64

Article 76-80, 82B,12 83-85, 89

4.

Foreign exchange services where these are connected with the provision of investment services

Article 14, 21, 25, 53(1)10, 64

Article 83-85, 89

5.

Investment research and financial analysis or other forms of general recommendation relating to transactions in financial instruments

Article 53(1)10, 64 (see Note 4)13

Article 76-81, 82B,12 83-85, 89

6.

Services related to underwriting

Article 25, 53(1)10, 64

Article 76-81, 82B,12 83-85, 89

7.

Investment services and activities as well as ancillary services of the type included under Section A or B of Annex I related to the underlying of the derivatives included under Section C 5, 6, 7 and 10-where these are connected to the provision of investment or ancillary services.

Article 14, 21, 25, 25D,5 37, 53(1)10, 64

5

Article 83 and 84

Note 1. A firm may also carry on these other activities when it is managing investments.2

Note 2. A firm operating an MTF under article 25D5 does not need to have a permission covering other regulated activities, unless it performs other regulated activities in addition to operating an MTF.

5

Note 3. A firm operating an OTF under article 25DA does not need to have a permission covering other regulated activities, unless it performs other regulated activities in addition to operating an OTF.12

13Note 4: A firm which provides investment research and financial analysis or other forms of general recommendation relating to transactions in financial instruments does not need permission under article 53(1) of the Regulated Activities Order if it is appropriately authorised (see article 53(1) to (1D) of the Regulated Activities Order).

SUP App 3.9.6GRP

Table 2A: UCITS Directive activities

Part II RAO Activities

Part III RAO Investments

1.

The management of UCITS in the form of unit trusts / common funds or of investment companies; this includes the function mentioned in Annex II of the UCITS Directive (see Note 2).

Article 51ZA8

8

N/A (activity relates to property of any kind) (Note 3)8

88

2.

Managing portfolios of investments, including those owned by pension funds, in accordance with mandates given by investors on a discretionary, client-by-client basis, where such portfolios include one or more of the instruments listed in Section C 3of Annex I 3to MiFID3.

33

Articles 14, 21, 25, 37, 40 (arranging only),8 64

8

Articles 76-81, 82B,12 83-85, 89

3.

Investment advice concerning one or more of the instruments listed in Section C3of Annex I 3to MiFID3.

3

Articles 53(1)10, 64

Articles 76-81, 82B,12 83-85, 89

4.

Safekeeping and administration services in relation to units of collective investment undertakings.

Articles 40, 45, 64

Articles 76-81, 82B,12 83-85, 89

Note 1. A UCITS management company can only be authorised to carry on the non-core services set out in rows (3) and (4) of Table 2A if it is also authorised to carry on the activity set out in row (2) of the table (see COLL 6.9.9 R)8.

338

Note 2. The functions set out in Annex 2 to the UCITS Directive are:

1.

Investment management.

2.

Administration:

a.

legal and fund management accounting services;

b.

customer inquiries;

c.

valuation and pricing (including tax returns);

d.

regulatory compliance monitoring;

e.

maintenance of unit-holder register;

f.

distribution of income;

g.

unit issues and redemptions;

h.

contract settlements (including certificate dispatch);

i.

record keeping.

3.

Marketing.

8Note 3. The regulated activity of managing a UCITS may be carried on for property of any kind (article 4(2) of the regulated activities order). However, the scheme property of a UCITS scheme is limited to certain types of property, in line with COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers).

SUP 18.4.9GRP
For an amalgamation the successor society, and for a transfer the transferee, may need to apply for permission, or to vary its permission, under Part 4A2 of the Act. The regulators2 will need sufficient time before a transfer is confirmed2 to consider whether any necessary permission or variation should be given. If the transferee is an EEA firm or a Swiss general insurance company, then confirmation will be needed from its Home State regulator that it meets the Home State's solvency
SUP 18.4.26GRP
If authorisation or a Part 4A permission2 is needed, the appropriate authority2 will need to consider the application for authorisation or permission in the usual way. If the authorisation or permission is refused, confirmation cannot be given even if all the other criteria are met.222