Related provisions for CASS 5.5.27

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To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

MAR 10.1.1GRP
(1) 1The purpose of this chapter is to implement articles 57 and 58 of MiFID by setting out the necessary directions, rules and guidance.(2) In particular, this chapter sets out the FCA’s requirements in respect of: (a) articles 57(1) and 57(6) of MiFID, which require competent authorities or central competent authorities to establish limits, on the basis of a methodology determined by ESMA, on the size of a net position which a person can hold, together with those held on the
EG 10.2.2RP
1The broad test the FCA will apply when it decides whether to seek an injunction is whether the application would be the most effective way to deal with the FCA's concerns. In deciding whether an application for an injunction is appropriate in a given case, the FCA will consider all relevant circumstances and may take into account a wide range of factors. The following list of factors is not exhaustive; not all the factors will be relevant in a particular case and there may be
SYSC 7.1.18RRP
(1) 13A CRR firm that is significant must establish a risk committee composed of members of the management body who do not perform any executive function in the firm. Members of the risk committee must have appropriate knowledge, skills and expertise to fully understand and monitor the risk strategy and the risk appetite of the firm.(2) The risk committee must advise the management body on the institution’s overall current and future risk appetite and assist the management body
SYSC 4.3A.1RRP
1A common platform firm4 must ensure that the management body defines, oversees and is accountable for the implementation of governance arrangements that ensure effective and prudent management of the firm, including the segregation of duties in the organisation and the prevention of conflicts of interest, and in a manner that promotes the integrity of the market and the interests of clients4. The firm must ensure that the management body:(1) has overall responsibility for the
COBS 2.1.2RRP
A firm must not, in any communication relating to designated investment business seek to:(1) exclude or restrict; or(2) rely on any exclusion or restriction of;any duty or liability it may have to a client under the regulatory system.
SUP 12.2.18GRP
(1) 20 If a MiFID investment firm or a third country investment firm appoints a person to act under its full and unconditional responsibility but only for the purpose of selling, or advising clients in relation to, structured deposits (and not any of the activities within article 4(1)(29) of MiFID), that person will not be a tied agent in respect of that activity.(2) Unless otherwise provided, this chapter applies to a firm that appoints a structured deposit appointed representative
COBS 4.6.9RRP
(1) 1A firm that communicates to a client a projection for a packaged product which is not a financial instrument2must ensure that the projection complies with the projectionsrules in COBS 13.4, COBS 13.5 and COBS 13 Annex 2.2(2) A firm must not communicate a projection for a highly volatile product to a client unless the product is a financial instrument.
EG 15.2.1RP
1The FCA recognises that the use of its powers to disqualify auditors and actuaries will have serious consequences for the auditors or actuaries concerned and their clients; it will therefore exercise its power to impose a disqualification in a way that is proportionate to the particular breach of duty concerned. The FCA will consider the seriousness of the breach of duty when deciding whether to exercise its power to disqualify and the scope of any disqualification.
SYSC 9.1.1RRP
A firm (other than a common platform firm)5 must arrange for orderly records to be kept of its business and internal organisation, including all services and transactions undertaken by it, which must be sufficient to enable the FCA5 or any other relevant competent authority under 5the UCITS Directive4 to monitor the firm's compliance with the requirements under the regulatory system, and in particular to ascertain that the firm has complied with all obligations with respect to
REC 2A.4.3GRP
The provisions of the auction regulation referred to in REC 2A.4.1 G are directly applicable to an RAP and require it to, in summary:(1) only grant admission to bid to applicants that comply with the conditions set out in article 19 of the auction regulation, including the prerequisite that the applicants are eligible to bid in accordance with article 18 of the auction regulation;(2) require an applicant for admission to bid to ensure that its clients, and the clients of its clients,
COBS 3.1.2GRP
This chapter relates to parts of the Handbook whose application depends on whether a person is a client, a retail client, a professional client or an eligible counterparty. However, it does not apply to the extent that another part of the Handbook provides for a different approach to client categorisation. For example, a separate approach to client categorisation is set out in the definition of a retail client for a firm that gives basic advice2.
COBS 18.1.6GRP
Where an applicable rule in COBS requires the doing of any thing in relation to a client, the trustee firm should consider who, in the context of that rule and having regard to the particular trust arrangement, is the most appropriate person to treat as its client. This might, for example, be the beneficiary, another trustee or the trust, depending on the particular circumstances.
COCON 4.1.1GRP
The following is a non-exhaustive list of examples of conduct that would be in breach of rule 1.(1) Misleading (or attempting to mislead) by act or omission:(a) a client; or(b) the firm for whom the person works (or its auditors); or(c) the FCA or;(d) the PRA.(2) Falsifying documents.(3) Misleading a client about:(a) the risks of an investment;(b) the charges or surrender penalties of products;(c) the likely performance of products by providing inappropriate projections of future
PERG 2.4.2GRP
Even with a cross-border element a person may still be carrying on an activity 'in the United Kingdom'. For example, a person who is situated in the United Kingdom and who is safeguarding and administering investments will be carrying on activities in the United Kingdom even though his client may be overseas.
REC 2.11.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body has made satisfactory arrangements for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to the users of its facilities, the FCA3 may have regard to: 3(1) the level of protection which the arrangements provide against the risk of theft or other types or causes of loss;(2) whether the arrangements ensure that assets are only used or transferred in accordance with the instructions of the owner of those assets or in accordance with
PR 1.2.1UKRP

Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FCA will be required:

85

(1)

It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made.

(2)

It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made.

(3)

A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable –

(a)

on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;

(b)

on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both.

(4)

A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.

(5)

Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R].

(6)

Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R].

(7)

"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities.

86

Exempt offers to the public

(1)

A person does not contravene section 85(1) if –

(a)

the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only;

(b)

the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 1502 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State;

(c)

the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount);

3

(d)

the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 100,0003 euros (or equivalent amounts);

33

(e)

the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered in the EEA states3 cannot exceed 8,000,000 euros (or an equivalent amount); or3

3

3(f)

the offer falls within subsection (1A).

3(1A)

An offer (“the current offer”) falls within this subsection where transferable securities are resold or placed through a financial intermediary where:

3(a)

the transferable securities have previously been the subject of one or more offers to the public;

3(b)

in respect of one or more of those previous offers, any of paragraphs (a) to (e) of subsection (1) applied;

3(c)

a prospectus is available for the securities which has been approved by the FCA and meets either of the conditions in subsection (1B);4 and

4

3(d)

the issuer or other person who was responsible for drawing up the prospectus has given written consent to the use of the prospectus for the purpose of the current offer.4

4(1B)

The conditions referred to in subsection (1A)(c) are:

(a)

that the prospectus was approved by the FCA no earlier than 12 months before the date the current offer is made, and is supplemented by every supplementary prospectus which was required to be submitted under section 87G; or

(b)

in the case of non-equity transferable securities falling within article 5(4)(b) of the prospectus directive, that the securities concerned have not ceased to be issued in a continuous or repeated manner.

(2)

Where -

(a)

a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within point (1) of Section 1 of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive3 to act as his agent; and

3

(b)

the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client,

an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client.

(3)

For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to –

(a)

trustees of a trust,

(b)

members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or

(c)

two or more persons jointly,

is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person.

(4)

In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which –

(a)

was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and

(b)

had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e).

(5)

For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account.

(6)

The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made.

(7)

"Qualified investor",6 in relation to an offer of transferable securities,3 means –

(a)

a person described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(b)

a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to that directive and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with that relevant firm (or each of those relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(c)

a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of that directive and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of that directive;3

3

3(d)

a person whom –6

6(i)

any relevant firm was6 authorised to continue to treat as a professional client immediately before 3 January 2018 by virtue of article 71.6 (transitional provisions) of Directive 2004/39/EC on markets in financial instruments; and6

6(ii)

the firm may continue to treat as a professional client from 3 January 2018 by virtue of Section II.2 of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive.

3(8)

In subsection (7) “relevant firm” means an investment firm or credit institution acting in connection with the offer.

3(9)

Investment firms and credit institutions which are authorised persons7 must communicate their classification of their clients as being or not being qualified investors on request to an issuer, subject to complying with data protection legislation7.

3(10)

In subsections (8) and (9) -

“credit institution” means -

(a) a credit institution authorised under the banking consolidation directive; or

(b) an institution which would satisfy the requirements for authorisation as a credit institution under that directive if it had its registered office (or if it does not have one, its head office) in an EEA State.
COBS 3.2.3RRP
(1) If a firm provides services to a person that is acting as an agent, the identity of its client will be determined in accordance with the rule on agents as clients (see COBS 2.4.3 R).(2) In relation to a firm establishing, operating or winding up a personal pension scheme or a stakeholder pension scheme, a member or beneficiary of that scheme is a client of the firm.(3) If a firm that does not fall within (2) provides services to a person that is acting as the trustee of a
REC 6.6.2GRP
The following events are examples of events likely to affect an assessment of whether an ROIE1 is continuing to satisfy the recognition requirements11(1) significant changes to any relevant law or regulation in its home territory, including laws or regulations:(a) governing exchanges or, if relevant to an ROIE's satisfaction of the recognition requirements,1clearing houses;(b) designed to prevent insider dealing, market manipulation or other forms of market abuse or misconduct;(c)