Related provisions for LR 11.1.1D
161 - 180 of 1123 items.
(1) 1This rule applies to a UK firm operating a multilateral trading facility or an OTF and a UK branch of a third country investment firm operating a multilateral trading facility or an OTF.(2)
A firm must make public and provide to the FCA and ESMA a weekly report with the aggregate positions held by the different categories of persons for the different commodity derivatives or emission allowances traded on the trading venue, where those instruments meet the criteria of article
(1) 1This direction applies to:(a)
a UK firm operating a multilateral trading facility or an OTF; and
(b) a UK branch of a third country investment firm operating a multilateral trading facility or an OTF.(2)
A firm shall report to the FCA:
(a) (where it meets the minimum threshold as specified in article 83 of the MiFID Org Regulation) the weekly report referred to in MAR 10.4.3R(2), by using the form set out in Annex I of MiFID ITS 4, and publish it on its website and provide
1For the purposes of making the weekly report referred to under MAR 10.4.3R(2), the FCA will accept an email containing a link to the report, as published on the firm’s website. Emails should be sent to the FCA at COT_reports@fca.org.uk. This guidance does not affect the separate obligation for a firm to make the weekly report to ESMA.
(1) 1This direction applies to:(a)
a UK MiFID investment firm; and
(b) a UK branch of a third country investment firm.
(2) An investment firm in (1) trading in a commodity derivative or emission allowance outside a trading venue must, where the FCA is the competent authority of the trading venue where that commodity derivative or emission allowance is traded, provide the FCA with a report containing a complete breakdown of:(a)
their positions taken in those commodity derivatives
(1) 1This direction applies to:
(a) a UK MiFID investment firm; and
(b) a UK branch of a third country investment firm.
(2) An investment firm in (1) trading in a commodity derivative or emission allowance outside a trading venue must, where an EEA competent authority other than the FCA is the competent authority of the trading venue where that commodity derivative or emission allowance is traded, or the central competent authority for the purposes of that commodity derivative,
(1) 1This direction applies to an EEA MiFID investment firm which is a member, participant or a client of a UK trading venue.
(2) MAR 10.4.7D applies to an EEA MiFID investment firm under (1), as if it were a UK MiFID investment firm.(3) MAR 10.4.8D applies to an EEA MiFID investment firm under (1), as if it were a UK MiFID investment firm, where the EEA MiFID investment firm trades in a commodity derivative or emission allowance outside a trading venue, and the FCA is the competent
(1) 2This guidance applies to persons subject to MAR 10.4.8D(2) or MAR 10.4.10D(3).(2) A firm subject to MAR 10.4.8D(2) or MAR 10.4.10D(3) may use a third party technology provider to submit to the FCA the report referred to in MAR 10.4.8 D(2) provided that it does so in a manner consistent with MiFID. It will retain responsibility for the completeness, accuracy and timely submission of the report and should populate field 5 of MiFID ITS 4 Annex II with its own reporting entity
1Section 301A(1) of chapter3 1A of Part XVIII of the Act places an obligation on a person who decides to acquire or increase control (see sections 301D and 301E of the Act) over a UK RIE3to notify the FCA5, before making the acquisition3. Furthermore, those persons are required to obtain the FCA's5 approval before acquiring control 3or increasing the level of control held.3353533
The FCA5 will approve an acquisition or an increase in 3control if it is satisfied that the acquisition by the person seeking approval does not pose a threat to the sound and prudent management of any financial market operated by the UK RIE (see section 301F(4) of the Act). 4The reference to any financial market is to be read as including a reference to any auction platform as a result of the RAP regulations.35333
1The FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed officers to carry out an investigation under the Money Laundering Regulations and the reasons for the appointment, unless notification is likely to prejudice the investigation or otherwise result in it being frustrated. The FCA expects to carry out a scoping visit early on in the enforcement process in most cases. The FCA's
policy in civil investigations is to use powers to compel information
1When imposing or determining the level of a financial penalty under regulation 76 of the Money Laundering Regulations2, the FCA's
policy includes having regard, where relevant, to relevant factors in DEPP 6.2.1G and DEPP 6.5 to DEPP 6.5D. The FCA may not impose a penalty where there are reasonable grounds for it to be satisfied that the subject of the proposed action took all reasonable steps and exercised all due diligence to ensure that the relevant requirement
2When cancelling, suspending or restricting an authorisation or limitation under regulation 77 of the Money Laundering Regulations or determining the duration of any such suspension or restriction, and when imposing or determining the duration of a prohibition under regulation 78 of the Money Laundering Regulations, the FCA’s policy includes having regard, where relevant, to relevant factors in DEPP 6A.
1As with cases under the Act, the FCA may settle or mediate appropriate cases involving civil breaches of the Money Laundering Regulations or the Funds Transfer Regulation2 to assist it to exercise its functions under the Money Laundering Regulations2 in the most efficient and economic way. The settlement discount scheme set out in DEPP 6.7 applies to penalties, suspensions, restrictions and temporary prohibitions2 imposed under regulations 76, 77 and 78 of2 the Money Laundering
1When the FCA has concerns about the fitness and propriety of a member to carry out exempt regulated activities, it will consider all the relevant circumstances of the case, including whether those concerns arise from the fitness and propriety of specific individuals engaged to perform the exempt regulated activities carried out by the member or whether its concerns arise from wider concerns about the member itself.
1The FCA will also take into account the potentially more serious consequences that a disapplication of an exemption will have for the member concerned compared with the consequences of a prohibition of a particular individual engaged in exempt regulated activities. However, the FCA may consider it appropriate in some cases to disapply an exemption where it decides that the member concerned is not fit and proper to carry out exempt regulated activities in accordance with section
1As an alternative to making an order to disapply an exemption, the FCA may consider issuing a private warning. A private warning may be appropriate where the FCA has concerns in relation to a member's fitness and propriety but feels that its concerns in relation to the conduct of exempt regulated activities can be more appropriately addressed by a private warning than by a disapplication of the member's exemption.
1When it decides whether to exercise its power to disapply an exemption from the general prohibition in relation to a member, the FCA will take into account all relevant circumstances which may include, but are not limited to, the following factors: (1) Disciplinary or other action taken by the relevant designated professional body, where that action relates to the fitness and propriety of the member concerned: where the FCA considers that its concerns in relation to the fitness
1Where the FCA is considering making a disapplication order against a member as a result of a breach of rules made by the FCA under section 323(1) of the Act, it will take into account any proposed application by the member concerned for authorisation under the Act. The FCA may refrain from making a disapplication order pending its consideration of the application for authorisation.
If a person's job for a firm involves performing: (1) an FCA-designated senior management function, the firm should apply to the FCA for approval;(2) a PRA-designated senior management function, the firm should apply to the PRA for approval;(3) both an FCA-designated senior management function and a PRA-designated senior management function, the firm should apply to both the FCA and the PRA for approval (the purpose of SUP 10C.9 is to cut down the need for this sort of dual a
The FCA is under a duty, under section 59A of the Act (Specifying functions as controlled functions: supplementary), to exercise the power to specify any senior management function as an FCA controlled function in a way that it considers will minimise the likelihood that approvals need to be given by both the FCA and the PRA for the performance by a person of senior management functions in relation to the same PRA-authorised person.
A person (referred to as ‘A’ in this rule) is not performing an FCA governing function (referred to as the ‘particular’ FCA governing function in this rule) in relation to a PRA-authorised person (referred to as ‘B’ in this rule), at a particular time, if:(1) A has been approved by the PRA to perform any PRA-designated senior management function in relation to B;(2) throughout the whole of the period between the time of the PRA approval in (1) and the time in question, A has been
Table: Examples of how the need for dual FCA and PRA approval in relation to PRA-authorised persons is reduced
1Example |
Whether FCA approval required |
Whether PRA approval required |
Comments |
(1) A is appointed as chief risk officer and an executive director. |
No. A4 is not treated as performing the executive director function.4 |
Yes |
Chief risk officer is a PRA-designated senior management function. A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA-designated senior management function. To avoid the need for FCA approval, A’s appointment as director should not take effect before PRA approval for the chief risk officer role. |
(2) Same as example (1), except that A will take up the role as an executive director slightly later because 4approval is needed from the firm's shareholders or governing body. |
No |
Yes |
The answer for (1) applies. The arrangements in this section apply if the application to the PRA says that A will start to perform the potential FCA governing function around the time of the PRA approval as well as at that time. |
(3) Same as example (1) but the application to the PRA does not mention that it is also intended that A is to be an executive director. |
Yes, to perform the executive director function.4 |
Yes |
SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply if the application for PRA approval does not say that A will also be performing what would otherwise be an FCA governing function. |
(4) A is to be appointed as chief executive and an executive director. |
No. A is not treated as performing the executive director function.4 |
Yes |
Being a chief executive is a PRA-designated senior management function. A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA controlled function. |
(5) A is appointed as chief risk officer. Later, A is appointed as an executive director while carrying on as chief risk officer. |
Yes, when A takes up the director role. The executive director function4 applies. |
Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role. |
SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply because, when the firm applied for approval for A to perform the PRA chief risk officer designated senior management function, there was no plan for A also to perform the executive director function4. |
(6) A is appointed as an executive director. Later, A takes on the chief risk officer function and remains as an executive director. |
Yes, when A is appointed as director. The executive director function4 applies. |
Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role. |
When A is appointed as chief risk officer, A is still treated as carrying on the executive director function4. A retains the status of an FCA-approved person. |
(7) A is appointed as chief risk officer. A then stops performing that role and for a while does not perform any controlled function for that firm. Later, A is appointed as an executive director with the same firm. |
Yes, when A is appointed as an executive director. The executive director function4 applies. |
Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role. |
SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply because there is no current PRA approval when A is being appointed as a director. |
(8) A is appointed as an executive director and chief risk officer at the same time. Later, A gives up the role as chief risk officer but remains as an executive director. |
No, on A’s first appointment (see example (1)). But when A gives up the role as chief risk officer, FCA approval is needed to perform the executive director function4. Form E should be used. The application should state that it is being made as a result of A ceasing to perform a PRA-designated senior management function. Form A should be used if there have been changes in A’s fitness (SUP 10C.10.9D(4)) |
Yes, on A’s first appointment. |
When A stops being a chief risk officer, A stops performing a PRA-designated senior management function. However, being an executive director requires FCA approval. A does not have that approval because A did not need it when A was first appointed. The combined effect of SUP 10C.9.8R and the relevant PRA rules is that the firm has three months to secure approval by the FCA. During that interim period, A keeps the status of a PRA approved person performing the director element of the PRA chief risk designated senior management function - which is included in that function under relevant PRA rules. The relevant PRA rules say that, during this transitional period, A is still treated as performing the PRA chief risk designated senior management function and SUP 10C.9.8R says that, for as long as A is performing a PRA-designated senior management function, A does not perform the executive director function4. |
(9) A is appointed as the chief finance officer and an executive director at the same time. Later, A switches to being chief risk officer while remaining as an executive director. |
No |
Yes |
The arrangements in SUP 10C.9.8R continue to apply, even though A switches between PRA-designated senior management functions4 after the PRA's first approval. |
(10) A is appointed chief risk officer and an executive director. A goes on temporary sick leave. A takes up their old job when A4 comes back. |
No, neither on A’s first appointment nor when A comes back from sick leave. |
Yes |
SUP 10C.9.8R still applies on A’s return because A does not stop performing either the PRA's chief risk function or what would otherwise have been the executive director function4 just because A goes on temporary sick leave. |
(11) A is appointed to be chair4 of the governing body and chair4 of the nomination committee at the same time. |
No. A does not need approval to perform the chair of the nomination committee function. |
Yes, on first appointment. |
Being chair4 of the governing body is a PRA-designated senior management function. Therefore, the answer for example (1) applies. |
2(12) ‘A’ is to be appointed to perform the Head of Overseas Branch PRA-designated senior management function (SMF19) for a an overseas SMCR firm that is not an EEA SMCR firm.4 A is also an executive director of that firm’sUKbranch. |
No. A is not treated as performing the executive director function4. 3 |
Yes |
A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA controlled function. |
Note 1: The relevant PRA rules can be found in the parts of the PRA Rulebook listed in SUP 10C.9.6G.4 |
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Note 2: Where one of the examples in this table includes someone being chief risk or finance officer or chair of the governing body, the example assumes that the firm is of a type for which that function is a PRA-designated senior management function.4 |
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The circumstances in which a CBTL firm which has a Part 4A permission should notify the FCA include but are not limited to when:(1) it ceases to carry on CBTL business and does not propose to resume carrying on CBTL business in the immediate future. This does not include circumstances where the CBTL firm temporarily withdraws its products from the market or is preparing to launch fresh products; or(2) it applies to cancel its Part 4A permission; or(3) it applies to vary its Part
The circumstances in which a CBTL firm which does not have a Part 4A permission should notify the FCA include but are not limited to when:(1) it ceases to carry on CBTL business and does not propose to resume carrying on CBTL business in the immediate future; this does not include circumstances where the CBTL firm temporarily withdraws its products from the market or is preparing to launch fresh products; or(2) it changes its registered office or place of residence as the case
Any notification given by a CBTL firm under article 12 of the MCD Order should be:(1) in writing;(2) in English;(3) given to or addressed for the attention of the CBTL firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA (where the CBTL firm does not have an identified supervisory contact this will be the FCA's Contact Centre);(4) delivered to the FCA by one of the methods in SUP 15.7.5AR to the appropriate address set out in SUP 15.7.6AG; and(5) given by a person who has full knowledge
1The FCA is required by article 23 of the short selling regulation to consider whether
to impose measures to prohibit or restrict short selling or otherwise limit
transactions in a financial instrument on
a trading venue where the price
of that financial instrument on
that trading venue has fallen
significantly during a single trading day in
relation to the closing price on that venue on the previous trading
day. In fulfilling this obligation, the FCA will assess:(1) whether the
The FCA will assess whether the price fall
in a financial instrument on
a trading venue is or may become
disorderly having regard to at least the following factors:(1) whether there have been violent
movements in the price of the particular financial
instrument on a particular trading
venue, including any sudden or significant movements in price
of a financial instrument during
the trading day;(2) whether there is evidence of unusual
or improper trading in the financial instrument
The FCA will consider at least the following
factors when assessing whether measures to prohibit or restrict short selling
or otherwise limit transactions are necessary or likely to prevent a further
disorderly decline in the price of the financial
instrument:(1) the volume of trading in that financial instrument on the trading venue as compared with the total
trading volume in the financial instrument over
at least that trading day;
and(2) whether the price of the financial instrument
Where the FCA imposes measures under article
23 of the short selling regulation it
will normally specify that the measures will not apply to natural or legal
persons who have satisfied the criteria to use the market
maker exemption or the authorised
primary dealer exemption and who are included on the list maintained
and published by ESMA pursuant
to article 17(13) of the short selling regulation.
(1) For the purposes of article 23(1)(b)
of Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) No 918/2012 the FCA will convert the figure of EUR
0.50 into pounds sterling using the daily spot foreign exchange rate of Sterling
to Euro of the Bank of England applicable at the end of the first business day of October 2012 rounded up to
the nearest £0.01. The FCA will state this figure (the 'sterling
figure') on its public website.(2) The rate will be calculated on
the same basis at the end of
The FCA will treat the FTSE 100 index as
the main national equity index of the Member State for the purposes of article
6(4) of Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) No 827/2012 and article 4
of Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) No 826/2012 and article 23(1) of Commission
Delegated Regulation (EU) No 918/2012, all subject to approval by European
Parliament and Council.
(1) 1The FCA's3 approach to determining penalties described in DEPP 6.5 to DEPP 6.5C is intended to ensure that financial penalties are proportionate to the breach. The FCA3 recognises that penalties may affect persons differently, and that the FCA3 should consider whether a reduction in the proposed penalty is appropriate if the penalty would cause the subject of enforcement action serious financial hardship.333(2) Where an individual or firm claims that payment of the penalty
(1) In assessing whether a penalty would cause an individual serious financial hardship, the FCA3 will consider the individual’s ability to pay the penalty over a reasonable period (normally no greater than three years). The FCA's3 starting point is that an individual will suffer serious financial hardship only if during that period his net annual income will fall below £14,000 and his capital will fall below £16,000 as a result of payment of the penalty. Unless the FCA3 believes
In cases against individuals, including market abuse cases, the FCA3 may make a prohibition order under section 56 of the Act or withdraw an individual’s approval under section 63 of the Act, as well as impose a financial penalty. Such action by the FCA3 reflects the FCA's3 assessment of the individual’s fitness to perform regulated activity or suitability for a particular role, and does not affect the FCA's3 assessment of the appropriate financial penalty in relation to a breach.
(1) The FCA3 will consider reducing the amount of a penalty if a firm will suffer serious financial hardship as a result of having to pay the entire penalty. In deciding whether it is appropriate to reduce the penalty, the FCA3 will take into consideration the firm’s financial circumstances, including whether the penalty would render the firm insolvent or threaten the firm’s solvency. The FCA3 will also take into account its statutory objectives3, for example in situations where
2The FCA3 may withdraw a firm’s authorisation under section 33 of the Act, as well as impose a financial penalty. Such action by the FCA3 does not affect the FCA's3 assessment of the appropriate financial penalty in relation to a breach. However, the fact that the FCA3 has withdrawn a firm’s authorisation, as a result of which the firm may have less earning potential, may be relevant in assessing whether the penalty will cause the firm serious financial hardship.3333
Where the FCA3 considers that, following commencement of an FCA3 investigation, an individual or firm has reduced their solvency in order to reduce the amount of any disgorgement or financial penalty payable, for example by transferring assets to third parties, the FCA3 will normally take account of those assets when determining whether the individual or firm would suffer serious financial hardship as a result of the disgorgement and financial penalty.333
1Regulation 27 of the MiFI Regulations provides the FCA with the power to:
(1) require a person to provide information including all relevant documentation, on, or concerning:
(a) a position the person holds in a contract to which a position limit relates; and
(b) trades the person has undertaken, or intends to undertake, in a contract to which a position limit relates; and
(2) require an operator of a trading venue to provide information including all relevant documentation
1The following provisions of the MiFI Regulations regulate the power of the FCA to intervene in respect of position limits:
(1) Regulation 28 provides that the FCA may, if it considers necessary, limit the ability of any person to enter into a contract for a commodity derivative, restrict the size of positions a person may hold in such a contract, or require any person to reduce the size of a position held, notwithstanding that the restriction or reduction would be more restrictive
1The following provisions of the MiFI Regulations regulate the power of the FCA to impose reporting requirements in respect of positions taken in commodity derivatives and emission allowances:(1)
Paragraph 8 of Schedule 1 provides that a person must provide the FCA with information in respect of its compliance or non-compliance with position limit requirements, as the FCA may direct; and
(2) Paragraph 5 of Schedule 1 provides that the FCA must maintain arrangements designed to
(1) 1An unauthorised person to which this chapter applies must notify the FCA of:
(a) a breach of a direction in this chapter;
(b) a breach of a directly applicable provision imposed by MiFIR or any EU regulation adopted under MiFID or MiFIR; and
(c) a breach of any requirement imposed by or under the MiFI Regulations which relates to this chapter.
(2) Notifications under (1) must be made immediately if the person becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that
1
The powers of the FCA referred to in MAR 10.5.1G to MAR 10.5.3G can be applied to a person regardless of whether the person is situated or operating in the UK or abroad, where the relevant position relates to a commodity derivative or emission allowance of which the FCA is the competent authority or central competent authority, or economically equivalent OTC contracts.
(1) A firm16 other than:99(a) a credit union; or9(b) a firm which intends to appoint , or has appointed, an appointed representative to carry on only credit-related regulated activity;9must submit the form in SUP 12 Annex 3 via16 online 9submission16 at the FCA’s website at16http://www.fca.org.uk or any of the methods set out in SUP 15.7.4R to SUP 15.7.5AR (Method of notification)16.1010(2) A credit union or a firm which intends to appoint , or has appointed, an appointed representative
(1) If:434(a) (i) the scope of appointment of an appointed representative is extended to cover insurance distribution activities15 for the first time; and42(ii) the appointed representative is not included on the Financial Services Register as carrying on insurance distribution activities15 in another capacity; or42(b) the scope of appointment of an appointed representative ceases to include insurance distribution activity15;42the appointed representative's principal must give
(1) As soon as a firm has reasonable grounds to believe that any of the conditions in SUP 12.4.2 R,SUP 12.4.6 R,11SUP 12.4.8A R4, SUP 12.4.10A R or SUP 12.4.10B R11 (as applicable) are not satisfied, or are likely not to be satisfied, in relation to any of its appointed representatives, it must complete and submit to the FCA the form in SUP 12 Annex 4 R (Appointed representative notification form), in accordance with the instructions on the form.3(2) In its notification under
(1) 8Subject to (2A), a 9firm other than a credit union must submit the form as set out in SUP 12 Annex 4 R online at http://www.fca.org.uk using the FCA'sonline notification and application system12.91010(2) A credit union must submit the form in SUP 12 Annex 4 R in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).(2A) If the notification:9(a) relates to an appointed representative whose scope of appointment covers only credit-related regulated
8If the FCA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FCA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that firms, other than credit unions, should use the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 12.7.1AR (3) and SUP 12.7.8AR (3) (as appropriate), and SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G, addressingclearly marking applications for the attention of the Approved
(1) 8The resources of A must be appropriate in relation to the regulated activities that A carries on or seeks to carry on.(2) The matters which are relevant in determining whether A has appropriate resources include-(a) the nature and scale of the business carried on, or to be carried on, by A;(b) the risks to the continuity of the services provided by, or to be provided by, A; and(c) A’s membership of a group and any effect which that membership may have.(3) Except in a case
(1) The non-financial resources of B must be appropriate in relation to the regulated activities that B carries on or seeks to carry on, having regard to the operational objectives of the FCA.(2) The matters which are relevant in determining whether the condition in sub-paragraph (1) is met include-(a) the nature and scale of the business carried on, or to be carried on, by B;(b) the risks to the continuity of the services provided by, or to be provided by, B;(c) B’s a member
8Paragraph 3C of Schedule 6 to the Act sets out the appropriate non-financial resources threshold condition which is relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in relation to firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, regulated activities which include a PRA-regulated activity.
8The guidance in COND 2.4 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2D of Schedule 6 of the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity under the Act, paragraph 3C of Schedule 6 of the Act.
(1) [deleted]88(2) In this context, the FCA will interpret the term 'appropriate88' as meaning sufficient in terms of quantity, quality and availability, and 'resources' as including all financial resources (though only in the case of firms not carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity)8, non-financial resources and means of managing its resources; for example, capital, provisions against liabilities, holdings of or access to cash and other liquid assets, human
(1) [deleted]88(2) Although8 it is the firm that is being assessed, the FCA8 may take into consideration the impact of other members of the firm's group on the adequacy of its resources8, where relevant to the discharge of the FCA's functions8. For example, in relation to a firm other than a firm carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, the FCA8 may assess the consolidated solvency of the group. The FCA's8 approach to the consolidated supervision of such
(1) [deleted]88(2) Relevant matters to which the FCA may have regard when assessing whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, this threshold condition8may include but are not limited to:(a) (in relation to a firm other than a firm carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity),8 whether there are any indications that the firm may have difficulties if the application is granted, at the time of the grant or in the future, in complying with any of the
3The FCA has a power under section 55Q to vary, or alternatively cancel, a firm’sPart 4A permission, or to impose requirements on a firm, in support of an overseas regulator. Section 55Q(4), (5) and (6) set out matters the FCA may, or must, take into account when it considers whether to exercise these powers. The circumstances in which the FCA may consider varying a firm’sPart 4A permission or imposing requirements in support of an overseas regulator depend on whether the FCA
3Relevant Community obligations which the FCA may need to consider include those under the Capital Requirements Directive, the Solvency II Directive1, the Investment Services Directive/Markets in Financial Instruments Directive, the Insurance Distribution Directive (IDD)4 ,2 and the Market Abuse Regulation2. Each of these legislative acts2 imposes general obligations on the relevant EEAcompetent authority to cooperate and collaborate closely in discharging their functions under
3The FCA views this cooperation and collaboration as essential to effective regulation of the international market in financial services. It will therefore exercise its own-initiative powers wherever: (1) an EEACompetent authority requests it to do so; and (2) it is satisfied that the use of the power is appropriate (having regard to the considerations set out at paragraphs 8.2.1 to 8.2.6) to enforce effectively the regulatory requirements imposed under the Single Market Directives
3The FCA will actively consider any other requests for assistance from relevant overseas regulators (that is requests in relation to which it is not obliged to act under a Community obligation). Section 55Q, which sets out matters the FCA may take into account when it decides whether to vary or cancel a firm’sPart 4A permission or to impose requirements on a firm in support of the overseas regulator, applies in these circumstances.
3Where section 55Q(5) applies and the FCA is considering whether to vary a firm'sPart 4A permission or to impose requirements on a firm, it may take account of all the factors described in paragraphs 8.6.1 to 8.6.8 but may give particular weight to: (1) the matters set out in paragraphs (c) and (d) of section 55Q(5) (seriousness, importance to persons in the United Kingdom, and the public interest); and (2) any specific request made to it by the overseas regulator to impose requirements
3The FCA will give careful consideration to whether the relevant authority's concerns would provide grounds for the FCA to exercise its own-initiative powers to vary, impose requirements or cancel if they related to a UK
firm. It is not necessary for the FCA to be satisfied that the overseas provisions being enforced mirror precisely those which apply to UK
firms. However, the FCA will not assist in the enforcement of regulatory requirements
3Similarly, the FCA will not need to be satisfied that precisely the same assistance would be provided to the United Kingdom in precisely the same situation. However, it will wish to be confident that the relevant authorities in the jurisdiction concerned would have powers available to them to provide broadly similar assistance in aid of UK authorities, and would be willing properly to consider exercising those powers. The FCA may decide, under section 55Q(6), not to exercise
A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that all information it gives to the FCA3 in accordance with a rule in any part of the Handbook (including Principle 11) is:99(1) factually accurate or, in the case of estimates and judgements5, fairly and properly based after appropriate enquiries have been made by the firm; and(2) complete, in that it should include anything of which the FCA3 would reasonably expect notice.99
SUP 15.6.1 R applies also in relation to rules outside this chapter, and even if they are not notification rules. Examples of rules and chapters to which SUP 15.6.1 R is relevant, are:(1) Principle 11, and the guidance on Principle 11 in SUP 2 (Information gathering by the FCA and PRA99 on their9 own initiative);9(2) SUP 15 (Notifications to the FCA3):99(3) SUP 16 (Reporting requirements); (4) SUP 17 (Transaction reporting); 1(5) any notification rule (see Schedule 2 which contains
If a firm becomes aware, or has information that reasonably suggests that it has or may have provided the FCA3 with information which was or may have been false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed in a material particular, it must notify the FCA3 immediately. Subject to SUP 15.6.5 R, the notification must include:9999(1) details of the information which is or may be false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed; (2) an
Firms are reminded that section 398 of the Act (Misleading the FCA or PRA:9 residual cases) makes it an offence for a firm knowingly or recklessly to provide the FCA3 with information which is false or misleading in a material particular in purported compliance with the FCA's3rules or any other requirement imposed by or under the Act. An offence by a body corporate, partnership or unincorporated association may be attributed to an officer or certain other persons (section 400
When considering the use of this power to deal with a particular concern, the FCA will have regard to the range of regulatory tools that are available. The FCA will consider dealing with any concerns informally through discussion and agreement with the firm and the SMF manager, instead of using the own-initiative variation of approval power.
The power to impose a conditional or time-limited approval does not depend on the SMF manager being unfit without that condition or time limitation. The FCA can impose a condition or time limitation even if the candidate would still be fit and proper without it. Conversely, where an SMF manager is not fit and proper but might be if a condition or time limitation is imposed, the FCA is not obliged to impose a condition or time limitation, and may take the view that a prohibition
The circumstances which will lead to a condition or time limitation being imposed on a candidate for an SMF manager role will, where appropriate, also lead to an existing SMF manager’s approval being varied. SUP 10C is therefore relevant to the FCA’s use of the own-initiative variation of approval power.
6If a mixed financial holding company is subject to equivalent provisions under this Chapter and under EEA prudential sectoral legislation in relation to the insurance sector as implemented in the United Kingdom and the FCA is the coordinator, the FCA may, on application by the firm and after consulting other relevant competent authorities, disapply such provisions of the EEA prudential sectoral legislation as implemented in the United Kingdom with regard to that undertaking which
4GENPRU 3.1.29 R4 to GENPRU 3.1.31 R and GENPRU 3 Annex 1 implement the detailed capital adequacy requirements of the Financial Groups Directive. They only deal with a financial conglomerate for which the FCA8 is the coordinator. If another competent authority is coordinator of a financial conglomerate, those rules do not apply with respect to that financial conglomerate and instead that coordinator will be responsible for implementing those detailed requirements.
Paragraph 5.7 of GENPRU 3 Annex 1 (Capital adequacy calculations for financial conglomerates) deals with a case in which there are no capital ties between entities in a financial conglomerate. In particular, the FCA8 , after consultation with the other relevant competent authorities and in accordance with Annex I of the Financial Groups Directive, will determine which proportional share of a solvency deficit in such an entity will have to be taken into account, bearing in mind
The5 Annex I method to be applied may be5 decided by the coordinator after consultation with the relevant competent authorities and the financial conglomerate itself. Where the FCA8 acts as coordinator, the financial conglomerate itself may choose which of Method 1 or Method 2 from Annex I it will apply, unless the firm is subject to a requirement obliging the firm to apply a particular method.555
5GENPRU 3.1.29 R applies to a firm with respect to the financial conglomerate of which it is a member if notification has been made in accordance with regulation 2 of the Financial Groups Directive Regulations that the financial conglomerate is a financial conglomerate and that the FCA8 is coordinator of that financial conglomerate.
If GENPRU 3.1.29 R (application of Method 1 or 2 from Annex I of the Financial Groups Directive) applies to a firm with respect to the financial conglomerate of which it is a member, then with respect to the firm and the financial conglomerate:5(1) the definitions of conglomerate capital resources and conglomerate capital resources requirement that apply for the purposes of that rule are the ones from whichever of Part 1 or Part 2 of GENPRU 3 Annex 1 the firm has indicated to
Articles 7(3) (Risk concentration) and 8(3) (Intra-group transactions) and Annex II (Technical application of the provisions on intra-group transactions and risk concentration) of the Financial Groups Directive say that Member States may apply at the level of the financial conglomerate the provisions of the sectoral rules on risk concentrations and intra-group transactions. GENPRU 3.1 does not take up that option, although the FCA8 may impose such obligations on a case by case
(1) In accordance with Articles5 30 and 30a5 of the Financial Groups Directive (Asset management companies and Alternative investment fund managers5), this rule deals with the inclusion of an asset management company or an alternative investment fund manager5 that is a member of a financial conglomerate in the scope of regulation of financial conglomerates.55(2) An asset management company or an alternative investment fund manager5 is in the overall financial sector and is
Requests for individual guidance may be made in writing or orally. Requests for individual guidance in relation to the Part 6 rules should be made in writing other than in circumstances of exceptional urgency or in the case of a request from a sponsor in relation to the provision of a sponsor service. 2If oral queries raise complex or significant issues, the FCA will normally expect the details of the request to be confirmed in writing. Simple requests for guidance may often be
A firm and its professional advisers should address requests for individual guidance to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA4, with the exception of requests for guidance on3MAR 13 which should be addressed to the specialist team within the Enforcement3 and Markets Oversight3 Division. A firm may wish to discuss a request for guidance with the relevant contact before making a written request. 44
The FCA will aim to respond quickly and fully to reasonable requests. The FCA will give high priority to enquiries about areas of genuine uncertainty or about difficulties in relating established requirements to innovative practices or products. What constitutes a 'reasonable request' is a matter for the FCA. It will depend on the nature of the request and on the resources of the firm or other person making it. The FCA will expect the person to have taken reasonable steps to research
The FCA will always need sufficient information and time before it can properly evaluate the situation and respond to a request. If a request is time-critical, the person or its professional adviser should make this clear. The more notice a person can give the FCA, the more likely it is that the FCA will be able to meet the person's timetable. However, the time taken to respond will necessarily depend upon the complexity and novelty of the issues involved. In making a request,
The FCA may modify LR 2.2.4 R to allow partly paid securities to be listed if
it is satisfied that their transferability is not restricted and investors
have been provided with appropriate information to enable dealings in the securities to take place on an open and
proper basis. [Note: articles 46 and 54 CARD]
(1) This rule applies
if under the Act or under the
law of another EEA State:(a) a prospectus must
be approved and published for the securities;
or(b) the applicant is
permitted and elects to draw up a prospectus for
the securities.(2) To be listed:(a) a prospectus must
have been approved by the FCA and published in relation to the securities; or(b) if another EEA
State is the Home Member State for
the securities, the relevant
competent authority must have supplied the FCA with:(i)
1Where, in relation to a UK RIE a proposal has been made to appoint or elect a person as a member of the management body4, that UK RIE must at least 30 days before the date of the appointment or election give notice of that event, and give the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 3.4.4A R to the FCA.3 [Note: article 45(8)4 of MiFID]3
(1) Members of the management body4 include the persons who, under the operational or managerial arrangements of the UK recognised body, are appointed to manage the departments responsible for carrying out its relevant functions, whether or not they are members of its governing body. A person appointed to carry out specific tasks, such as to conduct a particular investigation into a specific set of facts, would not usually be a member of the management body4.(2) A member of the
1The following information is specified for the purposes of REC 3.4.2A R:(1) that person's name;(2) his or her4 date of birth;(3) where applicable,4 a description of the responsibilities which he or she4 will have in the post to which he or she4 is to be appointed or elected, including for a UK RIE which operates an RAP where the person has responsibilities both in the UK RIE and RAP, a description of the responsibilities he has in respect of each body;43(4) where applicable,
Where the governing body of a UK recognised body delegates any of its functions (which relate to that UK recognised body'srelevant functions) to a standing committee, or appoints a standing committee to manage or oversee the carrying out of any of that UK recognised body'srelevant functions, that UK recognised body must immediately notify the FCA3 of that event and give the FCA3 the following information:33(1) the names of the members of that standing committee; and(2) the terms
Where:(1) there is any change in the composition or the terms of reference of any standing committee referred to in REC 3.4.5 R; or(2) any such committee is dissolved; the UK recognised body must immediately notify the FCA3 of that event and give particulars of any change referred to in (1) to the FCA.333
The Companies Act 1989 also gives the FCA1 powers to supervise the taking of action under default rules. Under section 166 of the Companies Act 1989 (Powers of the appropriate regulator1 to give directions) (see REC 4.5.4 G), the FCA1 may direct a UK RIE1to take, or not to take, action under its default rules. Before exercising these powers the FCA1 must consult the UK RIE.1 The FCA1 may also exercise these powers if a relevant office-holder applies to it under section 167 of
The Companies Act 1989: section 166
The FCA1 may issue a "positive" direction (to take action) under section 166(2)(a) of the Companies Act 1989: 1 |
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Where in any case a [UK RIE] has not taken action under its default rules- if it appears to [the FCA] that it could take action, [the FCA may direct it to do so,1 1 |
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but under section 166(3)(a) of the Companies Act 1989: |
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Before giving such a direction the [FCA] shall consult the [UK RIE] in question; and [the FCA] shall not give a direction unless [the FCA] is satisfied, in the light of that consultation that failure to take action would involve undue risk to investors or other participants in the market, or that the direction is necessary having regard to the public interest in the financial stability of the United Kingdom, or that the direction is necessary to facilitate a proposed or possible use of a power under Part 1 of the Banking Act 2009 or in connection with a particular exercise of a power under that Part.1 1 |
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The FCA1 may issue a "negative" direction (not to take action) under section 166(2)(b) of the Companies Act 1989: 1 |
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Where in any case a [UK RIE] has not taken action under its default rules - if it appears to the [FCA] that it is proposing to take or may take action, [the FCA] may direct it not to do so.1 1 |
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but under section 166(3)(b) of the Companies Act 1989: |
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Before giving such a direction the [FCA] shall consult the [UK RIE] in question; and the [FCA] shall not give a direction unless [the FCA] is satisfied, in the light of that consultation that the taking of action would be premature or otherwise undesirable in the interests of investors or other participants in the market, or that the direction is necessary having regard to the public interest in the financial stability of the United Kingdom, or that the direction is necessary to facilitate a proposed or possible use of a power under Part 1 of the Banking Act 2009 or in connection with a particular exercise of a power under that Part.1 1 |
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Under section 166(7) of the Companies Act 1989, where a UK RIE has taken action either of its own accord or in response to a direction, the FCA may direct it to do or not to do specific things subject to these being within the powers of the UK RIE under its default rules. However,11(1) 1where the UK RIE is acting in accordance with a direction given by the FCA to take action under section 166(2)(a) of the Act on the basis that failure to take action would involve undue risk to
Where, in relation to a member (or designated non-member) of a UK RIE :1(1) a bankruptcy order; or(2) an award of sequestration of his estate; or(3) an order appointing an interim receiver of his property; or(4) an administration or winding-up order; or(5) a resolution for a voluntary winding-up; or(6) an order appointing a provisional liquidator; has been made or passed and the UK RIE1 has not taken action under its default rules as a result of this event or of the matters giving
The procedure is that the FCA1 must notify the UK recognised body of the application and, unless within three business days after receipt of that notice, the UK recognised body: 1(1) takes action under its default rules; or(2) notifies the FCA1 that it proposes to take action forthwith; or1(3) is directed to take action by the FCA1 under section 166(2)(a) of the Companies Act 1989; 1the provisions of sections 158 to 165 of the Companies Act 1989 do not apply in relation to market
The FCA will not relieve or refund a PSR fee if after the start of that fee year:42(1) 4a payment system ceases to be a regulated payment system; or4(2) 4an IFR card payment system ceases to be subject to the IFR;4 or(3) 4a person4 ceases to be a direct payment service provider of a regulated payment system or an IFR card payment system4.
If a PSR fee payer8 does not pay the total amount of its PSR fees before the end of the date on which it is due, it must pay to the FCA2: 24(1) an administrative fee of £250; plus(2) interest on any unpaid part of the fee at an annual rate of 5% above the Official Bank Rate from time to time in force, accruing daily from the date on which the amount concerned became due.
(1) 2The FCA may recover a PSR fee as a debt owed to it under paragraph 23 (8) of Schedule 1ZA of the Act.(2) The FCA will consider taking action for the recovery (including interest) through the civil courts.(3) In addition, the FCA or PSR may be entitled to take regulatory action in relation to the non-payment of PSR fees. What action, if any, that is taken by the FCA or PSR will be decided upon given the particular circumstances of the case.8