Related provisions for PERG 6.5.2
661 - 680 of 1123 items.
A firm (other than a common platform firm)5 must arrange for orderly records to
be kept of its business and internal organisation, including all services
and transactions undertaken by it, which must be sufficient to enable the FCA5 or any other
relevant competent authority under 5the UCITS Directive4 to monitor the firm's compliance
with the requirements under the regulatory
system, and in particular to ascertain that the firm has complied with all obligations with
respect to
(1) 5A common platform firm must arrange for records to be kept of all services, activities and transactions undertaken by it. (2) The records in (1) must be sufficient to enable the FCA to fulfil its supervisory tasks and to perform the enforcement actions under the regulatory system including MiFID, MiFIR and the Market Abuse Regulation, and in particular to ascertain that the common platform firm has complied with all obligations including those with respect to clients or potential
(1) An authorised professional firm of a kind falling within (2) must comply with such of IPRU-INV 3, 5, 9 or 13 which in accordance with IPRU-INV 2.1.4R, most appropriately correlates to the type and scale of the business which it conducts. (2) The type of authorised professional firm to which (1) applies is one:(a) which is also an exempt CAD
firm;
(b) which acts as a market maker; (c) which acts as a stabilising manager;
The FCA considers the scope of this exclusion cannot be precisely defined. Ultimately questions of interpretation are for the Court to determine. The FCA considers that to satisfy the exclusion the services cannot be the major part of the practice of the firm. The FCA also considers the following factors to be among those that are relevant: (1) the scale of regulated activity in proportion to other professional services provided; (2) whether and to what extent activities that
25Nothing in this appendix relieves firms of the obligation to consider the particular facts and circumstances of each complaint and to consider whether the assessment of loss and compensation should, in the light of those facts and circumstances, be carried out on a different basis. If, however, the facts and circumstances make it appropriate to do so, the FCA's expectation is that firms will apply the approach and standards set out in this appendix, and where they do not, the
As soon as a SRB agreement provider has provided the written pre-offer document at Stage One to a SRB agreement seller who is in arrears under his regulated mortgage contract or home purchase plan on the property to which the proposed regulated sale and rent back agreement relates, it must, in a durable medium, immediately notify the mortgage lender, home purchase provider or the providers of other loans that may be secured on the property:(1) explaining that the firm is proposing
The SRB agreement provider must keep a record of the written pre-offer document at Stage One and the written offer document for signing at Stage Two for a period of:(1) one year after the end of the fixed term of the tenancy under the regulated sale and rent back agreement; or(2) five years from the date of the disclosures and warnings, written offer documents and cooling-off period notices;whichever is the longer.
A UK firm should be aware that the guidance is the FCA's5 interpretation of the Single Market Directives, the Act and the legislation made under the Act. The guidance is not exhaustive and is not a substitute for firms consulting the legislation or taking their own legal advice in the United Kingdom and in the relevant EEA States.5
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 4(2)(e)
2Without prejudice to the generality of sub-paragraph [4(1)], the [UK RIE] must ensure that- |
satisfactory arrangements are made for recording transactions effected on the [UK RIE], and transactions (whether or not effected on the [UK RIE ]) which are cleared or to be cleared by means of itsfacilities; |
[Note: article 25 of MiFIR requires the operator of a trading venue to keep relevant data relating to all orders in financial instruments which are advertised through their systems at the disposal of the FCA]4 |
In determining whether a UK recognised body has satisfactory arrangements for recording the transactions effected on its facilities,3 or cleared or to be cleared by another person3 by means of, its facilities, the FCA3 may have regard to:3(1) whether the UK recognised body has arrangements for creating, maintaining and safeguarding an audit trail of transactions for at least five years4; and(2) the type of information recorded and the extent to which the record includes4: (a)
The obligations to supply information to1 the FCA under either SUP 10A.14.8R or SUP 10A.14.10R1apply notwithstanding any agreement (for example a 'COT 3' Agreement settled by the Advisory, Conciliation and Arbitration Service (ACAS)) or any other arrangements entered into by a firm and an employee upon termination of the employee's employment. A firm should not enter into any such arrangements or agreements that could conflict with its obligations under this section.
This chapter provides
guidance on the Market Abuse Regulation5. It is therefore likely to be helpful to persons who:545(1) want to avoid engaging in market abuse5; or(2) want to determine whether they are required by article 16 of the Market Abuse Regulation5 to report a transaction
5or order to the
FCA
as a suspicious one.
4It is the responsibility of an insurance intermediary's senior management to determine, on a continuing basis, whether the insurance intermediary is an exempt insurance intermediary and to appoint an auditor if management determines the firm is no longer exempt. SUP 3.7 (amplified by SUP 15) sets out what a firm should consider when deciding whether it should notify the FCA of matters raised by its auditor.6
4The rights and duties of auditors are set out in SUP 3.8 (Rights and duties of all auditors) and SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets). SUP 3.8.10 G includes the auditor's statutory duty to report certain matters to the FCA8 imposed by regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator8). An auditor should bear these rights and duties in mind when carrying out client
4A firm must:(1) ensure the MTF has at least three materially active members or users who each have the opportunity to interact with all the others in respect of price formation;[Note: article 18(7) of MiFID](2) have arrangements to ensure it is adequately equipped to manage the risks to which it is exposed, to implement appropriate arrangements and systems to identify all significant risks to its operation and put in place effective measures to mitigate those risks;[Note: article
(1) A firm must pay the pensions guidance levy applicable to it within 30 days of the date of the invoice to which that sum relates, unless any of (2) to (5) apply.(2) If the firm has applied to cancel its Part 4A permission under SUP 6.4.5D (Cancellation of permission), the firm must pay the pensions guidance levy applicable to it on the date of its application.(3) If the FCA has exercised its own-initiative powers to cancel a firm'sPart 4A permission, the firm must pay the
For FEES 10.2.4 R, a firm may apply the relevant tariff bases and rates to its non-UK business, as well as to its UK business, if:(1) it has reasonable grounds for believing that the cost of identifying the firm'sUK business separately from its non-UK business is disproportionate to the difference in the pensions guidance levy payable by it; and(2) it notifies the FCA in writing: (a) at the same time as it provides the information concerned under FEES 4.4 (Information on which
(1) The FCA takes the view that sections 77, 78 and 79 of the CCA should be read in a way that allows the borrower or hirer to obtain the information needed in order to be properly informed without imposing unnecessary burden on firms.(2) The statement referred to in the relevant section must be prepared according to the information to which it is 'practicable' for the firm to refer. In the FCA's view, this means practicable at the time of the request and includes information
(1) Failure to comply with the provisions means that the agreement becomes unenforceable while the failure to comply persists, and the courts have no discretion to allow enforcement.(2) In such cases, a firm should in no way, either by act or omission, mislead a customer as to the enforceability of the agreement.(3) In particular, a firm should not in such cases either threaten court action or other enforcement of the debt or imply that the debt is enforceable when it is not.(4)
(1) 1This rule deals with the calculation of:(a) a firm'sgeneral levy in the 12 months ending on the 31 March in which it obtains permission, or was authorised under the Payment Services Regulations or the Electronic Money Regulations4or had its permission and/or payment services activities extended (relevant permissions)3 and the following 12 months ending on the 31 March;3 and33(b) the tariff base for the industry blocks that relate to each of the relevant permissions3.3(2)
1The table below sets out the period within which a firm's tariff base is calculated (the data period) for second year levies calculated under FEES 5.8.2R. The example is based on a firm that acquires permission on 1 November 20146and has a financial year ending 31 March. Where valuation dates fall before the firm receives permission it should use projected valuations in calculating its levies.
References in this table to dates or months are references to the latest one occurring before the start of the FCA's financial year unless otherwise stated.
6Type of permission acquired on 1 November |
Tariff base |
Valuation date but for FEES 5.8.2R |
Data period under FEES 5.8.2R |
Insurers - general |
Relevant annual gross premium income and gross technical liabilities6 |
31 March 20146- so projected valuations will be used 6 |
1 November to 31 December 20146. 6 |
Portfolio managers (including those holding client money/ assets and not holding client money/ assets) 6 |
Relevant funds under management |
Valued at 31 December |
Valued at 31 December |
Advisers,6arrangers, dealers or brokers holding and controlling client money and/or assets 6 |
Annual income as defined in FEES 4 Annex 11A6 6 |
31 December. 6 This is because the firm's tariff base is calculated by reference to the firm's financial year end in the calendar year before the start of the FCAfee year. Therefore FEES 5.8.2R (3)(c) applies. 6 6 |
1 November to 31 December but annualised in accordance with FEES 5.8.2R (3)(c)(iii)6 6 |
7[Note: Transitional provisions apply to FEES 5.8.1R, FEES 5.8.2R and FEES 5.8.3G – see FEES TP 13]
Firms are reminded of the client's best interests rule, which requires the firm to act honestly, fairly and professionally in accordance with the best interests of their clients. For any transactions involving retail clients carried out under this section the FCA expects that:55(1) the firm ensures that relevant collateral is provided by the borrower in favour of the client;(2) the current realisable value of the
safe custody asset2
and of the relevant collateral is monitored
4The FCA also has measures available to it where it considers it is appropriate to take protective or remedial action. These include: (1) where a firm's continuing ability to meet the threshold conditions or where an approved person's or other individual’s1 fitness and propriety1 are called into question: (a) varying and/or cancelling of permission and the withdrawal of a firm’s authorisation (see chapter 8); and (b) the withdrawal of an individual’s status as an approved person
2Where a person who is a shareholder has contravened one or more relevant transparency provisions (as defined in section 89NA(11) of the Act) in respect of shares in a company admitted to trading on a regulated market and the FCA considers the breach to be serious, the FCA may apply to the Court for an order suspending that person’s voting rights as set out in section 89NA of the Act.
Neither the UCITS Directive6, MiFID,3 the IDD7, AIFMD6 nor the Act define what is meant by a firm's 'head office'. This is not necessarily the firm's place of incorporation or the place where its business is wholly or mainly carried on. Although the FCA5 will judge each application on a case-by-case basis, the key issue in identifying the head office of a firm is the location of its central management and control, that is, the location of: 16(1) the directors and other senior
Section 21 precludes the promotion by unauthorised persons of unregulated collective investment schemes unless the financial promotion is approved by an authorised person or is exempt. Section 238 then precludes the promotion of an unregulated collective investment scheme by authorised persons except where:(1) there is an exemption in an order made by the Treasury under section 238(6); or(2) the financial promotion is permitted under rules made by the FCA under section 238(5)
The FCA has made rules under section 238(5) which allow authorisedfirms to communicate or approve a financial promotion for an unregulated collective investment scheme in certain specified circumstances. These circumstances are set out in COBS 4.12.4 R3 To date, the Treasury has not made an order exempting single property schemes under section 239.23
(1) The authorised fund manager may, with the prior agreement of the depositary, and must without delay, if the depositary so requires, temporarily1 suspend the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of units in an authorised fund (referred to in this chapter as "dealings in units"), where due to exceptional circumstances it is in the interest of all the unitholders in the authorised fund. Where an authorised fund is a regulated money market fund, the authorised fund manager
2Where:(1) an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme which is a master UCITS or a qualifying master scheme3temporarily suspends the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of its units, whether at its own initiative or at the request of the FCA; or(2) an operator of an EEA UCITS scheme which is a master UCITS or a qualifying master scheme3temporarily suspends the issue, cancellation, sale or redemption of its units, whether at its own initiative or at the request of its Home