Related provisions for SYSC 22.5.17
121 - 140 of 1123 items.
1Where a person intends to rely on article 4(2), 10(2) or 89(2) of EMIR for an exemption from the clearing obligation set out in article 4(1) or 10(1) of EMIR, the person should make their application or notification to the FCA in such manner, and by providing such information, as the FCA directs or requires.
Where a person intends to rely on article 11(6), (7), (8), 9) or (10) for an exemption from the obligation to implement risk management procedures set out in article 11(3) of EMIR, the person should make their application or notification to the FCA in accordance with EMIR requirements, including (where relevant) those set out in the EMIR technical standards on OTC derivatives2.
At any time after receiving an application or notification for exemption from, or a notification in respect of, EMIR requirements, the FCA may require the person concerned to provide it with such further information as it reasonably considers necessary to enable it to determine the application or consider the notification.
The FCA will
adopt a pre-emptive approach which will be based on making forward-looking
judgments about firms' business
models, product strategy and how they run their businesses, to enable the FCA to identify and intervene earlier to
prevent problems crystallising. The FCA's approach
to supervising firms will contribute
to its delivery against its objective to protect and enhance the integrity
of the UK financial system (as
set out in the Act). Where the FCA has responsibilities
The overall approach in the FCA supervision model is based on the following
principles:(1) forward looking and more interventionist;(2) focused on judgment, not process;(3) consumer-centric;(4) focused on the big issues and causes
of problems;(5) interfaces with executive management/Boards;(6) robust when things go wrong;(7) focused on business model and culture
as well as product supervision;(8) viewing poor behaviour in all markets
through the lens of the impact on consumers;(9)
The FCA supervision
model risk assessment process applies to all firms,
although the detail required may vary from firm to firm. For example, some firms may
experience a highly intensive level of contact although others may only be
contacted once every four years. Firms judged
as high impact are likely to require a more detailed assessment. A peer review
process within the FCA assists
consistency and will be focused on firms and
sectors of the industry that could cause, or are
(1) The FCA intends
to communicate the outcomes of its pillars of supervision to each firm within an appropriate time frame. In
the case of firms in which risks
have been identified which could have a material bearing on the FCA meeting its statutory
objectives, the FCA will
also outline a remedial programme intended to address these.(2) The FCA considers
that it would generally be inappropriate for a firm to
disclose its FCA risk assessment
to third parties, except to those who
As many firms will
not have dedicated, fixed portfolio resource, the first point of contact for
many issues for such firms will
be handled by the FCA's Contact
Centre, with the aim being that fewer issues and queries will need to be referred
to the supervisors. To support all firms the FCA will also provide regional workshops
and road shows to clarify its expectations on these risks and issues that
are particularly important to the FCA.
While respecting each regulator's
different statutory objectives and
mandates, in undertaking its supervisory activity the FCA will
co-ordinate and co-operate with the PRA as
required and necessary in the interests of the effective and efficient supervision
of regulated firms and individuals.
Both regulators will coordinate with each other as required under the Act, including on the exchange of information
relevant to each regulator's individual objectives. However, the FCA and
If a UK firm is passporting under the UCITS Directive, regulation 12(1) states that the UK firm must not make a change in its programme of operations, or the activities to be carried on under its EEA right, unless the relevant requirements in regulation 12(2) have been complied with. These requirements are:5(1) the UK firm has given a notice to the FCA15 and to the Host State regulator stating the details of the proposed change; or15(2) if the change arises as a result of circumstances
13A UK MiFID investment firm is also required to notify the FCA of any changes to the information in its investment services and activities passport notification, including changes relating to a UKtied agent, in accordance with:(1) article 4 (Information to be notified concerning the change of investment services and activities particulars) of MiFID RTS 3A; and(2) article 7 (Submission of the change of investment services and activities particulars notification) of MiFID ITS
(1) 13If any of the details in an investment services and activities passport notification change, a UK MiFID investment firm is required to notify the FCA by completing the form in Annex I of MiFID ITS 4A.[Note: article 7(1) of MiFID ITS 4A](2) When communicating a change to investment services and/or activities, ancillary services or financial instruments, the firm is required to list all: (a) the investment services and/or activities and ancillary services that it currently
13A UK MiFID investment firm should use the relevant form in SUP 13 Annex 2AR to notify the FCA that it intends to:(1) change its programme of operations by ceasing to provide cross border services; or(2) change its programme of operations by ceasing to provide cross border services through a tied agent established in the UK; or(3) terminate in the territory of an EEA State, the provision of arrangements to facilitate access to, and trading on, an MTF or OTF by remote users, members
5For further details on giving the notices to the appropriate UK regulator, as described in SUP 13.7.3 G (1), SUP 13.7.3AG and SUP 13.7.3BG12, UK firms may wish to use the standard electronic15 form available from the FCA and PRA authorisation teams 15(see SUP 13.12 (Sources of further information)).15151551515
15Where the PRA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the FCA before deciding whether to give consent to a change (or proposed change) and where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the PRA before deciding whether to give consent in relation to a UK firm whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.
(1) 11A UK firm which has exercised an EEA right deriving from the MCD to provide a cross border service, must not make any material changes to the service unless it has complied with the requirements in regulation 17(B)(2).(2) The requirements in regulation 17(B)(2) are that;(a) the UK firm has given notice to the FCA stating the details of the proposed change; and(b) the period of one month has elapsed, beginning with the day on which the UK firm gave notice.(3) Paragraph (1)
618(1) Unless (2) applies, twice a year a firm must provide the FCA with a complete report concerning complaints received from eligible complainants.10618(2) If a firm has permission to carry on only credit-related regulated activities or operating an electronic system in relation to lending and has revenue arising from those activities that is less than or equal to £5,000,000 a year, the firm must provide the FCA with a complete report concerning complaints received from eligible
A firm with only a limited permission to whom DISP 1.10.1R(1) and (2) do not apply is required to submit information to the FCA about the number of complaints it has received in relation to credit-related activities under the reporting requirements in SUP 16.12 (see, in particular, data item CCR007 in SUP 16.12.29CR). A firm with limited permission to whom DISP 1.10.1R (1) and (2) do not apply is also subject to the complaints data publication rules in DISP 1.10A.10618
Firms that are part of a group may submit a joint report to the FCA. The joint report must contain the information required from all firms concerned and clearly indicate the firms on whose behalf the report is submitted. The requirement to provide a report, and the responsibility for the report, remains with each firm in the group.101
(1) Twice a year a firm must provide the FCA with a complete report concerning complaints received from eligible complainants about matters relating to activities carried out by its employees when acting as retail investment advisers. The report must be set out in the format in DISP 1 Annex 1C R.104777(2) DISP 1 Annex 1C R requires (for the relevant reporting period) information about:10(a) the total number of complaints received by the firm about matters relating to activities
(1) 5If a firm does not submit a complete report by the date on which it is due, in accordance with DISP 1.10.5 R, the firm must pay an administrative fee of £250.10(2) The administrative fee in (1) does not apply if the firm has notified the
FCA
of a systems failure in accordance with DISP 1.10.6 R.10
For the purpose of inclusion in the public record maintained by the FCA, a firm must:10(1) provide the FCA, at the time of its authorisation, with details of a single contact point within the firm for complainants; and10(2) notify the
FCA
of any subsequent change in those details when convenient and, at the latest, in the firm's next report under the complaints reporting rules.10
The word ‘communicate’ is extended under section 21(13) of the Act and includes causing a communication to be made. This means that a person who causes the communication of a financial promotion by another person is also subject to the restriction in section 21. Article 6(d) of the Financial Promotion Order also states that the word ‘communicate’ has the same meaning when used in exemptions in the Order. Article 6(a) also states that the word ‘communication’ has the same meaning
Apart from the originators of a financial promotion, the FCA considers the following persons to be communicating it or causing it to be communicated:(1) publishers and broadcasters who carry advertisements (including websites carrying banner advertisements); and(2) intermediaries who redistribute another person’s communication probably with their own communications.
In the FCA's view, the following persons will not be causing or communicating:(1) advertising agencies and others when they are designing advertising material for originators;(2) persons who print or produce material for others to use as advertisements;(3) professional advisers when they are preparing material for clients or advising them on the need to communicate or the merits or consequences of their communicating a financial promotion; and(4) persons who are responsible for
The FCA considers that, to communicate, a person must take some active step to make the communication. This will be a question of fact in each case. But a person who knowingly leaves copies of a document where it is reasonable to presume that persons will pick up copies and may seek to act on them will be communicating them.
A general point arises about causing and communicating on whether a particular exemption that applies to a communication made by a specified person also applies to a person who is causing that communication to be made. For example, article 551 of the Financial Promotion Order (Communications by members of professions)1 applies only to a communication by an exempt professional firm.1 This exemption may apply where a person ('P') requests an exempt professional firm ('E') to1communicate
Another general point arises about the scope of exemptions that apply only to financial promotions by a particular person. This is whether the exemption applies to the communication of a financial promotion by an unauthorised person on behalf of the person to whom the exemption applies. In the FCA's view, this will not be the case unless the exemption specifically states that it applies to a communication made on behalf of the person identified in the exemption. For example, article
In the FCA's opinion, the matters in PERG 8.6.9 G have the following effects.(1) Any one particular communication will either be real time or non-real time but not both. This is because:(a) a real time communication is one made in the course of an interactive dialogue (see PERG 8.10.2 G for guidance on the meaning of real time);(b) those exemptions which concern real time communications apply only to communications which are made to persons and not those which are directed at
(1) [deleted] 33(2) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 25.4.5G]3(3) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 25.4.6G]3(4) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 25.4.7G]3(5) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 25.4.8G]3(6) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 25.4.11G]3(7) [deleted] [Editor’s
Q. We are a trading venue operator. Can you please clarify how we can provide a data reporting service under the derogation from needing authorisation in article 59(2) of MiFID?A. (1) The derogation (or exception) in article 59(2) of MiFID allows Member States to allow a trading venue operator to provide a data reporting service without prior authorisation, if the operator has verified that they comply with Title V of MiFID.(2) The United Kingdom has adopted this derogation in
Q. How do we go about applying to be an ARM?
A. In summary:
(1) You should complete:(a) all of the questions in the application form at MAR 9 Annex 1D; and(b) the notification form for the list of members of the management body at MAR 9 Annex 2D.(2) You should sign the MIS confidentiality agreement at MAR 9 Annex 10D.(3) You should provide the documents referred to in: (a) (1)(a) and (b) together with supporting documentation to the FCA as set out in MAR 9.2.6D; and(b) (2) to
Q. Does an investment firm need to be authorised as an ARM to send transaction reports to the FCA?
A. No. If you are a MiFID investment firm that wishes to send transaction reports to us to satisfy your own transaction reporting obligations under MiFIR, you do not need to become authorised as an ARM. You are permitted to connect directly to us although there will be a requirement to sign a MIS confidentiality agreement with us, to satisfy connectivity requirements and to undertake
Q. Can any trading venue report transactions for the purposes of article 26 of MiFIR to the FCA using an ARM?
A. Yes. The ability of a trading venue to submit data to an ARM is consistent with the definition of an ARM which enables a trading venue to submit information, on its own behalf, to an ARM. It is also consistent with paragraph 2 of article 9 [Security] of MiFID RTS 13, which enables a third party to submit information to an ARM on behalf of others. More generally, it
Q. Can a group of investment firms aggregate their reporting via an internal hub?
A. Yes. A group of investment firms may use a hub to assist with aggregating transaction reporting data for each legal entity that is an investment firm in the group for the purposes of article 26 of MiFIR provided that the hub is either an ARM or the hub uses an ARM to report the transaction data to the FCA. Paragraph 2 of article 9 [Security] of MiFID RTS 13 confirms that an investment firm (‘reporting
Q. I intend to apply to be authorised to provide the data reporting service of an APA. May I establish connectivity requirements while my application for authorisation is being considered?A. Yes. The MIS confidentiality agreement is available on our website at www.fca.org.uk/markets/market-data-regimes/market-data-reporting-mdp together with instructions on how to obtain the Market Interface Specification (MIS) for connectivity.
A firm authorised under Part 4A8 of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part 4A permission8 granted by the FCA or the PRA. A firm'sPart 4A permission8 specifies all or some of the following elements (see PERG 2 Annex 2 (Regulated activities and the permission regime) and the information online at the FCA and PRA websites):8888338(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified investments involved;
8If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission to:(1) add a regulated activity, other than a PRA-regulated activity; or(2) remove a regulated activity from those to which the permission relates; or(3) vary the description of a regulated activity to which the permission relates; or(4) cancel the permission;it can apply to the FCA under section 55H of the Act (Variation by FCA at request of authorised person).
8If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission, by adding to the regulated activities to which the permission relates one or more regulated activities, which include a PRA-regulated activity, it can apply to the PRA under section 55I of the Act (Variation by PRA at request of authorised person). The PRA can determine such an application only with the consent of the FCA.
Variation and cancellation of Part 4A permission and imposition, variation and cancellation of requirements. See SUP 6.2.3A G to SUP 6.2.3E G8
8Question |
Variation of Part 4A permission |
Cancellation of Part 4A permission |
Imposition, variation and cancellation of requirements |
What does the application apply to? |
Individual elements of a firm'sPart 4A permission. Variations may involve adding or removing categories of regulated activity or specified investments or varying or removing any limitations in the firm'sPart 4A permission. |
A firm's entire Part 4A permission and not individual elements within it. |
Any requirement imposed on a firm with a Part 4A permission. Requirements may involve requiring the firm concerned to take or refrain from taking a specified action. |
In what circumstances is it usually appropriate to make an application? |
If a firm: 1. wishes to change the regulated activities it carries on in the United Kingdom under a Part 4A permission (SUP 6.3); or 2. has the ultimate intention of ceasing carrying on regulated activities but due to the nature of those regulated activities (for example, accepting deposits, or insurance business) it will require a long term (normally over six months) to wind down (run off) its business (see SUP 6.2.8 G to SUP 6.2.11 G and SUP 6 Annex 4). |
If a firm: 1. has ceased to carry on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part 4A permission (SUP 6.4); or 2. wishes or expects to cease carrying on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part 4A permission in the short term (normally not more than six months). In this case, the firm may apply to cancel its Part 4A permission prior to ceasing the regulated activities (see SUP 6.4.3 G). |
If a firm: 1. wishes to have a new requirement imposed on it; or 2. wishes to vary or cancel an existing requirement imposed by the FCA or PRA (for example, if anything relating to the firm's individual circumstances change and any existing requirement should be varied or cancelled). |
The purpose of this section is to: 3(1) give directions to authorised payment institutions, small payment institutions and registered account information service providers under regulation 109(1) (Reporting requirements) of the Payment Services Regulations in relation to:31212(a) the information in respect of their provision of payment services and their compliance with requirements imposed by or under Parts 2 to 7 of the Payment Services Regulations that they must provide to
3The purpose for which this section requires information to be provided to the FCA under regulation 109 of the Payment Services Regulations is to assist the FCA in the discharge of its functions under regulation 106 (Functions of the FCA), regulation 108 (Monitoring and enforcement) and regulation 109(6) (Reporting requirements) of the Payment Services Regulations.
(1) An authorised payment institution, a small payment institution , an EEA authorised payment institution or a registered account information service provider3 must submit to the FCA12 the duly completed return applicable to it as set out in column (2) of the table in SUP 16.13.4D.2212(2) An authorised payment institution, a small payment institution or a registered account information service provider3 must submit the return referred to in (1):(a) in the format specified as
3Authorised payment institutions, small payment institutions and registered account information service providers are reminded that they should give the FCA reasonable advance notice of changes to their accounting reference date (among other things) under regulation 37 of the Payment Services Regulations. The accounting reference date is important because many frequencies and due dates for reporting to the FCA are linked to the accounting reference date.
(1) 5In the case of an authorised payment institution, an authorised electronic money institution or a credit institution:(a) the return set out in SUP 16 Annex 27ED must be provided to the FCA every six months; (b) returns must cover the reporting periods 1 January to 30 June and 1 July to 31 December; and(c) returns must be submitted within two months of the end of each reporting period.(2) In the case of a small payment institution, a registered account information service
2In certain cases, despite concerns about a person’s behaviour or evidence of a rule
breach, the FCA may decide that it is not appropriate, having regard to all the circumstances of the case, to bring formal action for a financial penalty or public censure. This is consistent with the FCA's risk-based approach to enforcement. In such cases, the FCA may give a private warning to make the person aware that they came close to being subject to formal action.
2Private warnings are a non-statutory tool. Fundamentally they are no different to any other FCA communication which criticises or expresses concern about a person’s conduct. But private warnings are a more serious form of reprimand than would usually be made in the course of ongoing supervisory correspondence. A private warning requires that the FCA identifies and explains its concerns about a person's conduct and/or procedures, and tells the subject of the warning that the FCA
2Typically, the FCA might give a private warning rather than take formal action where the matter giving cause for concern is minor in nature or degree, or where the person has taken full and immediate remedial action. But there can be no exhaustive list of the conduct or the circumstances which are likely to lead to a private warning rather than more serious action. The FCA will take into account all the circumstances of the case before deciding whether a private warning is appropriate.
2Generally, the FCA would expect to use private warnings in the context of firms, approved persons and conduct rules staff1. However, the FCA may also issue private warnings in circumstances where the persons involved may not necessarily be authorised or approved. For example, private warnings may be issued in potential cases of market abuse; cases where the FCA has considered making a prohibition order or a disapplication order; or cases involving breaches of provisions imposed
2In each case, the FCA will consider the likely impact of a private warning on the recipient and whether any risk that person poses to the statutory objectives requires the FCA to take more serious action. Equally, where the FCA gives a private warning to an approved person or conduct rules staff1, the FCA will consider whether it would be desirable and appropriate to inform the person's1firm (or employer, if different) of the conduct giving rise to the warning and the FCA's
2A private warning is not intended to be a determination by the FCA as to whether the recipient has breached the FCA'srules. However, private warnings, together with any comments received in response, will form part of the person's compliance history. In this sense they are no different to other FCA correspondence, but the weight the FCA attaches to a private warning is likely to be greater. They may therefore influence the FCA's decision whether to commence action for a penalty
The purpose of the 5Code of Practice for Approved Persons is to help an approved person5 to determine whether or not
that person's5 conduct
complies with a Statement of Principle.
The code sets out descriptions of conduct which, in the FCA's opinion,
do or5 do not comply with the relevant Statements
of Principle. The code also sets out certain factors which,
in the opinion of the FCA,
are to be taken into account in determining whether an approved
person's conduct complies with
The Code of Practice for Approved Persons5 is general guidance. The status and effect of general guidance is described in the Readers' Guide. In particular, guidance:5(1) represents the FCA’s view and does not bind the courts or third parties;5(2) is not binding on approved persons, nor does it have ‘evidential’ effect;5(3) need not be followed to achieve compliance with the Statements of Principle, nor is there any presumption that departing from guidance is indicative of a
5In assessing compliance with, or a breach of, a Statement of Principle, the FCA will look at5 all the circumstances of a particular case. 5 Account will be taken of the context in which a course of conduct
was undertaken, including the precise circumstances of the individual case,
the characteristics of the particular accountable
function12 and the behaviour to be expected
in that function. 12
The Code of Practice for Approved Persons (and
in particular the specific examples of behaviour which may be in breach of
a generic description of conduct in the code) is not exhaustive of the kind
of conduct that may contravene the Statements
of Principle. The purpose of the code is to help determine whether
or not a person's conduct complies
with a Statement of Principle.
The code may be supplemented from time to time. The FCA5 will amend the code if there is
a risk that unacceptable
In applying Statements of Principle 5 to 7, the nature, scale and complexity of the business under management and the role and responsibility of the individual performing an accountable higher management function5 within the firm will be relevant in assessing whether an approved person's conduct was reasonable. For example, the smaller and less complex the business, the less detailed and extensive the systems of control need to be. The FCA will be of the opinion that an individual
UK domestic firms with a premium listing of equity shares6 are subject to the UK
Corporate Governance Code4, whose internal
control provisions are amplified in the publication entitled ‘Guidance on Risk Management, Internal Control and Related Financial and Business Reporting (September 2014)’6 issued by the Financial Reporting Council4. Firms regulated
by the FCA5 in this category will 6be subject
to that code as well as to the requirements and standards of the regulatory system.
1The following firms or operators of trading venues must deal with the FCA in an open and co-operative way when establishing a technology connection with the FCA for the submission of transaction reports and/or the supply of reference data:(1) a firm in SUP 17A.1.1R(1) or 17A.1.1R(3) that chooses to submit its reports directly to the FCA instead of using an ARM;(2) an operator of a trading venue in SUP 17A.1.1R(2), other than a UK RIE that is not itself an ARM; and(3) a firm or
2The FCA expects a systematic internaliser that will be supplying the FCA with financial instrument reference data in respect of a financial instrument traded on its system that is not admitted to trading on a regulated market or traded on an MTF or OTF to establish a technology connection with the FCA for the supply of that reference data.
2A firm in SUP 17A.1.1.R(4) may use a third party technology provider to submit to the FCAfinancial instrument reference data in respect of a financial instrument traded on its system provided that it does so in a manner consistent with MiFID and MiFIR. Firms will retain responsibility for the completeness, accuracy and timely submission of the data. A firm should be the applicant for, and should complete and sign, the FCA MDP on-boarding application form.
To ensure the security of the FCA’s systems, a firm or operator of a trading venue in SUP 17A.2.1R must:(1) sign the MIS confidentiality agreement at MAR 9 Annex 10D; and(2) send it by email it to MDP.onboarding@fca.org.uk or post an original signed copy to the FCA addressed to:
The Financial Conduct Authority
FAO The Markets Reporting Team12 Endeavour Square3London, E20 1JN3.
Once the FCA receives the MIS confidentiality agreement from the firm or operator of a trading venue, the FCA will:(1) provide the firm or operator with the Market Interface Specification (MIS); and(2) request the firm or operator to:(a) confirm to the FCA that it can satisfy these specifications by completing the FCA MDP on-boarding application form at MAR 9 Annex 7D; and(b) provide the completed form and any relevant documents to the FCA together with the associated fee in FEES
(1) Regulation 15(8)(f) of the OEIC Regulations (Requirements for authorisation) requires independence between the depositary, the ICVC and the ICVC's directors, as does section 243(4) of the Act (Authorisation orders) for the trustee and manager of an AUT, and section 261D(4) of the Act (Authorisation orders) for the depositary and authorised fund manager of an ACS6. COLL 6.9.3 G to COLL 6.9.5 G give the6FCA's view of the meaning of independence of these relationships. An ICVC,
(1) Independence is likely to be lost if, by means of executive power, either relevant party could control the action of the other.(2) The board of one relevant party should not be able to exercise effective control of the board of another relevant party. Arrangements which might indicate this situation include quorum provisions and reservations of decision-making capacity of certain directors.(3) For an AUT or ACS6, the FCA would interpret the concept of directors in common to
Independence is likely to be lost if either of the relevant parties could control the actions of the other by means of shareholders' votes. The FCA considers this would happen if any shareholding by one relevant party and their respective associates in the other exceeds 15% of the voting share capital, either in a single share class or several share classes. The FCA would be willing, however, to look at cross-shareholdings exceeding 15% on a case-by-case basis to consider if there
(1) Regulation 15(9) of the OEIC Regulations, and sections 243(8) and 261D(10)6 of the Act require that an authorised fund's name must not be undesirable or misleading. This section contains guidance on some specific matters the FCA will consider in determining whether the name of an authorised fund is undesirable or misleading. It is in addition to the requirements of regulation 19 of the OEIC Regulations (Prohibition on certain names).6(2) The FCA will take into account whether
An ICVC must notify the FCA within 14 days of the occurrence of any of the following:(1) any amendment to the instrument of incorporation;(2) any change in the address of the head office of the ICVC;(3) any change of director;(4) any change of depositary;(5) in respect of any director or depositary, any change in the information mentioned in regulation 12(1)(b) or (c) of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation);(6) any change of the auditor of the ICVC;(7) any order
A listed company must inform the FCA in writing as soon as possible if it has:(1) requested a RIE to admit or re-admit any of its listedequity shares5 to trading; or5(2) requested a RIE to cancel or suspend trading of any of its listedequity shares;5 or(3) been informed by a RIE that trading of any of its listedequity shares5 will be cancelled or suspended.5
9In addition to the annual confirmation required to be included in a listed company's annual financial report under LR 9.8.4R (14), the FCA may request information from a listed company under LR 1.3.1 R (3) to confirm or verify that an undertaking in LR 6.5.4R or LR 9.2.2ADR(1)13 or a procurement obligation (as set out in LR 6.5.5R(2)(a)13 or LR 9.2.2BR (2)(a)) contained in an agreement entered into under LR 6.5.4R or LR 9.2.2ADR(1)13 is being or has been complied with.
A listed company must ensure that the FCA is provided with up to date contact details of at least one appropriate person nominated by it to act as the first point of contact with the FCA in relation to the company's compliance with the listing rules and the disclosure requirements12 and transparency rules.
9Where the FCA has modified LR 6.14.1R13 to accept a percentage lower than 25% on the basis that the market will operate properly with a lower percentage, but the FCA considers that in practice the market for the shares is not operating properly, the FCA may revoke the modification in accordance with LR 1.2.1 R (4).
9The FCA may modify the operation of LR 9.2.21 R in exceptional circumstances, for example to accommodate the operation of:(1) special share arrangements designed to protect the national interest;(2) dual listed company voting arrangements; and(3) voting rights attaching to preference shares or similar securities that are in arrears.
9A listed company must notify the FCA without delay if: (1) it no longer complies with LR 9.2.2G R; (2) it becomes aware that an undertaking in LR 6.5.4R or LR 9.2.2ADR(1)13 has not been complied with by the controlling shareholder or any of its associates; or(3) it becomes aware that a procurement obligation (as set out in LR 6.5.5R(2)(a)13 or LR 9.2.2BR (2)(a)) contained in an agreement entered into under LR 6.5.4R or LR 9.2.2ADR(1)13 has not been complied with by a controlling
1The FCA is only able to exercise powers available to it under Parts I and II of RIPA where it is necessary for the purpose of preventing or detecting crime. All RIPA authorisations for the acquisition of communications data, the carrying out of directed surveillance and the use of CHIS must be approved by a Head of Department in the Enforcement Division. Authorisation will only be given where the authorising officer believes that the proposed action is necessary and proportionate
1Under Part III RIPA the FCA is able to require a person who holds “protected” electronic information (that is, information which is encrypted) to put that information into an intelligible form and, where the person has a key to the encrypted information, to require the person to disclose the key so that the data may be put into an intelligible form. The FCA may impose such a requirement where it is necessary for the purpose of preventing or detecting crime or where it is necessary
1RIPA provides for the appointment of Commissioners to oversee the compliance of designated authorities with RIPA requirements, and the establishment of a tribunal with jurisdiction to consider and determine, amongst other things, complaints and referrals about the way in which the FCA and other public bodies use their RIPA powers.
The activity in article 25(1) is carried on only if the arrangements bring about, or would bring about, the transaction to which the arrangement relates. This is because of the exclusion in article 26 of the Regulated Activities Order (Arrangements not causing a deal). Article 26 excludes from article 25(1) arrangements which do not bring about or would not bring about the transaction to which the arrangements relate. In the FCA's view, a person would bring about a contract of
Article 25(2) may, for instance, include activities of persons who help potential policyholders fill in or check application forms in the context of ongoing arrangements between these persons and insurance undertakings. A further example of this activity would be a person introducing customers to an intermediary either for advice or to help arrange an insurance policy. The introduction might be oral or written. By contrast, the FCA considers that a mere passive display of literature
In the FCA's view, 'incidental' in this context means that the activity must arise out of, be complementary to or otherwise be sufficiently closely connected with the profession or business. In other words, there must be an inherent link between the activity and the firm's main business. For example, introducing dental insurance may be incidental to a dentist's activities; introducing pet insurance would not be incidental to his activities. In addition, to be considered 'incidental',
This exclusion applies to a person whose profession or business does not otherwise consist of regulated activities. In the FCA's view, the fact that a person may carry on regulated activities in the course of the carrying on of a profession or business does not, of itself, mean that the profession or business consists of regulated activities. This is provided that the main focus of the profession or business does not involve regulated activities and that the regulated activities
In the FCA's view, the crucial element of the exclusion in article 27 is the inclusion of the word 'merely'. When a publisher, broadcaster or internet website operator goes beyond what is necessary for him1 to provide its1 service of publishing, broadcasting or otherwise facilitating the issue of promotions, it may well bring itself1 within the scope of article 25(2). Further detailed guidance relating to the scope of the exclusion in article 27 is contained in PERG 2.8.6G (2)
The restriction in the scope of article 28 raises an issue where there is a trust with co-trustees, where each trustee will be a policyholder with equal rights and obligations. If the activities of one of the trustees include arranging in respect of contracts of insurance, that trustee could be viewed as arranging on behalf of his co-trustees who will also be policyholders. Similar issues also arise in respect of trustees assisting in the administration and performance of a contract
The effect of PERG 5.6.17G (4) is that some persons who, in making introductions, are making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments under article 25(2) of the Regulated Activities Order, cannot use the introducing exclusion. This is usually the case if1 the arrangements for making introductions relate to contracts of insurance (PERG 5.6.19 G has further guidance on when arrangements for introductions may be regarded as relating to contracts of insurance). However,
Where a person is making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments by way of making introductions, and he is not completely indifferent to whether or not transactions may result, it may still be the case that the exclusion in article 33 will apply. In the FCA's view, this is where:(1) the introduction is for independent advice on investments generally; and(2) the introducer is indifferent as to whether or not a contract of insurance may ultimately be bought (or
In the FCA's view, the circumstances in which a person is giving advice on the borrower varying the terms of a regulated mortgage contract so as to vary his obligations under the contract include (but are not limited to) where the advice is about:(1) the borrower obtaining a further advance secured on the same land as the original loan; or(2) a rate switch or a product switch (that is, where the borrower does not change lender but changes the terms for repayment from, say, a variable
In the FCA's view, guiding a person through scripted questions or a decision tree should not, of itself, involve advice within the meaning of article 53A (it should be generic advice). But the combination of advice, which in isolation may properly be considered generic, with the identification of a particular or several particular regulated mortgage contracts may well, in the FCA's view, cause the person to be advising on regulated mortgage contracts; the FCA considers that it
In the FCA's view, advice requires an element of opinion on the part of the adviser which steers or is intended to steer a borrower or potential borrower in the direction of one or more particular mortgages. In effect, it is a recommendation as to a course of action. Information on the other hand, involves objective statements of facts and figures.
In the FCA's opinion, however, such information is likely take on the nature of advice if the circumstances in which it is provided give it the force of a recommendation as described in PERG 4.6.10 G. Examples of situations where information provided by a person ('P') are likely to take the form of advice are given below.(1) P provides information on a selected, rather than balanced and neutral, basis that would tend to influence the decision of the borrower. This may arise where
Undertaking the process of scripted questioning gives rise to particular issues concerning advice. These mainly involve two aspects of this regulated activity. These are that advice must relate to a particular regulated mortgage contract (see PERG 4.6.5 G) and the distinction between information and advice (see PERG 4.6.13 G). Whether or not scripted questioning in any particular case is advising on regulated mortgage contracts will depend on all the circumstances. If the process
The potential for variation in the form, content and manner of scripted questioning is considerable, but there are two broad types. The first type involves providing questions and answers which are confined to factual matters (for example, whether a borrower wishes to pay a fixed or variable rate of interest or the size of deposit available). In the FCA's view, this does not of itself amount to advising on regulated mortgage contracts, as it involves the provision of information
In the scenarios identified inPERG 4.6.23G (3)1 andPERG 4.6.24G (2)1, the FCA considers that it is necessary to look at the process and outcome of scripted questioning as a whole. It may be that the element of advice incorporated in the questioning may properly be viewed as generic advice if it were considered in isolation. But, although the actual advice may be generic, the process has ended in identifying one or more particular regulated mortgage contracts. The combination of
2Further examples of what is and is not regulated advice
This table belongs to PERG 4.6.33 G.
Example of what the firm3 says and does 3 |
Regulated or not? |
(1) The firm says “We have a wide range of mortgages, including fixed and variable rates. Here are some leaflets which set out the main features.” |
No. Leaflets that just explain the terms and conditions of a lender’s products are not advice (see PERG 4.6.15G (1)). Even if the leaflet contains promotional material, merely handing over the leaflet does not mean that the firm is giving advice. |
(2) The firm says “We have a wide range of mortgages, our best rates are two-year fixed rates, you might want to look at those.” |
Yes. The firm has identified specific products that it offers and is steering the customer to those products. Identifying which products have the lowest rates is not advice on its own, only facts. However, “best” involves a value judgment, particularly when a comparison is made with other products that have different periods for which interest is fixed or that have variable interest rates. |
(3) The firm says “In order to provide you with an illustration, I need to know how much you want to borrow, the term and the property value. Which product or products would you like an illustration for?” |
No. The firm is collecting factual information to provide the customer with an illustration of costs. |
(4) The firm says “Based on what you’ve told me I think you would be best to look at two-year fixed rates. Here is some information about our products.” |
Yes. The firm has made a judgment on what type of product is best for the customer and has identified specific products of that type that it offers. |
(5) The firm says “Our fixed rates start at 4.99% for two years with a £900 fee. Our variable rates start at 4.50% with a £800 fee. Depending on how much you want to borrow and your circumstances, this may affect the rate available to you.” |
No. The firm is comparing two products without recommending either, nor is the firm steering the customer to one over the other. |
(6) A lender with just one mortgage product advises a customer to take out that mortgage. The lender makes it clear that it does not give advice about products other than its own. |
Yes. The lender may argue that this is not regulated advice because it is not recommending one product over another as it only has one product itself and does not give advice about the products of other lenders. However, in the FCA's view this is still regulated advice. For advice to be regulated it must be advice on the merits of entering into a particular regulated mortgage contract (or varying one). It is possible to give advice about the merits of a product without comparing that product with another. |
Note: Unless otherwise specified, the firm might be the lender or an advisory or intermediary firm. |
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Examples of when the FCA may cancel the listing of securities include (but are not limited to) situations where it appears to the FCA that:(1) the securities are no longer admitted to trading as required by these rules; or(2) the issuer no longer satisfies its continuing obligations for listing, for example if the percentage of shares in public hands falls below 25% or such lower percentage as the FCA may permit (the FCA may however allow a reasonable time to restore the percentage,
Subject to 41LR 5.2.7 R, LR 5.2.10 R, LR 5.2.11A R9 and LR 5.2.12 R, 1an issuer with a premium listing4that wishes the FCA to cancel the listing of any of its 5securities11 with a premium listing4must:11114(1) send a circular to the holders of the relevant securities11.9 The circular must:9(a) comply with the requirements of LR 13.3.1 R and LR 13.3.2 R (contents of all circulars);(b) be submitted to the FCA for approval prior to publication; and(c) include the anticipated date
An issuer that wishes the FCA to cancel the listing of listed securities (other than securities11 with a premium listing41) must notify a RIS, giving at least 20 business days notice of the intended cancellation but is not required to obtain the approval of the holders of those securities contemplated in LR 5.2.5 R (2) or (2A)11.15144
6In determining whether the statutory winding up or reconstruction measures in relation to an overseasissuer under equivalent overseas legislation have a similar effect to those set out in LR 5.2.12R (1) to LR 5.2.12R (6), the FCA will in particular have regard to whether those procedures require a court order, the approval of 75% of the shareholders entitled to vote on the resolution, or a formal declaration of the overseasissuer's insolvency or inability to pay its debts.
The FCA3 will usually consider revoking a recognition order if:3(1) the recognised body is failing or has failed to satisfy 2one or more of the recognised body requirements1and that failure has or will have serious consequences; or2(2) it would not be possible for the recognised body to comply with a direction under section 296 of the Act (FCA's3 power to give directions) or (for RAPs) regulation 3 of the RAP regulations;2 or 3(3) for some other reason, it would not be appropriate
The FCA3 would be likely to consider the conditions in REC 4.7.3 G (2) or REC 4.7.3 G (3) to be triggered1in the following circumstances:31(1) the recognised body appears not to have the resources or management to be able to organise its affairs so as to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements; or212(2) the recognised body does not appear to be willing to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements; or212(3) the recognised body is failing or has failed
In addition to the relevant 1factors set out in REC 4.7.4 G, the FCA3 will usually consider that it would not be able to secure an ROIE's3 compliance with the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act by means of a direction under section 296 of the Act, if it appears to the FCA3 that the ROIE3 is prevented by any change in the legal framework or supervisory arrangements to which it is subject in its home territory from complying with the recognition requirements
1The FCA's general policy is to pursue through the criminal justice system all those cases where criminal prosecution is appropriate. When it decides whether to bring criminal proceedings in England, Wales or Northern Ireland, or to refer the matter to another prosecuting authority in England, Wales or Northern Ireland (see paragraph 12.4.1), it will apply the basic principles set out in the Code for Crown Prosecutors.14 When considering whether to prosecute a breach of the Money
1In cases where criminal proceedings have commenced or will be commenced, the FCA may consider whether also to take civil or regulatory action (for example where this is appropriate for the protection of consumers) and how such action should be pursued. That action might include: applying to court for an injunction; applying to court for a restitution order; variation and/or cancellation of permission; and prohibition of individuals. The factors the FCA may take into account when
1Subject to 12.4C, a decision to commence criminal proceedings will be made by the RDC Chairman or, in an urgent case and if the Chairman is not available, by an RDC Deputy Chairman. In an exceptionally urgent case the matter will be decided by the director of Enforcement or, in his or her absence, another member of the FCA's executive of at least director of division level.
1An exceptionally urgent case in these circumstances is one where the FCA staff believe that a decision to begin proceedings (1) should be taken before it is possible to follow the procedure described in paragraph 12.1.5; and (2) it is necessary to protect the interests of consumers or potential consumers.
1Decisions about whether to initiate criminal proceedings under the Building Societies Act 1986, the Friendly Societies Acts 1974 and 1992, the Credit Unions Act 1979 and the Co-operative and Community Benefit Societies Act 20142 may either be taken by the procedure described in EG 12.1.52 or under executive procedures. The less serious the offence or its impact and the less complex the issues raised, the more likely that the FCA will take the decision to prosecute under executive