Related provisions for GEN 1.2.1

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EG 13.6.2RP
1When deciding whether to petition on this ground the FCA will consider all relevant facts including: (1) whether the needs of consumers and the public interest require the company or partnership to cease to operate; (2) the need to protect consumers' claims and client assets; (3) whether the needs of consumers and the public interest can be met by using the FCA's other powers; (4) in the case of an authorised person, where the FCA considers that the authorisation should be withdrawn
COND 1.1A.3GRP
(1) As a result of the new legal framework for threshold conditions described in COND 1.1A.1G (1), PRA-authorised persons and firms seeking to become PRA-authorised persons are subject to two sets of threshold conditions:(i) the FCA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(ii)and(ii) one of the two PRA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(iii) or (iv), depending on the PRA-regulated activities which the PRA-authorised person or firm carries on, or is
EG App 3.1.4RP
3The FCA has the power to take the following enforcement action: • discipline authorised firms under Part XIV of the 2000 Act and approved persons and other individuals1under s.66 of the 2000 Act;• impose penalties on persons that perform controlled functions4without approval under s.63A of the 2000 Act;• impose civil penalties2under s.123 of the 2000 Act;[Note: see Regulation 6 and Schedule 1 to the RAP Regulations for the application of this power and those below to contraventions
PERG 5.14.1GRP
Professional firms (broadly firms of solicitors, accountants and actuaries) may carry on insurance distribution activities3 in the course of their professional activities. Exempt professional firms carrying on insurance distribution activities3 may continue to be able to use the Part XX exemption to avoid any need for authorisation. PROF 2 (Status of exempt professional firm) contains guidance on the Part XX exemption. They will, however, need to be shown on the Financial Services
SUP 13A.1.2GRP
This chapter does not apply to:(1) an EEA firm that wishes to carry on in the United Kingdom activities which are outside the scope of its EEA right and the scope of a permission granted under Schedule 4 to the Act; in this case the EEA firm requires a "top-up permission" under Part 4A16 of the Act (see the appropriate UK regulator's website www.fca.org.uk/firms/authorisation/apply-authorisation for the FCA and www.bankofengland.co.uk/pra/Pages/authorisations/newfirm/default.aspx
PERG 5.2.3GRP
A person who is concerned to know whether their proposed insurance distribution activities4 may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions:4(1) will the activities relate to contracts of insurance (see PERG 5.3(Contracts of insurance))?(2) if so, will I be carrying on any insurance distribution activity4 (see PERG 5.5 (The regulated activities: dealing in contracts as agent) to PERG 5.11 (Other aspects of exclusions))?(3) if so, will I be carrying on
SUP 12.2.2AGRP
(1) 15Under sections 20(1) and (1A) of the Act (Authorised persons acting without permission), if an authorised person carries on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom, or purports to do so, otherwise than in accordance with his permission, he is to be taken to have contravened a requirement imposed by the FCA (in the case of a FCA-authorised person) or the FCA and the PRA (in the case of a PRA-authorised person).(2) In addition, under section 23(1A) of the Act (Contravention
REC 2.4A.2UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraph 2B

(1)

If the [UK RIE] is significant the following requirements apply to the management body -

(a)

members of the management body must not at the same time hold positions exceeding more than one of the following combinations –

(i)

one executive directorship with two non-executive directorships (or where so authorised by the FCA under regulation 44(1) [of the MiFI Regulations], three non-executive directorships); or

(ii)

four non-executive directorships (or where so authorised by the FCA under regulation 44(1) [of the MiFI Regulations], five non-executive directorships); and

(b)

the management body must have a nomination committee unless it is prevented by law from selecting and appointing its own members.

(2)

For the purposes of sub-paragraph (1)(a) -

(a)

any directorship in which the person represents the United Kingdom is not counted;

(b)

executive or non-executive directorships -

(i)

held within the same group, or

(ii)

held within the same undertaking where the [UK RIE] holds a qualifying holding within the meaning of Article 4.1.31 of the markets in financial instruments directive [MiFID],

shall be counted as a single directorship; and

(c)

any directorship in an organisation which does not pursue predominantly commercial objectives is not counted.

(3)

The nomination committee referred to in sub-paragraph (1)(b) must -

(a)

be composed of members of the management body who do not perform an executive function in the [UK RIE];

(b)

identify and recommend to the [UK RIE] persons to fill management body vacancies;

(c)

at least annually assess the structure, size, composition and performance of the management body and make recommendations to the management body;

(d)

at least annually assess the knowledge, skills and experience of individual members of the management body and of the management body collectively and report to the management body accordingly; and

(e)

periodically review the policy of the management body for the selection and appointment of senior management and make recommendations to the management body; and

(f)

be able to use any forms of resource it deems appropriate, including external advice.

(4)

In performing its functions under sub-paragraph (3), the nomination committee must take account of the need to ensure that the management body’s decision making is not dominated by-

(a)

any one individual; or

(b)

a small group of individuals,

in a manner that is detrimental to the interests of the [UK RIE] as a whole.

(5)

In performing its function under sub-paragraph 3(b) the nomination committee must -

(a)

evaluate the balance of knowledge, skills, diversity and experience of the management body;

(b)

prepare a description of the roles, capabilities and expected time commitment for any particular appointment;

(c)

decide on a target for the representation of the underrepresented gender in the management body and prepare a policy on how to meet that target;

(d)

engage a broad set of qualities and competences, and for that purpose have a policy promoting diversity on the management body.

(6)

In sub-paragraph (1), “significant” in relation to a [UK RIE] means significant in terms of the size and internal organisation of the [UK RIE] and the nature, scale and complexity of the [UK RIE’s] activities.
PR 1.2.1UKRP

Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FCA will be required:

85

(1)

It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made.

(2)

It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made.

(3)

A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable –

(a)

on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;

(b)

on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both.

(4)

A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.

(5)

Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R].

(6)

Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R].

(7)

"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities.

86

Exempt offers to the public

(1)

A person does not contravene section 85(1) if –

(a)

the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only;

(b)

the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 1502 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State;

(c)

the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount);

3

(d)

the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 100,0003 euros (or equivalent amounts);

33

(e)

the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered in the EEA states3 cannot exceed 8,000,000 euros (or an equivalent amount); or3

3

3(f)

the offer falls within subsection (1A).

3(1A)

An offer (“the current offer”) falls within this subsection where transferable securities are resold or placed through a financial intermediary where:

3(a)

the transferable securities have previously been the subject of one or more offers to the public;

3(b)

in respect of one or more of those previous offers, any of paragraphs (a) to (e) of subsection (1) applied;

3(c)

a prospectus is available for the securities which has been approved by the FCA and meets either of the conditions in subsection (1B);4 and

4

3(d)

the issuer or other person who was responsible for drawing up the prospectus has given written consent to the use of the prospectus for the purpose of the current offer.4

4(1B)

The conditions referred to in subsection (1A)(c) are:

(a)

that the prospectus was approved by the FCA no earlier than 12 months before the date the current offer is made, and is supplemented by every supplementary prospectus which was required to be submitted under section 87G; or

(b)

in the case of non-equity transferable securities falling within article 5(4)(b) of the prospectus directive, that the securities concerned have not ceased to be issued in a continuous or repeated manner.

(2)

Where -

(a)

a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within point (1) of Section 1 of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive3 to act as his agent; and

3

(b)

the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client,

an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client.

(3)

For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to –

(a)

trustees of a trust,

(b)

members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or

(c)

two or more persons jointly,

is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person.

(4)

In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which –

(a)

was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and

(b)

had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e).

(5)

For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account.

(6)

The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made.

(7)

"Qualified investor",6 in relation to an offer of transferable securities,3 means –

(a)

a person described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(b)

a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to that directive and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with that relevant firm (or each of those relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(c)

a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of that directive and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of that directive;3

3

3(d)

a person whom –6

6(i)

any relevant firm was6 authorised to continue to treat as a professional client immediately before 3 January 2018 by virtue of article 71.6 (transitional provisions) of Directive 2004/39/EC on markets in financial instruments; and6

6(ii)

the firm may continue to treat as a professional client from 3 January 2018 by virtue of Section II.2 of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive.

3(8)

In subsection (7) “relevant firm” means an investment firm or credit institution acting in connection with the offer.

3(9)

Investment firms and credit institutions which are authorised persons7 must communicate their classification of their clients as being or not being qualified investors on request to an issuer, subject to complying with data protection legislation7.

3(10)

In subsections (8) and (9) -

“credit institution” means -

(a) a credit institution authorised under the banking consolidation directive; or

(b) an institution which would satisfy the requirements for authorisation as a credit institution under that directive if it had its registered office (or if it does not have one, its head office) in an EEA State.