Related provisions for CONC 8.7.7
341 - 360 of 616 items.
The FCA3 expects to have an open, cooperative and constructive relationship with UK recognised bodies to enable it to have a broad picture of the UK recognised body's activities and its ability to meet the recognised body requirements.2 This broad picture is intended to complement the information which the FCA3 will obtain under section 293 of the Act (Notification requirements) or under notification rules made under that section (see REC 3). The FCA3 will usually arrange meetings
(1) The purpose of MCOB 5.3.1 R, taken in conjunction with other rules in this chapter, is to ensure that the customer has received details of the particular home finance transaction for which he has applied, and has had the opportunity to satisfy himself that it is appropriate for him.1(2) In relation to a regulated mortgage contract, the application should identify the type of interest rate, rate of interest, and the mortgage lender at the point it is submitted by the customer
CASS 11 provides important safeguards for the protection of client money held by CASS debt management firms that sit alongside the fiduciary duty owed by firms in relation to client money. CASS 11.4.2 R to CASS 11.4.4 G provide guidance and rules for when money ceases to be client money for the purposes of both those rules and of the fiduciary duty which CASS debt management firms owe to clients in relation to client money.
1A disapplication order in relation to exempt regulated activities made against a member will be relevant should that member subsequently apply for authorisation under the Act. Whether or not such an application for authorisation is successful will depend on many factors, including the FCA's grounds for making the disapplication order. For example, if the order for disapplication of the exemption was made on the grounds of a breach of rules made under section 332(1) of the Act,
This guidance is issued under section 139A of the Act (Guidance). It represents the FCA's views and does not bind the courts. For example, it would not bind the courts in an action for damages brought by a private person for breach of a rule (see section 138D of the Act (Actions for damages)), or in relation to the enforceability of a contract where there has been a breach of sections 19 (The general prohibition) or 21 (Restrictions on financial promotion) of the Act (see sections
The RAP
regulations apply modified provisions of the Act to
an RAP. For example, an RAP is an exempt
person in respect of its business as an auction
platform due to the application of section 285 of the Act as modified by the the RAP
regulations. Similarly, section 293 of the Act is
applied and modified by the RAP regulations to
provide for notification rules and
notification requirements in relation to RAPs.
(1) For the purpose of BIPRU 7.8.2R (1), a firm has a commitment to underwrite or sub-underwrite an issue of securities where:(a) it gives a commitment to an issuer of securities to underwrite an issue of securities; or(b) (where BIPRU 7.8.12R (2) applies) it gives a commitment to a seller of securities to underwrite a sale of those securities;(c) it gives a commitment to a person, other than the issuer of securities or, if BIPRU 7.8.12R (2) applies, the seller of the securities,
(1) This rule deals with the treatment of short positions that arise when a firm commits to distribute securities that it is underwriting in an amount that exceeds the allocation to the firm made by the issuer of the securities being underwritten.(2) When calculating its net underwriting position, a firm may use an over-allotment option granted to it by the issuer of the securities being underwritten to reduce the short positions in (1).(3) A firm may also use an over-allotment
(1) A CAD Article 22 group means a UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group that meets the conditions in this rule.(2) There must be no bank, building society or2credit institution2 in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group and any investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group must not be subject to consolidated supervision under the EU CRR2.11(3) Each CAD investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group which is an EEA firm
A firm must calculate the capital resources of the parent financial holding company in a Member State for the purpose of BIPRU 8.4.11 R as follows:(1) the capital resources are the sum of capital resources calculated at stages D (Total tier one capital before deductions) and I (Total tier two capital) of the version of the capital resources table in GENPRU 2 Annex 4R(Capital resources table for a BIPRU 2firm deducting material holdings) as adjusted in accordance with this rule;(2)
66(1) The rules and guidance relating to training and competence in SYSC 3 and SYSC 5 and in TC for a firm carrying on retail business extend to any employee of the firm in respect of whom the relevant rules apply.15(2) The specific knowledge and ability requirements in SYSC 28.2 and TC 4.2 for a firm with Part 4A permission to carry on insurance distribution activities apply to a relevant employee (as defined in SYSC 28.1.2R and TC 4.2.3R) of the firm.15(3) For the purposes of
Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS gives notice to the FCA under section 251 or section 261Q1 of the Act or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations that it intends to wind up the scheme, it must inform:(1) the unitholders of the feeder UCITS; and(2) where notice is given under COLL 11.6.5R (4) (Application for approval by a feeder UCITS where a master UCITS merges or divides), the authorised fund manager of the master UCITS;of its intention without undue delay.[Note:
(1) Regulation 15(9) of the OEIC Regulations, and sections 243(8) and 261D(10)6 of the Act require that an authorised fund's name must not be undesirable or misleading. This section contains guidance on some specific matters the FCA will consider in determining whether the name of an authorised fund is undesirable or misleading. It is in addition to the requirements of regulation 19 of the OEIC Regulations (Prohibition on certain names).6(2) The FCA will take into account whether
(1) 8ESMA has issued guidelines on the use of the term ‘UCITS ETF’. A ‘UCITS ETF’ is a UCITS with at least one unit or share class which is traded throughout the day, on at least one regulated market or multilateral trading facility, with at least one market maker that takes action to ensure that the stock exchange value of its units or shares does not significantly vary from its net asset value and, where applicable, its indicative net asset value.(2) A ‘UCITS ETF’ should use
(1) 13This rule applies where a mineral company does not hold controlling interests in a majority (by value) of the properties, fields, mines or other assets in which it has invested.(2) The mineral company is not required to comply with LR 9.2.2IR where it can demonstrate the factors set out in LR 6.10.3R(2).
(1) This rule applies to a listed company that has published:(a) any unaudited financial information in a class 1 circular or a prospectus; or(b) any profit forecast or profit estimate.(2) The first time a listed company publishes financial information as required by DTR 4.17 after the publication of the unaudited financial information, profit forecast or profit estimate, it must:7(a) reproduce that financial information, profit forecast or profit estimate in its next annual report
(1) 6An authorised fund may only enter into a stock lending arrangement or repo contract in accordance with the rules in this section if the arrangement or contract is: (a) for the account of and for the benefit of the scheme; and(b) in the interests of its unitholders. (2) An arrangement or contract in (1) is not in the interests of unitholders unless it reasonably appears to the ICVC or authorised fund manager of an authorised fund to be appropriate with a view to generating
(1) Collateral is adequate for the purposes of this section only if it is:(a) transferred to the depositary or its agent;(aa) 6for a UCITS scheme, received under a title transfer arrangement;(ab) 6for a UCITS scheme, at all times equal in value to the market value of the securities transferred by the depositary plus a premium;(b) for a non-UCITS retail scheme, at all times 6at least equal in value 6to the value of the securities transferred by the depositary; and(c) for a non-UCITS
(1) 1The FCA2will seek to deprive a firm of the financial benefit derived directly from the breach (which may include the profit made or loss avoided) where it is practicable to quantify this. The FCA2 will ordinarily also charge interest on the benefit.22(2) Where the success of a firm’s entire business model is dependent on breachingFCArules2 or other requirements of the regulatory system and the breach is at the core of the firm’s regulated activities, the FCA2 will seek to
(1) The FCA2 will determine a figure that reflects the seriousness of the breach. In many cases, the amount of revenue generated by a firm from a particular product line or business area is indicative of the harm or potential harm that its breach may cause, and in such cases the FCA2 will determine a figure which will be based on a percentage of the firm’s revenue from the relevant products or business areas. The FCA2 also believes that the amount of revenue generated by a firm
(1) This rule applies to a transfer of the listing of:52(a) equity shares with a premium listing into or out of the category of premium listing (investment company); or5(b) equity shares with a premium listing out of the category of premium listing (commercial company); or5(c) equity shares or certificates representing shares with a premium listing out of the category of premium listing (sovereign controlled commercial company) into the category of standard listing (shares) or
As part of the SLRP, the appropriate regulator will give a standard ILAS BIPRU firmindividual liquidity guidance advising it of the amount and quality of liquidity resources which the appropriate regulator considers are appropriate, having regard to the liquidity risk profile of that firm. In giving individual liquidity guidance, the appropriate regulator will also advise the firm of what it considers to be a prudent funding profile for the firm. In giving the firmindividual liquidity
A firm that deviates from current individual liquidity guidance that it has accepted or, as the case may be, from its simplified buffer requirement, will be experiencing a firm-specific liquidity stress for the purpose of the reporting rules in SUP 16 (Reporting requirements). Those rules require the firm to report specified data items more frequently than would otherwise be the case. Additionally, a firm that is implementing a liquidity remediation plan should expect that the
(1) Guidance on what constitutes a branch is given in SUP App 3.18(2) (a) Where a UK MiFID investment firm is seeking to use a tied agent established in another EEA State in which a branch is already established, the tied agent will be assimilated into the branch.18(b) If a UK MiFID investment firm is seeking to use a tied agent established in another EEA State in which no branch is already established, the rules in SUP 13 will apply as if that firm were seeking to establish a
A UK firm17 cannot establish a branch in another EEA State for the first time under an EEA right unless the relevant13 conditions in paragraphs 19(2), (4) and (5)12 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act are satisfied. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to contravene this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act). These conditions are that:913121213(1) the UKfirm has given the appropriate UK regulator,20 in accordance with the
A firm must:(1) have written agreements with all investment firms pursuing a market making strategy on trading venues operated by it (market making agreements);(2) have schemes, appropriate to the nature and scale of a trading venue, to ensure that a sufficient number of investment firms enter into market making agreements which require them to post firm quotes at competitive prices with the result of providing liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis;(3) monitor
A firm which permits direct electronic access to an MTF it operates must:(1) not permit members or participants of the MTF to provide such services unless they are: (a) investment firms authorised under MiFID; or(b) CRD credit institutions; or(c) third country firms providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under article 46.1 of MiFIR; or(d) third country firms providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under article