Related provisions for REC 6.5.1
201 - 220 of 529 items.
1Section 59(1) is relevant where the firm directly employs the person concerned. Under the provision, a firm ('A') must take reasonable care to ensure that no person performs a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by A in relation to the carrying on by it of a regulated activity, unless the appropriate regulator (as defined in section 59(4) of the Act)
approves the performance by that person of the controlled function to which the approval relates.
(1) 1Under sections 312E and 312F of the Act, if the FCA considers that a recognised body has contravened a requirement imposed by the FCA under any provision of the Act that relates to a RIE, or under any provision of the Act whose contravention constitutes an offence the FCA has power to prosecute, or by a qualifying EU provision specified by the Treasury, it may: (a) publish a statement to that effect; or(b) impose on the body a financial penalty of such amount as it considers
(1) Under section 192K of the Act, if the FCA considers that a qualifying parent undertaking of a UK RIE has contravened a requirement of a direction given by the FCA under section 192C of the Act, or a provision of rules made by the FCA under section 192J of the Act, it may:(a) impose a penalty of such amount as it considers appropriate on the qualifying parent undertaking of the UK RIE, or any person who was knowingly concerned in the contravention; or(b) publish a statement
Under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons), the FCA1 may, by giving a written notice, itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report, or 2require any of the following persons to provide it with a report by a skilled person:22(1) a firm; or1(2) any other member of the firm's group; or1(3) a partnership of which the firm is a member; or1(4) a person who has at any relevant time been a person falling within (1), (2) or (3);but only if the person is,
1As well as obtaining information through the appointment of investigators, the FCA may consider using its power under section 166 of the Act to require a firm to provide a report prepared by a skilled person or appoint a skilled person itself to prepare a report. That report may be requested to help the FCA to: (1) determine the amount of profits which have been made by the firm; or (2) establish whether the conduct of the firm has caused any losses or other adverse effects to
A firm must not appoint as appropriate actuary an actuary who has been disqualified by the FCA5 under section 345 of the Act (Disciplinary measures: FCA) or the PRA under section 345A of the Act (Disciplinary measures: PRA5) from acting as an actuary either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm.55
If it appears to the FCA4 that an appropriate actuary has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it may have the power to and5 may disqualify him under section 3454 of the Act. A list of actuaries who have been disqualified may be found on the FCA5 website (http://www.fca.org.uk5).5553325555
1The FCA adopts a similar approach to the exercise of its power of intervention under section 196 as it does to its own-initiative powers to vary Part 4A permission or impose requirements, but with suitable modification for the differences in the statutory grounds for exercising the powers. Consequently the factors and considerations set out in paragraphs 8.2.1 to 8.4.4 and 8.6.1 to 8.6.8 may also be relevant when the FCA is considering regulatory concerns about incoming firm
1When the FCA has made a disapplication order, the member against which it has been made may not perform the exempt regulated activities to which the order relates. If the member contravenes the order, there will be a breach of the general prohibition that may be prosecuted under section 23 of the Act (see chapter 12).
1A disapplication order in relation to exempt regulated activities made against a member will be relevant should that member subsequently apply for authorisation under the Act. Whether or not such an application for authorisation is successful will depend on many factors, including the FCA's grounds for making the disapplication order. For example, if the order for disapplication of the exemption was made on the grounds of a breach of rules made under section 332(1) of the Act,
Regulations 49 and 50 place restrictions on an AIFMmarketing an AIF. These regulations provide that the following types of AIFM may not market the following types of an AIF in the UK unless the conditions summarised below are met.(1) The conditions that need to be met vary depending on whether the AIF falls within regulation 57(1) or not. An AIF falls within this regulation if it is: (a) a feeder AIF that is a UK AIF or an EEA AIF, the master AIF of which is managed by a non-EEA
(1) The terms 'offering' or 'placement' are not defined in the AIFMD UK regulation but, in our view, an offering or placement takes place for the purposes of the AIFMD UK regulation when a person seeks to raise capital by making a unit of share of anAIF available for purchase by a potential investor. This includes situations which constitute a contractual offer that can be accepted by a potential investor in order to make the investment and form a binding contract, and situations
(1) Regulation 46 (Application of the financial promotion and scheme promotion restrictions) provides that where a person may market an AIF under regulation 49, 50 or 51:(a) to the extent that such marketing falls within section 21(1) (restrictions on financial promotion) or 238(1) (restrictions on promotion) of the Act, the person may market the AIF to a retail client only if the person does so without breaching the restriction in that section; and(b) to the extent that any activity
The FCA considers that the 4following documents together 4determine the effect of the Prospectus Directive6: 4(1) Part 6 of the Act;(2) the PD Regulation;(3) these rules; 4(4) the ESMA Prospectus Recommendations434(5) the ESMA Prospectus Questions and Answers;4(6) the ESMA Prospectus Opinions6; and4(7) the Prospectus RTS Regulations5. 4
In determining whether Part 6 of the Act, these rules ,4the PD Regulation and the Prospectus RTS Regulations5have2 been complied with, the FCA will consider whether a person has acted in accordance with the4ESMA Prospectus Recommendations, the ESMA Prospectus Questions and Answers and the ESMA Prospectus Opinions6. 4424244
Sections 292(3) and 292(4) state:
2Section 292(3) |
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The requirements are that- |
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(a) |
investors are afforded protection equivalent to that which they would be afforded if the body concerned were required to comply with -4 3 |
4(i) recognition requirements, other than any such requirements which are expressed in regulations under section 286 not to apply for the purposes of this paragraph; and |
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4(ii) requirements contained in any directly applicable Community regulation made under the markets in financial instruments directive or markets in financial instruments regulation; |
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(b) |
there are adequate procedures for dealing with a person who is unable, or likely to become unable, to meet his obligations in respect of one or more market contracts connected with the [ROIE] 3 |
(c) |
the applicant is able and willing to co-operate with the[FCA]3by the sharing of information and in other ways; and 3 |
(d) |
adequate arrangements exist for co-operation between the[FCA]3and those responsible for the supervision of the applicant in the country or territory in which the applicant's head office is situated. 3 |
Section 292(4) |
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In considering whether it is satisfied as to the requirements mentioned in subsections (3)(a) and (b), the[FCA]3is to have regard to- 3 |
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(a) |
the relevant law and practice of the country or territory in which the applicant's head office is situated; |
(b) |
the rules and practices of the applicant. |
Section 87B(1) of the Act sets out when the FCA may authorise the omission of information from a prospectus:
(1) |
The [FCA] may authorise the omission from a prospectus of any information, the inclusion of which would otherwise be required, on the ground – |
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(a) |
that its disclosure would be contrary to the public interest; |
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(b) |
that its disclosure would be seriously detrimental to the issuer, provided that the omission would be unlikely to mislead the public with regard to any facts or circumstances which are essential for an informed assessment of the kind mentioned in section 87A(2); or |
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(c) |
that the information is only of minor importance for a specific offer to the public or admission to trading on a regulated market and unlikely to influence an informed assessment of the kind mentioned in section 87A(2). |
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2Article 2(2) of Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/301 sets out requirements regarding the submission of requests to omit information from a prospectus. The FCA considers that a reasoned request for this purpose would: (1) be in writing from the applicant;(2) identify the specific information concerned and the specific reasons for its omission; and(3) state why in the applicant's opinion one or more of the grounds in section 87B(1) of the Act applies.2[Note: Extracts
This guidance is issued under section 139A of the Act (Guidance). It is designed to throw light on particular aspects of regulatory requirements, not to be an exhaustive description of a person's obligations. If a person acts in line with the guidance in the circumstances it contemplates, the FCA will proceed on the footing that the person has complied with aspects of the requirement to which the guidance relates. Rights conferred on third parties cannot be affected by guidance
1The following are examples of situations where the FCA may consider it appropriate to seek a court order under section 258 (in the case of an AUT) or section 261Y (in the case of an ACS) to remove the authorised fund
manager or depositary:
(1) Where there are grounds for concern over the behaviour of the authorised fund
manager or depositary in respect of the management of the scheme or of its assets. (2) Where an authorised
1Decisions about whether to apply to the civil courts for collective investment scheme related orders under the Act will be made by the RDC Chairman or, in an urgent case and if the Chairman is not available, by an RDC Deputy Chairman. In an exceptionally urgent case the matter will be decided by the director of Enforcement or, in his or her absence, another member of the FCA's executive of at least director of division level.
1The FCA's power to conduct investigations to assist overseas authorities is contained in section 169 of the Act. The section provides that at the request of an overseas regulator, the FCA may use its power under section 165 to require the production of documents or the provision of information under section 165 or to appoint a person to investigate any matter.
1The FCA's power to conduct investigations to assist EEA regulators in respect of the short selling regulation is contained in section 131FA of the Act. The section provides that at the request of an EEA regulator or ESMA, the FCA may either use its power under section 131E to require the production of information, or appoint a person to investigate any matter.
The fact of a person holding a certificate granted under article 54(3) is information which may be of relevance to other persons (including investors or potential investors). For this reason, the FCA considers it appropriate that details of certificates granted under article 54(3) should be included in a list on the public record which the FCA is required to maintain under section 347 of the Act (The record of authorised persons, etc).