Related provisions for GENPRU 1.1.2B

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PERG 6.3.1GRP
The business of effecting or carrying out contracts of insurance is subject to prior authorisation under the Act1and regulation by the FCA and PRA1. (There are some limited exceptions to this requirement, for example, for breakdown insurance.)1
INSPRU 3.1.26RRP
Where the assets of a firm invested in a significant territory for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Capital Resources Requirements, 20.10,8 represent less than 0.5% of the firm'slong-term insurance assets (excluding assets held to cover index-linked liabilities or property-linked liabilities), measured by market value, the firm may assume for those assets the market risk scenario for assets of that kind invested in the United Kingdom set out in8PRA Rulebook:
DTR 8.5.12GRP
The FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a primary information provider can provide or suspend a primary information provider's approval if the FCA considers it desirable to do so in order to advance one or more of its operational objectives.[Note: A statutory notice may be required under section 89V of the Act. Where this is the case, the procedure for giving a statutory notice is set out in DEPP.]
SYSC 4.3A.2RRP
A common platform firm4 must ensure that the chairman of the firm's management body does not exercise simultaneously the PRA’s Chief Executive function (controlled function SMF14) or 3chief executive function within the same firm4.[Note: article 88(1)(e) of CRD and article 9(1) of MiFID4] 3
SUP 16.4.12RRP
An insurer14 need not submit a report under SUP 16.4.5R to the extent that the information has already been provided to the PRA under requirements in the PRA Rulebook14.4121515
EG 7.1.3RP
3Section 415B of the Act requires the FCA to consult with the PRA before it takes certain enforcement action in relation to a PRA-authorised person or someone who has a qualifying relationship (as defined in section 415B(4) of the Act) with a PRA-authorised person. Further detail on when the FCA is required to consult the PRA, and when it has agreed to notify the PRA of certain matters, is set out in the Memorandum of Understanding between the PRA and the FCA.
ICOBS 6.3.1RRP
  1. (1)

    Before a pure protection contract is concluded, a firm must communicate, at least,1 the information in the table below to the customer.1

    1
  2. (2)

    The information must be provided in a clear and accurate manner, in writing, and in an official language of the State of the commitment or in another language if the policyholder so requests and the law of the State of the commitment so permits or the policyholder is free to choose the applicable law.1

    1

    3. Information to be communicated before conclusion

    (1)

    The name of the insurance undertaking and its legal form.

    (2)

    The name of the EEA State in which the head office and, where appropriate, the agency or branch1 concluding the contract is situated.

    1

    (3)

    The address of the head office and, where appropriate, of the agency or branch concluding the contract.

    1(3a)

    A concrete reference to the firm'sSFCR allowing the policyholder easy access to this information.

    (4)*

    Definition of each benefit and each option.

    (5)*

    Term of the contract.

    (6)*

    Means of terminating the contract.

    (7)*

    Means of payment of premiums and duration of payments.

    (8)*

    Information on the premiums for each benefit, both main benefits and supplementary benefits, where appropriate.

    (9)*1

    Arrangements for application of the cancellation period.

    (10)

    General information on the tax arrangements applicable to the type of policy.

    (11)

    The arrangements for handling complaints concerning contracts by policyholders, lives assured or beneficiaries1 under contracts including, where appropriate, the existence of a complaints body (usually the Financial Ombudsman Service), without prejudice to the right to take legal proceedings.

    1

    (12)

    The law applicable to the contract where the parties do not have a free choice or, where the parties are free to choose the law applicable, the law the firm1 proposes to choose.

    1

    Note: The rule on mid-term changes applies to items marked with an asterisk (see ICOBS 6.3.3 R).

[Note: article 185 of the Solvency II Directive1]

1
FEES 2.2.2GRP
The FCA22, (for FCA and PRA22periodic fees, FOS and FSCS levies, CFEB levies and SFGB levies18), expects11 to issue invoices at least 30 days before the date on which the relevant amounts fall due. Accordingly it will generally be the case that a person will have at least 30 days from the issue of the invoice before an administrative fee becomes payable.226723117232
EG 19.26.1RP
1The FCA has information gathering and sanctioning powers under the Act which are applicable to breaches of EMIR requirements by authorised persons or recognised bodies. The OTC derivatives, CCPs and trade repositories regulation adds to the powers available to the FCA for dealing with breaches of EMIR requirements and sets out information gathering and sanctioning powers enabling the FCA to investigate and take action for breaches of the EMIR requirements
SUP 15.11.18GRP
When considering whether to make a notification pursuant to2section 64C of the Act, a firm should also consider whether a notification should be made under any notification rules, including, without limitation, any notification rules that require a notification to be made to the PRA.
SYSC 5.1.5GRP
The requirements on firms with respect to approved persons are in Part V of the Act (Performance of regulated activities) and SUP 10A, SUP 10C and in the corresponding parts of the PRA’s Rulebook9.1616
SUP 11.9.3-AGRP
6The FCA may ask the firm for additional information following a notification under SUP 11.9.1A R in order to satisfy itself that the firm continues to satisfy the threshold conditions (see SUP 2: Information gathering by the FCA and PRA on their own initiative).
SUP 8.2.1GRP
Under section 138A12of the Act (Modification or waiver of rules), the appropriate regulator12 may, on the application or with the consent of a firm, direct that its 9rules:121299(1) are not to apply to the firm; or(2) are to apply to the firm with such modifications as may be specified.
BIPRU 7.11.11RRP
Ifan nth-to-default4 derivative is externally rated and meets the conditions for a qualifying debt security, then the protection seller need only calculate one specific risk charge reflecting the rating of the derivative. The specific risk charge must be based on the securitisationPRAs in BIPRU 7.2 as applicable.44
SUP 8.1.1AGRP
This chapter is relevant to an applicant for a Part 4A permission7, as if that applicant were a firm. Where the chapter refers to appropriate7supervisory contact, the applicant should read this as being the usual supervisory7contact at7 the appropriate regulator7. Further, this chapter is relevant to a person who is subject to rules made by the appropriate regulator7 and where the chapter refers to a firm, this includes that person5.177577
SUP 10C.7.3GRP

Table: Examples of how the other overall responsibility function applies

1Example

Comments

(1) ‘A’ is appointed to perform the executive director function2 and to perform a potential other overall responsibility function for the same firm.

A only needs approval to perform the executive director function2.

(2) ‘A’ is approved to perform the other overall responsibility function. Later, A is appointed to perform the executive director function2 for the same firm.

A requires approval for the other overall responsibility function when A is first appointed. When A is later approved to perform the executive director function2, A stops performing the other overall responsibility function. The firm should use Form E to apply for approval for A to perform the executive director function and to notify the FCA that A is no longer performing the other overall responsibility function2.

(3) ‘A’ is appointed to perform the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function for Firm X2 and to perform a potential other overall responsibility function for the same firm. Firm X is an SMCR banking firm.2

A only needs approval to perform the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function. It does not make any difference whether the potential other overall responsibility function that A performs is connected to the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function.

(4) ‘A’ is approved to perform the other overall responsibility function for Firm X. Firm X is an SMCR banking firm.2 Later, A is appointed to perform the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function for the same firm.

A requires approval for the other overall responsibility function when A is first appointed. When A is later approved to perform the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function, A stops performing the other overall responsibility function.

(5) ‘A’ is appointed to perform:

(a) the compliance oversight function for one firm (Firm X) in a group (which may or may not be an SMCR firm to which the other overall responsibility function applies2); and

(b) a function coming within the scope of the other overall responsibility function for another firm (which is a an SMCR firm to which the other overall responsibility function applies2) in the same group (Firm Y).

A needs approval to perform the compliance oversight function for Firm X and the other overall responsibility function for Firm Y.

(6) ‘A’ is appointed to be head of sales for Firm X2 and to report directly to the firm'sgoverning body about this. This function also comes within the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function. Firm X is an SMCR banking firm.2

A only needs approval to perform the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function.

(7) ‘A’ is appointed to take on some functions that come within the other overall responsibility function. Later, A is appointed as chief risk officer.

The firm is one of those for which being chief risk officer is a

PRA-designated senior management function.2

On A’s first appointment, A will need to be approved to perform the other overall responsibility function.

On being appointed as chief risk officer, 2A will stop performing the other overall responsibility function.

(8) ‘A’ is appointed to a role for Firm X2 that comes within the other overall responsibility function. Firm X is an SMCR banking firm.2 Later, the firm reorganises and A’s role comes within the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function. A’s role does not otherwise change.

On A’s first appointment, A will need to be approved to perform the other overall responsibility function.2

When A is later approved to perform the PRA’s Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function, A stops performing the other overall responsibility function.2

(9) ‘A’ is appointed to a role for Firm X2 that comes within the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function. It is also a potential other overall responsibility function. Later, the firm reorganises—A’s role stays the same but now it falls outside the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function.

On A’s first appointment, A only needs approval to perform the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function. Following the reorganisation, the firm has three months to get approval for A to perform the other overall responsibility function. This three-month period applies because the relevant PRA rules keep the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function in place, which means that the other overall responsibility function does not apply during that period.

The relevant PRA rules can be found in Chapter 2 of the part of the PRA Rulebook2 titled ‘Senior Management Functions’.

This example only applies if Firm X is an SMCR banking firm. If Firm X is an insurer it will need to obtain FCA approval before the reorganisation takes effect as the relevant PRA insurance rules are different from the ones for SMCR banking firms.2

(10) ‘A’ is appointed to a role for Firm X2 that comes within the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function. A also performs a potential other overall responsibility function. Later,2 A gives up the PRA role but carries on with the potential other overall responsibility function.

The answer to example (9) applies.

(11) ‘A’ is appointed as an executive director. A then resigns and takes up a job with the same firm coming within the other overall responsibility function.

On A’s first appointment, A will need to be approved to perform the executive director function2. A will need to get approval to perform the other overall responsibility function before A takes up their new responsibilities.2

Note (1): A potential other overall responsibility function means a function that would have come within the other overall responsibility function but is excluded by SUP 10C.7.1R(2).

Note (2): A potential other overall responsibility function should be recorded in A’s statement of responsibilities and in the firm'smanagement responsibilities map.
SYSC 18.1.1AAGRP
2Firms are reminded that for the purpose of SYSC 18 (except for SYSC 18.3.9G) “firm” has the specific meaning set out in paragraph (8) of that definition in the Glossary, namely:“(8) (in SYSC 18, with the exception of the guidance in SYSC 18.3.9G):5(a) a UK SMCR banking firm6 except a small deposit taker; and3(b) a firm as referred to in Chapter 1.1 of the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II Firms: Whistleblowing Instrument 2015.”
SUP 3.1.2RRP

Applicable sections (see SUP 3.1.1 R)

This table and the provisions in SUP 3 should be read in conjunction with GEN 2.2.23 R to GEN 2.2.25 G. In particular, the PRA does not apply any of the provisions in SUP 3 in respect of FCA-authorised persons. SUP 3.10 and SUP 3.11 are applied by the FCA only.41

(1) Category of firm

(2) Sections applicable to the firm

(3) Sections applicable to its auditor

(1)

Authorised professional firm which is required by IPRU(INV) 2.1.2R to comply with chapters 3, 519 or 13 of IPRU(INV) and which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9 (Notes 1 and 6)23

23192323

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10

19

(2)

Authorised professional firm not within (1) to which the custody chapter or client money chapter applies22

172223

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.11

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(3)

Authorised professional firm not within (1) or (2) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(4)

Bank, building society or dormant account fund operator21which in each case carries on designated investment business21(Notes 2A and 6)23

23

SUP 3.1-SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(5)

Bank, building society or a dormant account fund operator which in each case does not carry on designated investment business21 (Note 2A)

21

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(5A)

Credit union

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.824

27(5B)30

CASS debt management firm unless subject to a requirement imposed under section 55L of the Act stating that it must not hold client money or such a requirement to the same effect30

SUP 3.1

SUP 3.10

SUP 3.11

SUP 3.1

SUP 3.10

33(5C)

CASS 7 loan-based crowdfunding firm

SUP 3.1-3.7, SUP 3.11

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(6)

Insurer, the Society of Lloyd's, underwriting agent or members' adviser, UK ISPV11 (Note 5)7

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(7)

Investment management firm, (other than an exempt CAD firm),16personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm) 15,28securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm20)15 or collective portfolio management firm that is an external AIFM28 which, in each case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9(Notes 3 and 623)17

239281723

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10

19

9(7A)

Investment management firm (other than an exempt CAD firm)20, personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm15),28securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm15 or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm20) or collective portfolio management firm that is an external AIFM28 not within (7) to which the custody chapter or client money chapter applies22

23281722

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.1025

32

25

9(7B)

Collective portfolio management firm that is a 28UCITS firm13or an internally managed AIF28 (Note 6)23

13

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10

19

13(7C)

UK MiFID investment firm, which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act (Notes 3B and 6)2320

2023

SUP 3.1 - 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.1014

17(7D)

Sole trader or partnership that is a UK20MiFID investment firm (other than an exempt CAD firm) (Notes 3C and 6)2320

2023

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(8)

Small personal investment firm or service company which, in either case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(9)8

Home finance provider10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9

10

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88

(10)8

Insurance intermediary (other than an exempt insurance intermediary) to which the insurance client money chapter17 (except for CASS 5.2 (Holding money as agent)) applies (see Note 4)8

17

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.78, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.108

(11)8

Exempt insurance intermediary and insurance intermediary not subject to SUP 3.1.2 R(10) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88

(12)8

Home finance intermediary10 or home finance administrator10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act.

1010

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88

Note 1 = This chapter applies to an authorised professional firm in row (1) (and its auditor) as if the firm were of the relevant type in the right-hand column of IPRU(INV) 2.1.4R.

Note 2 [deleted]23

171723

Note 2A = For this purpose, designated investment business does not include either or both:

(a) dealing which falls within the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc) (or agreeing to do so); and

(b) dealing in investments as principal (or agreeing to do so):

(i) by a firm whose permission to deal in investments as principal is subject to a limitation to the effect that the firm, in carrying on this regulated activity, is limited to entering into transactions in a manner which, if the firm was an unauthorised person, would come within article 16 of the Regulated Activities Order (Dealing in contractually based investments); and

(ii) in a manner which comes within that limitation;

having regard to article 4(4) of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified activities: general23).

18

Note 3 = This note applies in relation to an oil market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply and in relation to an energy market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply. In SUP 3:

(a) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.7 are applicable to such a firm; and

(b) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 are applicable to its auditor;

and, in each case, only if it has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act.

17Note 3A [deleted]23

23

20Note 3B = UK MiFID investment firms include exempt CAD firms. An exempt CAD firm that has opted into MiFID can benefit from the audit exemption for small companies in the Companies Act legislation if it meets is an exempt investment firm as defined by article 8 of the MiFI Regulations.31 If a firm does so benefit then SUP 3 will not apply to it. For further details about exempt CAD firms, see PERG 13, Q58.

17Note 3C20 = A sole trader or a partnership that is a UK MiFID investment firm20 to which the custody chapter22 or client money chapter applies2220 must have its annual accounts audited.

20202222

Note 4 = The client money audit requirement in SUP 3.1.2 R(10) therefore applies to all insurance intermediaries except:8

• those which do not hold client money or other client assets in relation to insurance distribution activities34; or 8

• those which only hold up to, but not exceeding, £30,000 of client money under a statutory trust arising under CASS 5.3.8

Insurance intermediaries which, in relation to insurance distribution activities34, hold no more than that amount of client money only on a statutory trust are exempt insurance intermediaries.8

Note (5) = In row (6):7

(a)7

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7 applies to a managing agent in respect of its own business and in respect of the insurance business of each syndicate which it manages; and7

(b)7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 apply to the auditors of a managing agent and the auditors of the insurance business of each syndicate which the managing agent manages.1234567

23Note 6 = Where SUP 3.11 applies to a firm, and SUP 3.10 applies to the auditor of that firm, those sections apply whether or not that firm'spermission prevents it from holding client money or custody assets and whether or not it holds client money or custody assets.A collective portfolio management firm that is an internally managed AIF is required to appoint an auditor under FUND 3.3.6R (2) (Annual report of an AIF) because the AIFM is also an AIF.28
GENPRU 2.1.61GRP
Where two or more banks merge, all of which individually have the benefit of GENPRU 2.1.60 R, the PRA may agree in certain circumstances that the base capital resources requirement for the bank resulting from the merger may be the sum of the aggregate capital resources of the merged banks, calculated at the time of the merger, provided this figure is less than €5 million.